General Awareness - SPLessons

UPSC Prelims Quiz

Home > > Tutorial
SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

UPSC Prelims Quiz

shape Introduction

In General Current Affair means General Issue. Those important Issues that are happening around the world. These Current Affairs related to several fields like International, National, Sports, Politics, Economy, Science and Technology, and Environment. Current Affairs Section is very important in several exams like UPSC, SSC, Banking, RRB, SBI, IAS, and IBPS, etc. Through daily newspapers and daily news, there is a huge chance of scoring maximum marks in several exams.
The main aim of the article UPSC Prelims Quiz is to clear the civil exams. The Civil’s Exam is the toughest exam in competitive Field. It provides important and useful questions related to Current Affairs.

shape Quiz

1. Consider the following statements about Ramanuja:
    1. He was a Shaivite. 2. He is regarded as the Chief proponent of Visishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta. 3. His 216 foot tall statue is being built in Hyderabad.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 3 Only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer - Option B
Explanation - A 216-foot-tall statue of Ramanuja will be built at Hyderabad.
He was a Hindu theologian, philosopher, and one of the most important exponents of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition within Hinduism.
He is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta.
He wrote influential texts, such as bhāsya on the Brahma Sutras and the Bhagavad Gita, all in Sanskrit.
2. Consider the following statements:
    1. India has 36 UNESCO World Heritage sites. 2. The latest to be included in this list is Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - India gets its 37th WORLD UNESCO World HERITAGE SITE. The decision was taken at the 42nd session of the World Heritage Committee of UNESCO at Manama in Bahrain.
37th site: Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai.
3. With which of the states is Behdienkhlam festival is associated?
    A. Odisha B. Tamil Nadu C. Meghalaya D. Mizoram

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Behdienkhlam, one of the most colourful festivals of the State, was recently celebrated in the Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya.
It is celebrated to invoke the gods for a bumper harvest and drive away the plague.
The non-Christian ‘Pnar’ people who believe either in the traditional faith of ‘Niamtre’ or Hinduism observes this festival.
4. Consider the following statements about World Sanskrit Conference:
    1. It is a premier international forum for the scholars of Sanskrit. 2. It is convened annually under the auspices of International Association of Sanskrit Studies. 3. In 2018, the Conference was hosted in Vancouver, Canada
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 1 and 3 Only C. 2 and 3 Only D. 1 and 2 Only

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The 2018 World Sanskrit Conference (WSC) is being hosted by the Department of Asian Studies at the University of British Columbia in Vancouver, Canada. It is 17th such conference.
It is convened every three years under the auspices of the International Association of Sanskrit Studies.
5. Consider the following statements about Rani-ki-Vav:
    1. It is UNESCO World Heritage Site. 2. It was built by Queen Udyamati of Solanki Dynasty in 11th Century. 3. It is built in complex Maru-Gurjara architectural style.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 1 and 3 Only C. 2 and 3 Only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will soon be releasing a new lavender Rs 100 currency note.
The banknote highlights the rich and diverse cultural heritage of India as it prominently displays a photograph of ‘Rani-ki-vav’ (The Queen’s Stepwell), an 11th century architectural wonder.
6. Who among the following was not a professional painter in oriental art in the context of modern Indian history?
    A. Thomas Daniell B. Nathaniel Halhead C. Johann Zoffany D. William Daniell

Answer - Option B
7. Maghar, where the saint-poet Kabir Das attained samadhi, is located in
    A. Bihar B. Uttar Pradesh C. Rajasthan D. Gujarat

Answer - Option B
Explanation - In eastern Uttar Pradesh, there is a place called Maghar.It is here that Sant Kabir Das Ji attained Samadhi.
8. Consider the following statements about National Culture Fund:
    1. It is a fund managed by a Council headed by Minister of Culture. 2. The contributions to fund are eligible for 100% tax deductions under the Income Tax Act
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - National Culture Fund (NCF) was set up as a Trust under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890 in November 1996 by the Government, with a view to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships.
The National Culture Fund is managed and administered by a council headed by Hon’ble Culture Minister to decide the policies and an Executive Committee headed by Secretary,Culture to actualize those policies.
The Fund aims at inviting the participation of the corporate sector, non-government organizations, private/public sector as well as individuals in the task of promoting,protecting and preserving India’s cultural heritage.
Projects undertaken by the NCF are completed within a specified period, in accordance with an MoU signed by NCF with the concerned donor organization.
The donations/contributions to NCF are eligible for 100% tax deduction under the Income Tax Act, 1961 subject to the limits and conditions prescribed in the said Section and relevant Rules.
9. Consider the following statements about NationalMission for Manuscripts
    1. It is a mission undertaken by the Ministry of Culture. 2. The purpose of the Mission is to find ancient manuscripts all over India
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - National mission for manuscripts (NMM) has digitized 283 lakh pages of 2.96 lakh manuscripts till date.
In 2003, the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM), a Mission mode Project was launched by the Ministry of Culture for documentation, conservation, preservation and digitization of manuscripts.
The manuscripts documented and digitized by the NMM will be made available to researcher and scholars through a Trusted Digital Repository.
The ultimate object of the Mission is to establish a Digital Manuscripts Repository at IGNCA in which researchers and scholars can view and consult the manuscripts to understand our past in its totality.
10. Which of the following statements regarding The Indian Trust for Rural Heritage and Development is/are correct:
    A. It is a trust established by Ministry of Tourism. B. It is subsidiary body of Ministry of Culture. C. It is an NGO dedicated for preservation of Rural Heritage of India. D. None of the above

