UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets

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UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets

Introduction

Current Affairs primarily means current General Issues, the important Issues that are happening around the world. Current Affairs are related to several fields like International, National, Sports, Politics, Economy, Science and Technology, and Environment. Current Affairs Section is very important in several exams like UPSC, SSC, Banking, RRB, SBI, IAS, and IBPS, etc. Current Affairs is a venue of reporting the information that almost the entirety of the world is interested in. Current Affairs plays a big role in education. In the current scenario in India, all kinds of competitive examinations have Current Affairs as a part of it the scope of which can be anything from administrative news to Election results and to the immense enjoyment of some, the results of sports matches. The time frame of questions being asked can be from events that happened the past month or even stretching back to events from past years.
The main aim of the article UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets is to clear the civil exams. The Civil’s Exam is the toughest exam in competitive Field. It provides important and useful questions related to Current Affairs.

Quiz

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 1

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The 2018 edition of World Hindi Conference held in Maldives. 2. The theme this year was “Vaishvik Hindi Aur Bharatiy Sankriti”. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The event, held once in three years, is dedicated to Hindi language.
The decision to organize the 11th edition of the Conference in Mauritius was taken at the 10th World Hindi Conference held in Bhopal, India in September 2015.
The first World Hindi Conference was held in 1975 in Nagpur,India.
The MEA has also set up the World Hindi Secretariat in Mauritius.
2. Consider the following statements about Bombay Natural History Society:

1. It is the partner of BirdLife International in India. 2. It has been designated as a “Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation” by Department of S&T. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option c
Explanation - The Bombay Natural History Society, founded on 15 September 1883, is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research.
BNHS is the partner of BirdLife International in India. It has been designated as a ‘Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation’ by the Department of Science and Technology.
The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), one of India’s premier avian research institutes has started operating its first regional centre on the campus of Wetland Research and Training Centre near Chilika Lake.
3.Consider the following statements about Chilika Lake:

1. It is the largest Lagoon in World. 2. It is largest wintering ground for waterfowl. 3. It was First to be declared Ramsar Site in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option b
Explanation - It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second largest lagoon in the world after The New Caledonian barrier reef in New Caledonia.
It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian sub-continent.
It is one of the hotspots of biodiversity in the country.On account of its rich biodiversity and ecological significance, Chilikawas designated as the 1st “Ramsar Site” of India.
The Nalaban Island within the lagoon is notified as a Bird Sanctuary under Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
The National Wetlands, mangroves and coral reefs Committee of Ministry of Environment & Forests, Government of India, have also identified the lagoon as a priority site for conservation and management.
4. Which of the tech-giants recently released Project Navlekha:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Google has unveiled Project Navlekha to make online content relevant for more Indian users especially in local languages.
Pavelka in Sanskrit means “a new way to write.”The project aims to bring 135,000 local language publishers online by making web hosting smooth and simple.
5. Consider the following statements about Pingali Venkayya:

1. He was the designer of Indian National Tricolour. 2. He also participated in Indian Freedom Struggle. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Pingali Venkayya was a freedom fighter and the designer of the Indian National Tricolour. The national flag that we see today was based upon his design.
6. Consider the following statements regarding Anganwadi Centres:

1. They are running as a part of Integrated Child Development Programme. 2. A total of 4 Services are provided by these Centres at Rural and Urban Level. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Anganwadi is a type of rural mother and child care centre in India. They were started by the Indian government in 1975 as part of the Integrated Child Development Services program to combat child hunger and malnutrition.
They provide a package of six services–supplementary nutrition,referral services, immunization, health check-up, pre-school non-formaleducation and health and nutrition education– to women and children.
7. Which of the following got India’s first all Women SWAT Team:

Answer - Option B
8. Consider the following acts:

1. Sexual Harassment Act 2013 2. Muslim Women Act 2018 3. Indecent Representation Act 1986

Answer - Option D
Explanation - After taking into account of the recent technological advancement in the field of communications such as social media platforms, etc, the Ministry of Women and Child Development has decided to move fresh Bill to broaden the scope of the Indecent Representation of the Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 to cover the audio-visual media and content in electronic form.
Muslim Women (Protection Bill, 2017), which criminalises the practice of talaq-e-biddat.
9. Consider the following statements about Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act 2013:

1. The act covers even the Transportation in its definition of Workplace. 2. Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office/branch irrespective of the number of employees working in the branch/office. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Act defines sexual harassment at the work place and creates a mechanism for redressal of complaints.
It also provides safeguards against false or malicious charges The definition of “aggrieved woman”, who will get protection under the Act is extremely wide to cover all women, irrespective of her age or employment status, whether in the organized or unorganized sectors, public or private and covers clients, customers and domestic workers as well.
Definition of the workplace: While the “workplace” in the Vishaka Guidelines are confined to the traditional office set-up where there is a clear employer-employee relationship, the Act goes much further to include organizations, department, office, branch unit, etc. in the public and private sector, organized and unorganized, hospitals, nursing homes, educational institutions, sports institutes, stadiums, sports complex and any place visited by the employee during the course of employment including transportation.
10. Consider the following statements about Kanyashree Scheme:

1. It is a scheme of Telangana Government. 2. The scheme has won UN Public Services Award last year. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - West Bengal government has announced that there would not be any ceiling for a family’s annual earnings to be a beneficiary under the UN award winning Kanyashree scheme. Currently, girls who belong to families with annual family income not more than Rs 1.20 lakh is entitled to get the benefits.
The state government would also be coming up with a “Kanyashree University” for girls soon.
Aiming at improving the status and well being of the girl child by incentivising schooling of teenage girls and delaying their marriages until the age of 18.Cash was deposited into the bank account of girls for every year they remained in school and were unmarried. This initiative led to a “drastic reduction in child marriage, increase in female education and female empowerment.”
The UN Public Service Awards are given by the world body to institutions from across the world for their innovation and excellence in providing public services.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 2

1. Consider the following statements about Ease of Living Index:

1. The index is released by Niti Aayog. 2. In the latest release of the Index, Bengaluru emerged as the top performer Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has released Ease of Living Index.
The index has been developed to allow city managers to get a grip on the city’s baseline and compare its performance across key indicators.
The index covers 111 cities that are smart city contenders, capital cities,and cities with a population of 1 million plus.
The index captures the quality of life-based on the data collected from the urban local bodies on four parameters, which were further broken down into 15 categories.
The four parameters include institutional (governance), social (identity,education, health, security), economic ( economy, employment) and physical factors (wastewater and solid waste management, pollution,housing/ inclusiveness, mixed land use, power and water supply, transport, public open spaces).
Institutional and social parameters carry 25 points each, physical factors have a weight of 45 points and economic factors five points totaling to a 100 mark scale on which cities were evaluated.
Pune has ranked first while two more Maharashtra cities — Navi Mumbai and Greater Mumbai — figure in the second and third spots. Rampur in Uttar Pradesh has ranked the worst on the scale with Kohima and Patna on the bottom two and three ranks while Varanasi stands at 33.
2. Consider the following statements about Global Liveability Index:

1. It is released by United Nations. 2. Index is topped by Melbourne in recent release. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has released the Global Liveability Index 2018. The index ranks 140 global cities based on their living conditions.
3. Consider the following statements about Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage:

1. It is a body functioning under Ministry of Culture. 2. It enjoys a special consultative status with UNESCO. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) is a non-profit charitable organisation registered under the Societies’ Registration Act, 1860.
It was founded in 1984 with the vision to create a membership organization to stimulate and spearhead heritage awareness and conservation in India.
In 2007, the United Nations awarded INTACH a special consultative status with United Nations Economic and Social Council.
4. Consider the following statements about Appellate Tribunal for Electricity:

1. It is an executive body functioning under Ministry of Power. 2. It consists of Chairperson and three other Members. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Appellate Tribunal for Electricity is a statutory body constituted for the purpose of hearing cases against the orders of the Regulatory Commissions and the Adjudicating officer.
By virtue of Section 110 of The Electricity Act, 2003, an Appellate Tribunal for Electricity having jurisdiction throughout India has been set up to hear appeals or original petitions against the orders of the Adjudicating officer or The Central Regulatory Commission or State Regulatory Commission or Joint Commission.
5. Consider the following statements about the recent regulations issued by FSSAI in relation to Honey:

1. The maximum sucrose content in Honey is fixed at 10%. 2. The maximum proportion of Carviacallosa and Honey dew is fixed at 15%. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The regulator FSSAI has come out with food safety standards for honey and its products, in a bid to curb adulteration.
As per the FSSAI notification, honey should comply with 18 parameters like that of sucrose content, glucose ratio, pollen count,foreign oligosaccharides among others.
The FSSAI has fixed maximum 5% limit for sucrose content in the honey, while 10% for carviacallosa and Honeydew honey. The moisture percentage should be maximum 20% and the pollen count should be 25,000 per gram. With regard to by-products, the FSSAI has fixed standards for ‘Beeswax’ and ‘royal jelly’ also If a product is sold as honey then food ingredient, including food additives should not be added to it.It should not be heated or processed to such an extent that its essential composition is changed and its quality is impaired In the case of ‘Monofloral Honey’, the regulator said the minimum pollen content of the plant species concerned should not be less than 45 per cent of total pollen content. In case of ‘Multi Floral Honey’, the pollen content of any of the plant species should not exceed 45 per cent of the total pollen content.
6. National Commission for Backward Classes is a/an:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Lok Sabha has passed the 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill providing for a National Commission for Backward Classes as a constitutional body.
Powers of the President: It states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state.
Under the Constitution Amendment Bill, the NCBC will have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.
7. Consider the following statements Restricted Area Permit regime:

1. Under it, foreign nationals are restricted to visit protected or restricted area unless Government is satisfied. 2. They are notified under Foreigners Order, 1963. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - RAP regime was notified under the Foreigners (Restricted Areas) Order, 1963. Under it, foreign nationals are not normally allowed to visit protected or restricted area unless Government is satisfied that there are extraordinary reasons to justify their visit.
Every foreigner, except a citizen of Bhutan, who desires to enter and stay in protected or restricted area, is required to obtain special permit from a competent authority having the power to issue such permits to foreigner, seeking it.
Citizens of Afghanistan, China and Pakistan and foreign nationals of Pakistani origin is an exception and are not allowed to enter such areas.
8. Consider the following statements about Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):

1. The scheme was launched in 2003. 2. MPs are the implementing authority in their respective constituency. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - It was launched in December, 1993, to provide a mechanism for the Members of Parliament to recommend works of developmental nature for creation of durable community assets and for provision of basic facilities including community infrastructure, based on locally felt needs.
Works, developmental in nature, based on locally felt needs and always available for the use of the public at large, are eligible under the scheme.The MPs have a recommendatory role under the scheme. They recommend their choice of works to the concerned district authorities who implement these works by following the established procedures of the concerned state government.
9. Consider the following statements about Concessional Financing Scheme:

1. It aims to support Indian entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad. 2. The approval of strategically important projects is done by Ministry of External Affairs. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Under the Scheme, MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Benami Transactions Act 2016:

1. The act provides for up to seven years’ imprisonment to those indulging in such transactions. 2. The property which is benami can be confiscated by the government without any compensation. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act,2016, designed to curb black money and passed by parliament in August, came into effect on November 1, 2016.
The new law amends the 1988 Benami Transactions Act. The law provides for up to seven years’ imprisonment and fine for those indulging in such transactions.
The law prohibits recovery of the property held benami from benamdar by the real owner. As per the Act, properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the government, without payment of compensation.
An appellate mechanism has been provided under the act, in the form of an adjudicating authority and appellate tribunal.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 3

1.Which of the following states will have India’s First National Sports University:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Lok Sabha has passed National Sports University Bill, 2018 to set up the country’s first National Sports University in Imphal, Manipur that will provide sports education, research and coaching.
The Bill establishes a National Sports University located in Manipur. It will promote sports education in the areas of: (i) sports sciences, (ii) sports technology, (iii) sports management, and (iv) sports coaching.
It will function as a national training center for select sports disciplines. It may also establish campuses and study centers in other parts of the country. The University will be empowered to grant degrees, diplomas, and certificates.
2. Consider the following statements about Ujjwala Yojana:

1. It aims to provide free LPG connections to women falling Below Poverty Line. 2. Implementation of Scheme is done by Ministry of Women and Child Development. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana aims to provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor households.
Who is eligible? Under the scheme, an adult woman member of a below poverty line family identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is given a deposit-free LPG connection with financial assistance of Rs1,600 per connection by the Centre.
Eligible households will be identified in consultation with state governments and Union territories. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
3. Consider the following statements about Prompt Corrective Action:

1. It is a plan to help banks come out of stressed assets situation. 2. It is initiated by RBI. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - PCA norms allow the regulator to place certain restrictions such as halting branch expansion and stopping dividend payment. It can even cap a bank’s lending limit to one entity or sector. Other corrective action that can be imposed on banks include special audit,restructuring operations and activation of recovery plan.
Banks’ promoters can be asked to bring in new management,too. The RBI can also supersede the bank’s board, under PCA.
The PCA is invoked when certain risk thresholds are breached. There are three risk thresholds which are based on certain levels of asset quality, profitability, capital and the like.
The third such threshold, which is a maximum tolerance limit, sets net NPA at over 12% and a negative return on assets for four consecutive years.
4. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban):

1. It is implemented by Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. 2. The scheme provides subsidized housing loans. 3. The Scheme envisages housing for all by 2025. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Programme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), in Mission mode envisions provision of Housing for All by 2022, when the Nation completes 75 years of its Independence.
Key facts:
The beneficiaries are poor and people living under EWS and LIG categories in the country.
The scheme is divided into three phases.
The government is providing an interest subsidy of 6.5% on housing loans which can be availed by beneficiaries for 15 years from the start of the loan date.
The government will grant Rs 1 lakh to all the beneficiaries of the scheme. In addition, Rs 1.5 lakh will be given to all eligible urban poor who want to construct their houses in urban areas or plan to go for renovation in their existing houses. One can also avail loans under this scheme to build toilets in existing houses.
5. The Strategic Partnership model, sometimes seen in the news, is

Answer - Option c
Explanation - Under the model, the government intends to boost private sector participation and create domestic expertise in four key areas, namely, fighter aircraft, helicopters, submarines, and armored vehicles and main battle tanks.
One company would be selected for each area based on its competence, which would then tie up with the foreign Original Equipment Manufacturer selected through the procurement process, to build the platform in India with significant technology transfer
The model has a long-term vision of promoting India as a manufacturing hub for defense equipment thus enhancing self- sufficiency and establishing an industrial and R&D ecosystem, capable of meeting the future requirements of the Armed Forces.
6. Consider the following statements about Ayushman Bharat:

1. It aims to cover 10 crore poor vulnerable families providing coverage of up to ₹2.5 lakh for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. 2. It will subsume Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana and Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Ayushman Bharat is the National Health Protection Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor vulnerable families (around 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage of up to ₹5 lakh (per family per year) for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
It will subsume the on-going centrally sponsored schemes – Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (CHIS).
The scheme has the benefit cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year To ensure that nobody is left out (especially women, children and elderly) there will be no cap on family size and age in the scheme. The benefit cover will also include pre and post-hospitalization expenses.
Benefits of the scheme are portable across the country and a beneficiary covered under the scheme will be allowed to take cashless benefits from any public/private impaneled hospitals across the country.
7. Consider the following statements about MAA programme:

1. It focuses on promoting breastfeeding for the newly born child. 2. The programme is implemented by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - August 1 to 7 every year is observed as World Breastfeeding Week. Organized by: World Alliance for Breastfeeding Action (WABA), WHO and UNICEF To promote exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of life which yields tremendous health benefits, providing critical nutrients, protection from deadly diseases such as pneumonia and fostering growth and development.
To intensify the efforts further for the promotion of breastfeeding, the Health Ministry has initiated a nationwide program called “MAA-Mother’s Absolute Affection’’ to bring undiluted focus on promotion of breastfeeding and provision of services towards supporting breastfeeding, along with ongoing efforts of routine health systems.
8. Consider the following statements about Rashtriya Uchchatar Siksha Abhiyan:

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme. 2. The financial sharing among Centre and States is 70:30. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
9. Recently in the news, ‘Smartnet’ is an initiative of the Union Government to

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Smartnet is an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to support the development of cities across India and to create a resource-rich ecosystem of learning, sharing and disseminating for city managers and primary stakeholders in the urban transformation of India.
10. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with the objective(s) to

1. To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors. 2. To address issues of human-elephant conflict. 3. Promote the welfare of captive elephants. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - In order to conserve Asian Elephants, Project Elephant was launched in 1992, with the objectives of i. Conservation and Protection of viable population of wild elephants in their natural habitats in the country; ii. Restoration of natural habitats and traditional corridors/migratory routes or movement paths used by the elephants, wherever necessary, through ecorestoration, acquisition etc; iii. Ensuring safeguards against poaching and other threats; iv. Mitigation and control of human elephant conflicts; v. Welfare and management of captive elephants; and vi. Creating a viable mechanism to ensure inter-state and regional and national level coordination in protecting and conserving the elephant and its ranges.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 4

1. The ‘National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)’, proposed to be established under the Dam Safety Bill, 2018 will:

1. Examine the cause of any major dam failure. 2. Perform the role of a State Dam Safety Organization in cases where a dam extends over two or more States or if the dam of one State falls under the territory of another. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The NDSA is also mandated to
Maintain liaison with the State Dam Safety Organisations and the owners of dams for standardisation of dam safety related data and practices; Provide the technical and managerial assistance to the States and State Dam Safety Organisations;
Maintain a national level data-base of all dams in the country and the records of major dam failures;
Publish and update the standard guidelines and check-lists for the routine inspection and detailed investigations of dams and appurtenances;
Accord recognition or accreditations to the organisations that can be entrusted with the works of investigation, design or construction of new dams; and
Resolve issue between the State Dam Safety Organisation of states, or between the State Dam Safety Organisation and the owner of a dam in that State.
2. The National Crisis Management Committee is chaired by

Answer - Option C
Explanation - As per the National Policy on Disaster Management, 2009, the National Crisis Management Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary deals with major crises that have serious or national ramifications.
3. Consider the following statements about the MAB Council, also known as the International Coordinating Council of the Man and Biosphere Programme:

1. Not all member states that have Biosphere Reserves, as designated by UNESCO, are members of this council. 2. Its sessions are normally biennial, viz. held every two years. 3. Some UN agencies and the IUCN are represented at its sessions as observers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option C
4. Which nations from the following list – comprising of members of SAARC – are also members of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?

1. Bangladesh 2. Bhutan 3. Nepal 4. Sri Lanka 5. Maldives Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. This subregional organization came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia,including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
The regional group constitutes a bridge between South and South East Asia and represents a reinforcement of relations among these countries.
BIMSTEC has also established a platform for intra-regional cooperation between SAARC and ASEAN members.
5. Which of the following states recently launched Byju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Will provide Rs. 5 lakh per family per annum for all Secondary and Tertiary Cashless Health Care Assistance. Women beneficiaries can get health cover upto Rs. 7 lakh.
6. Which of the following months will be celebrated as Poshan Maah every year?

Answer - Option B
7. Which one of the following is not designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and also is not on the UNESCO World Network of Man and Biosphere Reserves?

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Biosphere Reserve has become the 11th Biosphere Reserve from India that has been included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve in Sikkim is one of the highest ecosystems in the world, reaching elevations of 1,220 meters above sea-level.
It includes a range of eco lines, varying from sub-tropic to the Arctic, as well as natural forests in different biomes, that support an immensely rich diversity of forest types and habitats. The core area of the Biosphere Reserve is a major transboundary Wildlife Protected Area.
8. Which one of the following countries has the smallest coastline opening out to the Caspian Sea?