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Indian Trust for Rural Heritage and Development (ITRHD) is an NGO devoted to preservation of Indian Heritage and Culture in Rural India and working in about 7 states of India.
1. Consider the following statements about Nelson Mandela:
    1. He was a famous politician and activist who played an important role in anti-apartheid movement of South Africa. 2. 18 July is worldwide celebrated as Nelson International Day 3. He was also a winner of Nobel Peace Prize
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Nelson Mandela International Day 2018 marks 100 years since the birth of Nelson Mandela (18 July 1918). Nelson Mandela International Day is a global event held annually to honor former South African president and anti-apartheid activist Nelson Mandela.
The first Mandela Day was held on Mandela’s 91st birthday on July 18,2009 to promote volunteering and community service, being marked worldwide with community service events, art exhibits, fundraisers and a concert at Radio City Music Hall in New York City.
The United Nations soon took interest and supported the idea of a global day honoring Mandela, declaring in November 2009 the marking of July 18 as Nelson Mandela International Day.
For his efforts promoting social justice, democracy and peace, he was awarded dozens of prestigious accolades, including the Nobel Peace Prize and the U.S.Presidential Medal of Freedom.
2. Dead sea is surrounded by which of the following countries:
    1. Israel 2. Palestine 3. Jordan 4. Lebanon
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 1 and 3 Only C. 1, 2 and 3 Only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer - Option C
Explanation - India recognizes Palestine as a state. We also have mission of Palestine in New Delhi
3. Consider the following statements about Sukannya Smridhi Yojana:
    1. It is a small deposit scheme for the girl child. 2. Account can be opened any time after the birth of a girl till she turns 10.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a small deposit scheme for the girl child launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign.
Account can be opened any time after the birth of a girl till she turns 10, with a minimum deposit of Rs 250 (Earlier it was Rs 1,000).
In subsequent years, a minimum of Rs 250 and a maximum of Rs 1.5 lakh can be deposited during the ongoing financial year.
The account can be opened in any post office or authorised branches of commercial banks.
The account will remain operative for 21 years from the date of its opening or till the marriage of the girl after she turns 18.
4. Consider the following statements about Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme:
    1. It is a scheme aimed at improving Child Sex Ratio and promoting Girl Child’s Education. 2. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of Child and Women Development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme was launched inJanuary, 2015. The scheme is aimed at promoting gender equality and the significance of educating girls.
It is a tri-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health & Family Welfare and Human Resource Development.
5. Consider the following statements about National Register of Citizens which is often seen in news:
    1. It is a Register which seeks to identify illegal immigrants from Bangladesh and recognize the Indian citizens. 2. It was first prepared in 1951 and Assam is the only state having such a Register. 3. The benchmark for identifying citizens of India and illegal immigrants is March 21, 1971.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are correct

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The updated NRC will count only those as Assam citizens who can prove their residency on or before March 21, 1971. This means that all those not included in the list run the risk of being rendered,illegal immigrants.
The NRC was introduced to identify illegal immigrants from Bangladesh and recognize the Indian citizens in Assam. It was first prepared in 1951 and Assam is the only state having this arrangement.
6. Which 0f the following states had recently granted minority status to Jews community.
    A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu C. Gujarat D. Karnataka

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Gujarat is third state in India to grant religious minority status to Jews after West Bengal and Maharashtra.
The Synagogue Judah Hyam Hall is the only place of worship in Delhi for Jews.
Constitution of India has not defined the word ‘Minority’ and only refers to ‘Minorities’ but it speaks of those ‘based on religion or language’ and rights of minorities have been spelled out in Constitution in detail.
Six religious communities, viz. Muslims, Christians,Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains have been notified in Gazette of India as minoritycommunities by Union Government all over India.
7. Consider the following statements:
    1. Every Year, July 11 is celebrated as the World Population Day. 2. The theme this Year was: “Population as Resource”
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - July 11 was established as World Population Day in 1989 by the United Nations and since then it has been celebrated on this date every year.
The United Nations recognizes World Population day as an important event to spread information of population-related issues across the globe.
Theme for 2018: World Population day will run on the theme “Family Planning is a Humanright” this year.
8. Consider the following statements about Swachh Survekshan Grameen:
    1. It is a survey conducted by MoEFCC to rank States and DistrictsBon the basis of their achievements to curb Plastic Use. 2. It will cover both quantitative and qualitative aspects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Union Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MDWS) has launched Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2018 (SSG 2018).
SSG is a rural cleanliness survey to rank all states and districts on the basis of qualitative and quantitative evaluation.
9. Recently, Animals were declared legal entity by the High Court of the following State:
    A. Uttar Pradesh B. Kerala C. Madhya Pradesh D. Uttrakhand

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Uttarakhand high court has declared the entire animal kingdom, including birds and aquatic animals, as a legal entity having rights of a “living person”. The move aims to ensure “greater welfare” of animals.
The entire animal kingdom, including avian and aquatic ones, are declared as legal entities having a distinct persona with corresponding rights, duties and liabilities of a living person.
10. Consider the following statements about Khadi & Village industries commission:
    1. The commission is an executive body. 2. It works under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Industries. 3. The commission has three main objectives i.e. Social, Economic and Wider
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are Correct

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament (Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956). In April 1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board.
Functions: It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India, which seeks to –“plan, promote, facilitate, organize and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.”
1. Consider the following statements about Higher Education Financing Agency:
    1. It is a Special Purpose Vehicle with Canara Bank. 2. The purpose of the agency is to mobilize funds for infrastructure development in Higher Education Institutions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The cabinet has approved the proposal for expanding the scope of Higher Education Financing Agency (HEFA) byenhancing its capital base to Rs. 10,000 crore and tasking it to mobilise Rs. 1,00,000 crore for Revitalizing Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE) by 2022.
About HEFA: What is it? The Union Cabinet had approved HEFA in September 2016 as a Special Purpose Vehicle with a public sector bank (Canara Bank). It would be jointly funded by the promoter/bank and the MHRD with an authorised capital of ₹10,000 crore.
Functions: HEFA will leverage the equity to raise up to ₹1 Lakh crore for the funding of world-class infrastructure at the IITs, IIMs, the National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and such other institutions. The agency will also mobilize Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) funds from public sector units (PSUs) and corporates. These would be released as grants to eligible.
2. Consider the following statements about Indian Council of World Affairs:
    1. It is an Institution of National Importance. 2. It is headed by Minister of External Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Dr. TCA Raghavan is the new Director General (DG) of Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).
It was established in 1943 by a group of Indian intellectuals as think tank.
It was declared an institution of national importance by Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA), 2001 enacted by Parliament.
3. Consider the following statements about National Green Tribunal:
    1. It is a statuary body established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. 2. Currently, the tribunal has 10 Judicial and 10 Expert Members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Sanctioned strength: currently, 10 expert members and 10 judicial members (although the act allows for up to 20 ofeach).
Chairman: is the administrative head of the tribunal, also serves as a judicial member and is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Selection: Members are chosen by a selection committee (headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India) that reviews their applications and conducts interviews.
The Judicial members are chosen from applicants who are serving or retired judges of High Courts.
Expert members are chosen from applicants who are either serving or retired bureaucrats not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government of India (not below the rank of Principal Secretary if serving under a state government) with a minimum administrative experience of five years in dealing with environmental matters. Or, the expert members must have a doctorate in a related field.
The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
4. Consider the following statements about Centre Adoption Resource Authority(CARA):
    1. It is an executive body functioning under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. 2. It functions as the nodal ministry for intra and inter-country adoptions of Children. 3. It is mandatory that Child Care Institutions operating in the country must be linked to CARA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are correct.

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Central Adoption Resource Authority(CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
It functions as the nodal body for the adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993,ratified by Government of India in 2003.
5. Consider the following statements about Institute of Chartered Accountants of India:
    1. It is a statutory body. 2. It regulates the financial audit and accountancy profession in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Cabinet approves MoU between the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India and Bahrain Institute of Banking and Finance, Bahrain.
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament of India, ‘The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, to regulate the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India.
ICAI is the second largest professional Accounting & Finance body in the world.
ICAI is the only licensing cum regulating body of the financial audit and accountancy profession in India.
It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS).
ICAI is solely responsible for setting the Standards on Auditing (SAs) to be followed in the audit of financial statements in India.
ICAI is one of the founder members of the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC).
6. Consider the following statements in relation to census in India:
    1. Census in India is conducted by Registrar General and Census Commissioner (RG&CC). 2. RG&CC is a body under the control of Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - According to an amended rule notified by the Registrar-General of India (RGI), the data collected during the 2021 Census will be stored electronically, the first time since the decennial exercise was conducted in 1951 in Independent India.
The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, As of 2011. While it has been conducted every 10 years,beginning in 1872, the first complete census was taken in the year 1881.
7. Which of the following States has recently passed Witch Hunting (Prohibition, Prevention and Protection) Bill:
    A. Mizoram B. Manipur C. Tripura D. Assam

Answer - Option D
8. Recently, Union Government had constituted a Committee to look into the issue of Mob Lynching. It is headed by:
    A. Y.M Deosthalee B. Soli S Sorabjee C. Rajiv Gauba D. Indu Bhushan

Answer - Option C
9. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Urban
    1. It is implemented by Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. 2. The scheme provides subsidized housing loans.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Programme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in Mission mode envisions provision of Housing for All by 2022.
Under the scheme, the government is providing an interest subsidy of 6.5% on housing loans which can be availed by beneficiaries for 15 years from the start of the loan date.
10. Consider the following statements about Target Olympic Podium Scheme:
    1. The scheme seeks to identify and support potential medal prospects for upcoming Olympic Games. 2. The scheme will be financed by Khelo India Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Mission Olympic Cell has included the entire Indian hockey team in the Target Olympic Podium Scheme,rewarding the players for their silver medal-winning performance at the Champions Trophy.
It was launched by Ministry of Sports within the ambit of National Sports Development Fund (NSDF).
It aims at identifying and supporting potential medal prospects for upcoming Olympic Games.
It will provide selected sportspersons customized training at institutes having world-class facilities and also other necessary support is being provided to the elite athletes. It will also provide a benchmark for selection of athletes on par with international standards.
1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Port Blair is one of the cities selected by the Government of India under the Smart City Mission. 2. The Island Development Agency is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary and includes as a member the Lt. Governor of Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Island Development Agency is chaired by the Home Minister.
The Cabinet Secretary, Lt. Governor of A&N Islands and Administrator of Lakshadweep Islands attend its meetings.
2. Consider the following statements about ‘Institutions of Eminence (IoE)’ scheme:
    1. Each institution selected as IoE will get financial assistance upto Rs. 1,000 crore over a period of five years. 2. The aim of the scheme is to bring higher educational institutions selected as IoEs in top 500 of world ranking in the next 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The aim of the scheme is to bring higher educational institutions (both public and private) selected as IoEs in top 500 of world ranking in the next 10 years and in top 100 eventually overtime.
The scheme has been launched with an objective to provide world class teaching and research facilities to Indian students within the country and enhance general level of education of the country.
Each public institution (and not all) selected as ‘Institution of Eminence’ will get financial assistance up to Rs. 1000 Croreover the period of five years under this scheme.
3. The ‘Samagra Shiksha’ scheme subsumes:
    1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan 2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan 3. Teacher Education
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Union Budget, 2018-19, had proposed to treat school education holistically without segmentation from pre-nursery to Class 12.
Samagra Shiksha – an overarching programme for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class 12 – has been,therefore, prepared with the broader goal of improving schools.
4. Shekatkar Committee is in relation to:
    A. Strengthening Intelligence Bureau of India B. Addressing Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace. C. Reforming Indian Army D. None

Answer - Option C
5. Recently, Nipah Virus was in news. The first case in relation to it was identified in which state?
    A. Kerala B. Karnataka C. Tamil Nadu D. Telangana

Answer - Option A
6. Consider the following statements about Formalin:
    1. It is a carcinogenic chemical used in manufacturing of fertilisers and pesticides. 2. It is also applied on fish to extend their shelf life.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Fish samples in Chennai test positive for formalin. This is the first time samples of fish in Tamil Nadu have tested positive for formalin.
Formalin is a toxic, colorless solution that is derived by dissolving formaldehyde gas in water.
It is a cancer-inducing chemical used to preserve fish is used as a disinfectant. It is used in the manufacture of pesticides,fertilizers, glue, paper,and paint, among other products.
Formalin causes irritation in the eyes, throat, skin,and stomach.In the long run continued exposure causes harm to the kidneys, liver and can even cause cancers.
7. Which of the following committee has been constituted by Union Government to identify Institutions of Eminence:
    A. T.S.R Subramanium Committee B. N Gopalaswami Committee C. Y Deosthalee Committee D. None

Answer - Option B
8. Consider the following statements about Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
    1. It is a statutory body set up under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2010 2. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the implementing body for FSSAI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been established under Food Safety and Standards Act,2006 which consolidates various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments.
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI.
Composition: The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) are appointed by the Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India.
9. The Bru people today predominantly reside in the states of
    A. Nagaland and Manipur B. Tripura and Mizoram C. Meghalaya and Assam D. Sikkim and West Bengal

Answer - Option B
10. “Coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education” is a
    A. Union subject B. State subject C. Concurrent subject D. Residuary subject

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The 66th subject in the union list: Co-ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions.
1. As per the constitutional scheme,which of the following are state subjects?
    1. Public health 2. Public order 3. Adoption and succession 4. Land
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Adoption and Succession is on the concurrent list.
2. The Asia Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA) is an initiative under the
    A. East Asia Summit B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank C. Asian Development Bank D. UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific

Answer - Option D
Explanation - APTA (formerly Bangkok Agreement) is an initiative under the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP) for trade expansion through exchange of tariff concessions among developing country members of the Asia Pacific Region, in place since 1975.
APTA is a Preferential Trade Agreement, under which the basket of items, as well as the extent of tariff concessions, are enlarged during the trade negotiating rounds which are launched from time to time.
3. Consider the following statements about POSHAN Abhiyaan:
    1. It aims to reduce stunting in Children from 38.4% to 25% by 2025. 2. It was launched from Jhunjhunu District in Rajasthan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Union Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD) had recently organized 2nd meeting of National Council on India’s Nutrition Challenges under POSHAN Abhiyaan in New Dehli.
Month of September will be celebrated as the National Nutrition Month every year.POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 8th March, 2018 in Jhunjhunu,Rajasthan.
The Abhiyaan targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.
4. Ebola is a disease whose causative agent is:
    A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Plasmodium D. Fungal

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Ebola virus disease (EVD), formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal illness in humans.Transmission: The virus is transmitted to people from wildanimals and spreads in the human population through human-to-human transmission.
The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 25% to 90% in past outbreaks.Prevention: Community engagement is key to successfully controlling outbreaks. Good outbreak control relies on applying a package of interventions, namely case management, surveillance and contact tracing, good laboratory service and social mobilisation.
5. Recently Rajya Sabha signed a MoU with which of the following Country to promote inter-parliamentary dialogue?
    A. Uganda B. South Africa C. Rwanda D. Kenya

Answer - Option A
6. The Berne Convention is an international agreement governing
    1. Copyrights 2. Trademarks 3. Designs 4. Geographical Indications
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The WIPO Copyright Treaty (WCT) is a special agreement under the Berne Convention which deals with the protection of works and the rights of their authors in the digital environment. In addition to the rights recognized by the Berne Convention, they are granted certain economic rights. The Treaty also deals with two subject matters to be protected by copyright: (i) Computer programs, whatever the mode or form of their expression; and (ii) compilations of data or other material ("databases").
7. Which of the following statements about the Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR) is/are correct?
    1. The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) is a co-organiser. 2. India will host the 2018 conference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1nor 2

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The AMCDRR is a biennial conference jointly organised by different Asian countries and the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR).
The event represents a unique opportunity for governments to reaffirm their political commitments in the implementation of the Hyogo Framework for Action(HFA) and now the Sendai Framework for DRR 2015-2030.
8. In India, different derivatives instruments are permitted and regulated by
    1. Reserve Bank of India 2. Securities and Exchange Board of India 3. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 2 only D. 2 and 3

Answer - Option B
Explanation - In India, different derivatives instruments are permitted and regulated by various regulators, like Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Forward Markets Commission (FMC; now merged with SEBI).
Broadly, RBI is empowered to regulate the interest rate derivatives, foreign currency derivatives and credit derivatives.
Definition: -A derivatives a financial instrument:
a) Whose value changes in response to the change in a specified interest rate, security price, commodity price, foreign exchange rate, index of prices or rates,a credit rating or credit index,or similar variable (sometimes called the 'underlying');
b) That requires no initial net investment or a little initial net investment relative to other types of contracts that have a similar response to changes in market conditions; and
c) That is settled at a future date.
9. Sometimes in the news, ‘Anchor Investors’ are most appropriately associated with
    A. Initial Public Offerings B. Startups C. Small and Medium Enterprises D. Foreign Portfolio Investors

Answer - Option A
Explanation -Anchor investors are institutional investors who are offered shares in an IPO a day before the offer opens.
As the name suggests, they are supposed to ‘anchor’ the issue by agreeing to subscribe to shares at a fixed price so that other investors may know that there is demand for the shares offered.
10. The official history of Earth has a new chapter – and we are in it. Called the ‘Meghalayan Age’ (within the Holocene epoch), its onset was marked by
    A. Dramatic warming that ended the most recent glacial period about 11,500 years ago. B. Abrupt cooling, attributed to vast volumes of freshwater from melting glaciers running into the oceans and disrupting ocean currents. C. A mega-drought that crushed a number of civilisations worldwide. D. The beginning of Industrial revolution.

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Geologists have classified the last 4,200 years as being a distinct age in the story of our planet.
They are calling it the Meghalayan Age, the onset of which was marked by a mega-drought that crushed a number of civilizations worldwide.
We currently live in what is called the Holocene Epoch, which reflects everything that has happened over the past 11,700 years -since a dramatic warming kicked us out of the last ice age.
1. Consider the following statements:
    1. World Hepatitis Day is celebrated on 28 July. 2. Theme of 2018 was “Test. Treat, Hepatitis.” 3. Government of India launched National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme to mark the day.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are correct.

Answer - Option D
Explanation - With an aim to combat viral hepatitis and reduce mortality and morbidity associated with it, the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme.
It was launched on the occasion of World Hepatitis Day, that is July 28.
The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2018 is “Test. Treat. Hepatitis”.About National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme:
Aim: The program aims for both prevention and treatment of hepatitis which is among the leading causes of liver cancer, cirrhosis of the liver and acute liver failure.
Target: It aims to treat a minimum of 3 lakh hepatitis C cases over a period of three years for eliminating deadly condition by 2030.
The program is part of the National Health Mission.Under it, an expensive antiviral for hepatitis B and C infections will be made available free of cost at all government hospitals
Treatment: It will set up and upgrade facilities for diagnosis and treatment primarily of hepatitis B and C.
These designated treatment centers will provide free anti-viral to hepatitis C patients. They will also provide hepatitis B vaccine to babies born to mothers carrying the virus within 24 hours of birth.
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. The condition can be self-limiting orcan progress to fibrosis (scarring), cirrhosis or liver cancer.
Hepatitis viruses are the most common cause of hepatitis in the world but other infections, toxic substances (e.g. alcohol, certain drugs), and autoimmune diseases can also cause hepatitis.
2. Which of the following is correct with regard to SVEEP:
    A. It is a platform dedicated to skill enhancement of Rural Youth. B. An organization of Urban Sanitation workers to fight for their rights. C. Election Commission of India’s portal to enhance Citizen Awareness in Electoral Process. D. Portal for marketing products of Women Self Help Groups

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Election Commission of India has launched a dedicated portal for the ECI’s ‘Systematic Voters Education and Electoral Participation’ (SVEEP).
SVEEP is a program of multi interventions through different modes and media designed to educate citizens,electors and voters about the electoral process in order to increase their awareness and participation in the electoral processes.
3. Consider the following statements with regard to Public Affairs Index:
    1. Index ranks various states on the basis of their Governance Environment. 2. It is released by Niti Aayog. 3. Kerala topped the Index in 2018 as the best governed State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are Correct.

Answer - Option C
Explanation - What is Public Affairs Index (PAI)?
The index is released since in 2016 by Bengaluru base Public Affairs Centre (PAC), a not for profit think tank which aims to improve governance in India.
It is based on 10 themes, 30 focus subjects, and 100 indicators,relying solely upon government data.
It covers a wide range of themes such as support to human development, social protection, essential infrastructure,women and children, crime, law and order, delivery of justice, transparency and accountability, environment,fiscal management and economic freedom.
2018 PAI also included a separate index on children of India, giving a measure of how child-friendly each of the states is.Kerala tops the list as a best-governed state in the country.
Kerala has topped PAI as the best-governed state for the third consecutive year.
4. Consider the following statements about ASEAN grouping:
    1. The grouping was formed in 1967 with 5 founding members. 2. Currently the grouping has 11 members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
It was established with the signing of an ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the ministers of the foundingcountries.
Its founding countries are Indonesia, Malaysia,Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
5. Consider the following statements in relation to Border Haats:
    1. Currently, India and Bangladesh have four operational Border Haats. 2. Six more such markets have been approved by the government of two sides.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - First meeting of India-Bangladesh Joint Committee on Border Haats was recently held in Agartala, Tripura.
Currently, four border has are operational along the India-Bangladesh border.
Two border has are located in Meghalaya at Kalaichar and Balat and two are located in Tripura at Srinagar and Kamalasagar.
6. Consider the following statements:
    1. First BRIC summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia. 2. 2018 BRICS Summit held in South Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The 2018 BRICS summit, the tenth such annual summit, is being held in South Africa.
Theme: “BRICS in Africa: Collaboration for Inclusive Growth and Shared Prosperity in the 4th Industrial Revolution”.
The First BRIC Summit was held in June 2009 in Yekaterinburg, Russia. The Ninth BRICS Summit was held in Xiamen, China under the theme “BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future”. The leaders built on achievements already made with a share vision for the future development of BRICS, discussed international and regional issues of common concern and adopted the Xiamen Declaration.
7. UNSC Resolution 2427 is concerned with:
    A. Protection of Specially Abled individuals in Disasters. B. Protection of women in Armed Conflicts. C. Protection in Children in Armed Conflicts. D. None of the above.

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The resolution is aimed at further crystalizing the protection of children in armed conflicts, including by combating their recruitment by non-State armed groups and treating formerly recruited children primarily as victims.
8. Consider the following statements in relation to UN Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration:
    1. It is a first such compact on International Migration. 2. The compact is legally binding.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - United Nations for first time has finalized Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration to better manage international migration, address its challenges, strengthen migrant rights and contribute to sustainable development. The agreement will be formally adopted by world leaders in Morocco in December 2018.
9. Consider the following statements with reference to Invest India:
    1. It is a National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India. 2. The body functions under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Invest India is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India and acts as the first point of reference for investors in India.
Invest India is set up as a non-profit venture under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion,Ministry of Commerce and Industries, Government of India.
A joint venture: Operationalized in early 2010, Invest India is set up as a joint venture company between the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry (35% equity), Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) (51% equity), and State Governments of India (0.5% each).
Functions: The core mandate of Invest India is investment promotion and facilitation. It provides sector-specific and state- specific information to a foreign investor assists in expediting regulatory approvals, and offers hand-holding services. Its the mandate also includes assisting Indian investors to make informed choices about investment opportunities overseas.
10. Consider the following statements with reference to RIMES:
    1. It is a UN registered international and inter-governmental institution. 2. Owned and managed by its 48 member nations, it aims to build capacities in multi-hazard early warning systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Odisha government has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System (RIMES) for effective management of disasters.
RIMES was established on 30 April 2009 to provide user-relevant early warning services to its Member States and others.
It is a UN-registered international and inter-governmental institution.
1. Consider the following statements with regard to Asian Development Bank:
    1. Established in 1966, it is headquartered in Philippines. 2. Its objective is to promote Economic Development in Asia and to free Asia Pacific from poverty.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - It is a regional development bank established on 22 August 1966 and is headquartered in Philippines.
It aims to facilitate economic development of countries in Asia.
It also aims for an Asia and Pacific free from poverty.
2. Consider the following statements with regard to Asian Development Bank:
    1. Voting system in the bank is based on equal share i.e. One member, One vote system. 2. It offers both hard loans and soft loans
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Centre and ADB signed $84 million loan for water supply in Bihar.
The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly known as the United Nations Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East) and non-regional developed countries.
ADB was modeled closely on the World Bank and has a similar a weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with member’s capital subscriptions.Japan holds the largest proportions of shares at 15.67%. The United States holds 15.56%, China holds 6.47%, India holds 6.36%, and Australia holds 5.81%.
3. The image of which one of the following UNESCO World Heritage Sites of India is not to be found on the reverse of any new banknote denominations?
    A. Stone chariot, Hampi B. Padmapani painting, Ajanta caves C. Rani Ki Vav, Patan D. Red Fort, Delhi

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 10 – Sun Temple, Konark;
50 – Stone chariot, Hampi;
100 – Rani ki Vav, Patan;
200 – Sanchi Stupa;
4. The Bosporus or Bosphorus strait unites
    1. Black Sea 2. Sea of Marmara 3. Azov Sea 4. Aegean Sea
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4

Answer - Option A
5. Consider the following statements about World Customs Organisation:
    1. The membership of the Organisation is divided into six regions. 2. Each Region is represented by regionally elected Vice-Chairperson. 3. India has been recently elected the Vice-Chair of the Asia Pacific region of Organisation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1 and 3 Only D. All are correct

Answer - Option D
Explanation - India has become the Vice-Chair (Regional Head) of the Asia Pacific Region of World Customs Organisation (WCO) for a period of two years, from July, 2018 to June, 2020.
The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952 as the Customs Co operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.
6. Recently UN partnered with which tech-giant to track environmental changes in ecosystems:
    A. Facebook B. Alibaba C. Google D. Whatsapp

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The UNEP has entered into a partnership with Google to monitor the impacts of human activity on global ecosystems by using sophisticated online tools.
7. Consider the following statements about United Nations Environment Programme:
    1. It was founded in 1972 as a result of Stockholm Conference. 2. It is headquartered in Gigiri, Nairobi. 3. It coordinates the environmental activities of United Nations including funding of environment related development projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is an agency of United Nations and coordinates its environmental activities, assisting developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
It was founded by Maurice Strong, its first director, as a result of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) in June 1972 and has its headquarters in the Gigiri neighborhood of Nairobi,Kenya.
8. Which of the following countries recently joined International Solar Alliance:
    A. Myanmar B. Kenya C. Cambodia D. Pakistan

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Myanmar has joined the India-initiated International Solar Alliance (ISA), thus, becoming the 68th signatory to the Framework Agreement of the ISA that aims for optimum utilisation of solar energy.
The Paris Declaration establishes ISA as an alliance dedicated to the promotion of solar energy among its member countries.
The ISA’s major objectives include global deployment of over 1,000GW of solar generation capacity and mobilisation of investment of over US$ 1000 billion into solar energy by 2030.
9. Consider the following statements about Currency Derivatives:
    1. They are exchange based futures and options contracts. 2. In India, these contracts can be cash-settled in more than one currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Currency derivatives are exchange-based futures and options contracts that allow one to hedge against currency movements.
Simply put, one can use a currency future contract to exchange one currency for another at a future date at a price decided on the day of the purchase of the contract.
In India, one can use such derivative contracts to hedge against currencies like dollar, euro, U.K. pound, and yen. Corporates, especially those with significant exposure to imports or exports, use these contracts to hedge against their exposure to a certain currency.
10. Consider the following statements about Inter-Creditor Agreement:
    1. It is aimed at resolution of loan accounts with a size of Rs5 Crore and above. 2. It is part of Sashakt plan programme approved by Government to address stressed assets problem.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans.
The agreement is based on a recommendation by the Sunil Mehta committee that looked into a resolution of stressed assets.
1. Consider the following statements about National Small Industries Corporation Limited:
    1. It is a Maharatna established by Government in 1955. 2. It comes under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium enterprises.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSIC) is a Mini Ratna PSU established by the Government of India in 1955.
It falls under Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises of India.
NSIC is the nodal office for several schemes of Ministry of MSME such as Performance & Credit Rating, Single Point Registration, MSME Databank, National SC ST Hub, etc.
2. Which of the following states has topped the Ease of Doing Business rankings released by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion:
    A. Telangana B. Andhra Pradesh C. Haryana D. Jharkhand

Answer - Option B
3. Consider the following statements about Hydrocarbon Exploration Licensing Policy:
    1. Single License is needed in the policy for the exploration of conventional as well as non-conventional hydrocarbons. 2. Open Acreage Licensing Policy is unique feature of this policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Government of India launched a new policy regime for Exploration & Production (E&P) sector namely Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) in 2016 which is paradigm shift from earlier policy regime.
The main features of the new Policy regime are Revenue Sharing Contract, single Licence for exploration and production of conventional as well as unconventional Hydrocarbon resources, marketing & pricing freedom, etc.
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) under HELP, is the main innovative feature wherein investor can carve out Blocks of their own interest and submit an Expression of Interest (Eol) throughout the year. Based on the areas for which expression of interest has been expressed bidding will be conducted every 6 months.
4. Consider the following statements about FDI Index:
    1. It is released by World Bank. 2. U.S topped the recent Index. 3. India has improved its ranking to 11th position.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 Only C. 2 and 3 Only D. All are Correct

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 2018 FDI Confidence Index was recently released by global consultancy firm A T Kearney.
The AT Kearney Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Confidence Index, created in 1998, is an annual survey of the business executives that ranks countries which are likely to attract the most FDI in the next three years.
The United States (US) topped the index, followed by Canada at 2nd and Germany at the 3rd place.
China falls three spots to 5th place this year, the lowest ranking of the country in the history of the Index.
5. Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks:
    1. They are governed by Regional Rural Banks Act 1976. 2. They are wholly owned by Government of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - RRBs are jointly owned by Government of India, the concerned State Government and Sponsor Banks with the issued capital shared in the proportion of 50%, 15% and 35% respectively.
RRBs were set up with the objective to provide credit and other facilities, especially to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas for development of agriculture, trade,commerce, industry and other productive activities.
6. Consider the following statements about State Banks (Repeal and Amendment) Bill 2017:
    1. It paved the way for merger of 5 subsidiary banks with parent State Bank of India. 2. The 5 banks are State bank of Bikaner, State Bank of Patiala,State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Travancore.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Parliament passes State Banks (Repeal and Amendment) Bill, 2017 to merge six subsidiary banks with State Bank of India after it was approved by Rajya Sabha.
State Bank of Bikaner, State Bank of Patiala, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Travancore.These banks were subsidiaries of SBI.
7. Minimum Support Prices are announced by:
    A. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. C. Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices. D. Ministry of Rural Development

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces MSP for various crops at the beginning of each sowing season based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
The CACP takes into account demand and supply, the cost of production and price trends in the market among other things when fixing MSPs.
8. Consider the following statements about Jute Technology Mission:
    1. It was approved by Government in 2006. 2. The Mission has 5 Mini Missions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Jute Technology Mission (JTM) was approved by the government of India in 2006 and it has 4 mini Missions.
The Objectives of the JTM are as follows:
To strengthen agricultural research and technology achievements.
Development/extension of raw jute Ministry of and transfer of improved technology.
To develop an efficient market linkages Ministry of for raw jute.
To modernize, technologically upgrade, improve productivity,Textiles diversify and develop human resource for the jute industry.
9. Consider the following statements about Kundankulam Nuclear Power Plant:
    1. It is the largest nuclear power station in India. 2. The reactors used in the plant are pressurized water reactors and are of Russian Design.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Supreme Court has granted the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL) an extension of time till April 30, 2022, to build an Away From Reactor (AFR) facility to store spent nuclear fuel from the Kudankulam power plant.
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is situated in Koodankulam in the Tirunelveli district of the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
It is the single largest nuclear power station in India.
The reactors are pressurised water reactor of Russian design.
10. Which of the following statements about Engineering, Procurement and Construction Model of Infrastructure building:
    1. It is funded entirely by Government. 2. The project has to be completed by contractor in a fixed predetermined timeline. 3. Purvanchal Expressway has been built under the same model
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 3 Only C. 2 and 3 Only D. All are correct

Answer - Option D
Explanation - EPC is a model of contract between the government and private sector players for public infrastructure building. Under this system, the entire project is funded by the government.
The EPC entails the contractor to build the project by designing, installing and procuring necessary labor and land to construct the infrastructure, either directly or by subcontracting.
Under the EPC model the contractor is legally responsible to complete the project under some fixed predetermined timeline and may also involve scope for a penalty in case of time overrun.
1. Bansagar Dam is built on which river?
    A. Yamuna B. Godavari C. Chambal D. Son

Answer - Option D
2. Consider the following statements about Agni V missile:
    1. It is the medium range ballistic missile. 2. The missile is surface to surface.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation -India’s longest-range ballistic missile, Agni-V, will beinducted into the nuclear arsenal very soon.
It is a surface-to-surface missile which can carry nuclear warhead weighing 1.5 tonnes to a distance of over 5,000km and is the longest missile in India’s arsenal capable of reaching most parts of China.
The missile features many new indigenously-developed technologies, including the very high accuracy Ring Laser Gyro based Inertial Navigation System (RINS).
3. Consider the following statements about NASSCOM:
    1. Registered under Indian Societies Act, 1860, it was established in 1990. 2. It is a trade association of IT and BPO industry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - It is a trade association of Indian Information Technology (IT) and Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) industry.
Established in 1988, NASSCOM is a non-profit organization.
NASSCOM facilitates business and trade in software and services and encourages the advancement of research in software technology. It is registered under the Indian Societies Act,1860.
4. What was India’s rank in recent Global Innovation Index:
    A. 60 B. 40 C. 27 D. 57

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Global Innovation Index 2018 has placed India at the 57th position among 130 countries. GII is jointly released by Cornell University, INSEAD and World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO). GII ranks 126 economies based on 80 indicators.
5. Consider the following statements about BRAHMOS missile:
    1. It is a supersonic ballistic missile. 2. The missile is a result of Joint venture between DRDO and NPOM of Russia. 3. Its strike range is 300km.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 3 Only D. All are Correct

Answer - Option B
Explanation - BrahMos, the supersonic cruise missile was successfully test-fired recently.
Weighing 2.5 ton, BrahMos ALCM is the heaviest weapon to be deployed on India’s Su-30 fighter aircraft. It has been modified by HAL to carry weapons.
It is a world-class weapon with multi-platform, multi-mission role and is capable of being launched from land, sea and air.
BrahMos is a joint venture between the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) of India and NPOM of Russia.
6. ‘cVigil’ is an android-based mobile application recently launched by the
    A. Election Commission B. Central Board of Direct Taxes C. Ministry of Consumer Affairs D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Election Commission recently launched an Android-based mobile application named ‘cVigil’ for citizens to share proof of malpractices by political parties, their candidates and activists when the Model Code of Conduct is in place in the run-up to polls.
The app also facilitates sharing of geo-tagged photographic and video evidence without disclosing the sender’s identity.
The uploaded information will be transmitted to the control room from where the field units or flying squads mapped on a Geographic Information System will be immediately alerted for further action.
7. What is the implication of the recently successful ‘Pad Abort’ test (PAT)?
    A. India will achieve self-reliance in launching communication and navigation satellites. B. a) India will achieve self-reliance in launching communication and navigation satellites. C. The cost of launching satellites will reduce as rockets need not be rebuilt. D. None of the above

Answer - Option B
Explanation - ISRO inched a small step closer to its ambition of sending Indians to space by conducting the first ‘pad abort’ test recently.
The test proves that the agency can bail out future astronauts with their capsule in case of an early danger to them at the launch pad.
8. The Vikas engine, recently in the news, powers the
    A. Light Combat Aircraft B. BrahMos supersonic cruise missile C. INS Arighat D. GSLV Mk-III

Answer - Option D
Explanation - All three satellite launch vehicles of ISRO (PSLV, GSLV, GSLV Mk-III) are set to add muscle to their spacecraft lifting power in upcoming missions this year. The space agency has improved the thrust of the Vikas engine that powers all of them.
9. Hubble Telescope is a project of:
    A. NASA B. European Space Agency C. Chinese Space Agency D. ISRO

Answer - Option A
10. Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme:
    1. Remittances up to USD 250,000 per financial year for some current or capital account transactions is permitted. 2. Hindu Undivided Families, Trusts and resident individuals can freely remit money subject to the annual cap.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, Authorised Dealers may freely allow remittances by resident individuals up to USD 2,50,000 per Financial Year (April-March) for any permitted current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.
The Scheme is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts, etc.
The Scheme is available to all resident individuals including minors.
1. Consider the following statements about International Seabed Authority:
    1. It is a UN body to regulate exploration and exploitation of marine non-living resources of oceans. 2. India is not a member of it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - International Seabed Authority (ISA) is a UN body set up to regulate the exploration and exploitation of marine non-living resources of oceans in international waters.
India actively contributes to the work of International Seabed Authority. Last year, India was re-elected as a member of Council of ISA.
India’s nominees on Legal and Technical Commission and Finance Committee of the ISA was also elected last year.
Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea.
Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt,lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt, and copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.
2. What is the IUCN status of Nilgiri Tahr:
    A. Vulnerable B. Endangered C. Critically Endangered D. Least Concern

Answer - Option B
Explanation - It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife(Protection) Act 1972.
Endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern India.
It is the State animal of Tamil Nadu. Currently, the only populations with more than 300 individuals are in Eravikulam National Park and in the Grass Hills in Annamalai.
3. Consider the following statements about National Mission for Clean Ganga:
    1. It is the implementing wing of National Ganga Council. 2. It was established in 2016 by dissolving National Ganga River Basin Authority
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and D. None

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) is the implementation wing of National Ganga Council which was set up in October 2016 under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation,Protection and Management) Authorities order 2016. The order dissolved National Ganga River Basin Authority.
NMCG has a two-tier management structure and comprises of Governing Council and Executive Committee. Both of them are headed by Director General, NMCG. Executive
A committee has been authorized to accord approval for all projects up to Rs.1000 crore.The order envisages five-tier structure at national, state and district level to take measures for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution in the river Ganga and toensure continuous adequate flow of water so as to rejuvenate the river Ganga as below:
National Ganga Council under the chairmanship of Hon’ble Prime Minister of India.Empowered Task Force (ETF) on river Ganga under the chairmanship of Hon’ble Union Minister of WaterResources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).State Ganga Committees.District Ganga Committees in every specified district abutting river Ganga and its tributaries in the states.
4. System of Air Quality Monitoring and Weather Forecasting (SAFAR) is unveiled by:
    A. Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. B. Ministry of Earth Sciences. C. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Ministry of Earth Sciences has unveiled state-of-the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting) at Chandni Chowk in Delhi.
SAFAR was developed indigenously by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology(IITM), Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD).
It has been introduced for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance for the first time in India.
5. Earth Overshoot Day is calculated by:
    A. a) United Nations Environment Programme B. Green Environment Facility. C. Earth Conservation Organisation. D. World Wide Fund for Nature and Global Footprint Network.

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Earth Overshoot Day will fall on August 1, the earliest date since ecological overshoot began in early 1970s. This year the overshoot day falls two days earlier than the last year’s.
It is a date when humanity annual demand on nature exceeds what Earth can regenerate over the entire year.It is calculated by Global Footprint Network and World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
Currently, humankind is using 170% of the world’s natural output. That means we are using up the equivalent of 1.7 Earths. And, according to the Global Footprint Network, we’re on track to be using two Piles of earth by the end of the 21st Century.
6. International Tiger Day is celebrated on:
    A. 24 July B. 29 July C. 26 July D. 21 July

Answer - Option B
7. Consider the following statements about World Meteorological Organisation:
    1. It is a specialized agency of United Nations. 2. It was established in 1949.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
    A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations dedicated to meteorology(weather), climatology (climate), operational hydrology (water) and other related geophysical sciences such as oceanography and atmospheric chemistry.
8. The “Sashakt” plan will help alleviate the problems associated with
    A. Mob justice B. Crude oil imports C. Fake Indian Currency Notes D. Bad loans

Answer - Option D
9. Lake Titicaca, one of less than twenty ancient lakes on earth, is situated between
    A. Paraguay and Argentina B. Uganda and Tanzania C. Peru and Bolivia D.
Zambia and Zimbabwe
Answer - Option C
10. Consider the following pairs:
    Southern Cape – Located in country 1. Cape of Good Hope – South Africa 2. Cape Horn – Argentina 3. Cape Leeuwin – New Zealand
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 and 2

Answer - Option A

Other Articles



shape Job-Alerts

Competitive Exams - Recent Job Notifications
Category
Banking SSC Railway
Defence Police Insurance
Click Here For – All India Latest Jobs

shape SP Quiz

Competitive Exams - Practice Sets
Category Quiz
Insurance Awareness Insurance Awareness
Quantitative Aptitude Compound Interest
Banking Awareness Banking Awareness

shape GK

General Knowledge for Competitive Examinations
Topic Name of the Article

GK - World
Women Leaders
Highest Civilian Awards

GK - India
Indian Men Personalities
Indian River Projects

GK - Abbreviations
Indian Railways Acronyms
Sports Abbreviations

GK - Banking & Insurance
Insurance Ombudsman
Negotiable Instruments


GK - Science & Technology
Physical Quantities and Units
Indian Research Institutes
Famous Websites