Answer - Option D
9. Consider the following statements about UMANG app:

1. The aim of the application is to promote Mobile Governance in India. 2. The app is developed by Department of Science and Technology. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -Umang is an initiative to promote Digital India program. The term — Umang stands for Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance and is envisaged to make e-governance.
The application is developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance Division (NeGD) in order to drive Mobile Governance in India.
10. Consider the following statements with reference to Defence India Startup Challenge:

1. It is part of iDEX Scheme. 2. The purpose it to promote Defence Innovation to make India self-reliant. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation -Defence India Startup Challenge is part of iDEX (Innovation for Defence Excellence) scheme meant to build an eco-system of innovation and entrepreneurship in India for the defence sector to make India self-reliant.
A list of 11 technologies that the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force need, have been chosen. They included remote air vehicles, laser weapons, secure and safe communication systems and bandwidth, precision targeting systems, sensors, and protected and informed movement of soldiers in battle tanks
It is an initiative to tap startups for finding safe and futuristic Indian solutions to critical needs of the three Armed Forces.
Those that come up with prototypes of usable products would be supported with ₹1.5 crore each and friendly procurement procedures from the Ministry under SPARK or Support for Prototype & Research Kickstart in Defence.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 5

1. Consider the following statements about Niryat Mitra – Mobile App:

1. The app has been developed by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 2. The purpose of the app is to provide valuable information to individuals planning to enter International Trade. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation -The app has been developed by the Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO).
It provides wide range of information required to undertake international trade right from the policy provisions for export and import, applicable GST rate, available export incentives, tariff, preferential tariff, market access requirements – SPS and TBT measures. All the information is available at tariff line.
2. Consider the following statements about CERT-In:

1. It is a government mandated agency to protect country’s Information Technology Infrastructure. 2. The organization is responsible for the administrative of IT Act 2008. 3. According to its recent report, India faced highest number of cyberattacks from U.S. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has prepared a report on cyber attacks in the country.
It has been observed that China continues to “intrude” Indian cyberspace in a “significant” way. The cyber attacks from China made up 35% of the total number of cyber attacks on official Indian websites, followed by US (17%), Russia (15%), Pakistan (9%), Canada (7%) and Germany (5%).
CERT-In (the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team) is a government-mandated information technology (IT) security organization. CERT-In was created by the Indian Department of Information Technology in 2004 and operates under the auspices of that department.
The purpose of CERT-In is to respond to computer security incidents, report on vulnerabilities and promote effective IT security practices throughout the country.
3. Consider the following statements about National Disaster Response Force:

1. The force enjoys statutory status under Disaster Management Act 2005. 2. Recently, Government has approved raising four additional battalions of the force to reduce response time to any disaster. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation -Union Cabinet has given approval for raising of four additional battalions of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) to strengthen the India’s disaster response set up.
The objective of raising is to reduce response time keeping in view vast geographic area of the country.
These battalions will be placed in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Delhi National Capital Region based on their disaster vulnerability profile.
The Disaster Management Act has made the statutory provisions for constitution of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for the purpose of specialized response to natural and man-made disasters.
4. Consider the following statements about REDD+ Initiative:

1. It is a mechanism developed by parties to UNFCCC. 2. The main purpose of the Mechanism is to reduce emission of greenhouse gases by sustainable forest management. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation -Complying with the UNFCCC decisions on REDD+, India has prepared its National REDD+ Strategy. The Strategy builds upon existing national circumstances which have been updated in line with India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change, Green India Mission and India’s Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to UNFCCC.
The strategy report has been prepared by Indian Council of Forestry Research & Education (ICFRE), Dehradun. In simple terms, REDD+ means “Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation”, conservation of forest carbon stocks, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries.
REDD+ is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
It creates a financial value for the carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development.
5. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a/an:

Answer - Option B
Explanation -The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it under the said Act.
6. Consider the following statements about Corbett Tiger Reserve:

1. It is India’s oldest National Park. 2. It was also the first place where Project Tiger was launched in 1973. 3. It has also been declared “Important Bird Area” by Birdlife International. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation -Corbett National Park is situated in the foothills of the Sub- Himalayan belt in Nainital district of Uttarakhand state in India.
Established in the year 1936 as Hailey National Park, Corbett has the glory of being India’s oldest and most prestigious National Park.
It is also being honored as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973. This unique tiger territory is best known as the father who gave birth of the Project Tiger in India to protect the most endangered species and the Royal of India called Tigers.
Corbett National Park covers an area of 521 sq. km and together with the neighboring Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary and Reserve Forest areas, forms the Corbett Tiger Reserve.
Corbett is one of the richest bird regions of the Country and has been declared as an ‘Important Bird Area’ (IBA) by Birdlife International.
7. Nauradehi Sanctuary was seen in news recently. To which state it belongs:

Answer - Option D
Explanation -The Madhya Pradesh forest department has written to the National Tiger Conservation Authority to revive the plan to reintroduce cheetahs in the State’s Nauradehi sanctuary. The ambitious project, conceived in 2009, had hit a roadblock for want of funds.
The cheetah is the world’s fastest land mammal, an icon of nature. The country’s last spotted feline died in Chhattisgarh in 1947. Later, the cheetah — which is the fastest land animal — was declared extinct in India in 1952.
8. Consider the following statements about Pet coke:

1. India is the world’s largest consumer of it. 2. It emits 50% more Green House Gases than Coal. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -India has banned the import of pet coke for use as fuel, but has allowed shipments for use as feedstock in some industries.
Import of pet coke is allowed for only cement, lime kiln, calciumcarbide and gasification industries, when used as the feedstock or in the manufacturing process on actual user condition As the world’s largest consumer of pet coke, India imports over half its annual pet coke consumption of about 27 million tonnes, mainly from the United States. Local producers include Indian Oil Corp, Reliance Industries and Bharat Petroleum Corp.
It is a dark solid carbon material that emits 11% more greenhouse gases than coal. Usage of pet coke, a dirtier alternative to coal, in the energy-hungry country has come under scrutiny due to rising pollution levels in major cities.
Petroleum coke, the bottom-of-the-barrel leftover from refining Canadian tar sands crude and other heavy oils, is cheaper and burns hotter than coal. But it also contains more planet-warming carbon and far more heart- and lung-damaging sulphur.
9. Bhitarkanika National Park is in which state:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -The Odisha government is setting up a world-class interpretation centre at Dangamal near Bhitarkanika National Park to showcase its efforts in protecting crocodiles and preserving its rich mangrove diversity.
Bhitarkanika, one of the State’s finest biodiversity hotspots, receives close to one lakh visitors every year. The tourist inflow has seen an increase lately.
The park is famous for its green mangroves, migratory birds, turtles, estuarine crocodiles and countless creeks. It is said to house 70% of the country’s estuarine or saltwater crocodiles, conservation of which was started way back in 1975.
About Gharial:
Critically Endangered— IUCN Red List. Gharial (Gavial or fish eating crocodile).
The male gharial has a distinctive boss at the end of the snout, which resembles an earthenware pot known in Hindi as Hence the name. Habitat — foremost flowing rivers with high sand banks that they use for basking and building nests.
Gharials once inhabited all the major river systems of the Indian Subcontinent, from the Irrawaddy Riverin the east to the Indus River in the west. Their distribution is now limited to only 2% of their former range.
India: Girwa River, Chambal River, Ken River, Son River, Mahanadi River, Ramganga River.
10. Recently RUCO initiative was launched by which Authority:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has launched RUCO (Repurpose Used Cooking Oil), an initiative that will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to bio-diesel.
FSSAI wants businesses using more than 100 litres of oil for frying, to maintain a stock register and ensure that UCO is handed over to only registered collecting agencies

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 6

1. Total Polar Compounds help in:

Answer - Option B
Explanation -TPC is used to measure the quality of oil.
The level of TPC increases every time oil is re-heated.
Some of the studies show that TPC accumulation in oil without food is slower than that in oil frying with food.
Higher level of TPC in cooking oil leads to health issues like hypertension, atherosclerosis, Alzheimer’s disease and liver disease. One of the studies also noticed high levels of glucose, creatinine and cholesterol with declined levels of protein and albumin in cooking oil.
2. Consider the following statements about Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act:

1. It is an act that provides for creation of a fund where compensatory amount in relation to deforestation under a project is to be deposited. 2. The fund is available for undertaking any green activity. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -The Centre has notified rules for operationalising a Rs 66,000 crore fund collected as compensations under Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act passed in 2016 to promote the green cover in the country. 13 activities are permitted for funding. They include plantation, assisted natural regeneration of forests, forest fire prevention, pest and disease control in forests, soil and moisture conservation works and improvement of wildlife habitat.
Usage of funds: 80% of the compensatory afforestation amount will be utilized by states for plantations, assisted natural regeneration of forests, forest fire prevention, pest and disease control in forest, soil and moisture conservation works and improvement of wildlife habitat, among others, in the list of 13 permissible activities. The remaining 20% will be used for 11 listed works to strengthen forest and wildlife protection related infrastructure.
So total number of activities enlisted are 24.
3. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves was included into World Network of Biosphere Reserves recently:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere Reserve located in Sikkim, India. The park is named after the mountain Kangchenjunga, which with a height of 8,586 metres (28,169 ft), is the third-highest peak in the world.
The core zone – Khangchendzonga National Park was designated as a World Heritage Site in 2016 under the ‘mixed’ category.
The Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve has become the 11th Biosphere Reserve from India to be included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
The first of India’s reserves to make it to UNESCO’s list was Tamil Nadu’s Niligiri Biosphere Reserve in 2000.
4. Spitzer Telescope belongs to which of the following Space Agencies:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope, the youngest member of the “Great Observatory” programme, has completed 15 years in space.
NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope was launched in 2003 to study the universe in the infrared. It is the last mission of the NASA Great Observatories program, which saw four specialized telescopes (including the Hubble Space Telescope) launched between 1990 and 2003.
The goal of the Great Observatories is to observe the universe in distinct wavelengths of light. Spitzer focuses on the infrared band, which normally represents heat radiation from objects.
5. Consider the following statements about Horizon 2020:

1. It is European Union Research and Innovation programme. 2. The programmer is open Only to Member States of European Union. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Horizon 2020 is the biggest EU Research and Innovation programme ever with nearly €80 billion of funding available over 7 years (2014 to 2020) – in addition to the private investment that this money will attract. It promises more breakthroughs, discoveries and world- firsts by taking great ideas from the lab to the market.
Horizon 2020 is open to everyone, with a simple structure that reduces red tape and time so participants can focus on what is really important The European Union and India will collaborate in research and innovation for developing a next generation influenza vaccine to protect people worldwide.
The EU is funding is under its programme for research and innovation ‘Horizon 2020’.
The EU and the Indian government’s Department of Biotechnology have committed 15 million Euros each to fund this joint project.
6. Large Hadron Collider is a particle accelerator installed on which Continent:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - LHC is the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator situated in a tunnel beneath the France Switzerland border near Geneva.
It is built by European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN)
Aim: To allow physicists to test the predictions of different theories of particle physics and high-energy physics, and particularly prove or disprove the existence of the theorized Higgs boson and of the large family of new particles predicted by supersymmetric theories.
7. Which of the following statements about Aeolus Satellite is incorrect:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The European Space Agency (ESA) has successfully launched Aeolus satellite that will measure winds around the globe and help improve weather forecasting.
The Earth Explorer Aeolus satellite was launched into polar orbit on a Vega rocket from Europe’s Spaceport in Kourou, French Guiana.
Aeolus is the fifth in the family of ESA’s Earth Explorer missions, which address key scientific challenges identified by the science community and demonstrate breakthrough technology in observing techniques.
8. Consider the following statements about Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):

1. It is an executive body working under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. 2. Minister in charge of Ministry acts as the ex-officio President of the BIS. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.
The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS.
Composition: As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations. It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for India.
9. Consider the following statements about INSIGHT Mission of NASA:

1. It will study the interior of planet Mars. 2. It will help in enhancing our understanding about the evolution of rocky planets. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - InSight is part of NASA’s Discovery Program, managed by the agency’s Marshall Space Flight Center in Huntsville, Alabama.
It will be the first mission to peer deep beneath the Martian surface, studying the planet’s interior by measuring its heat output and listening for marsquakes, which are seismic events similar to earthquakes on Earth.
It will use the seismic waves generated by marsquakes to develop a map of the planet’s deep interior.
10. Consider the following statements:

1. New Horizon is European Space Agency’s spacecraft to map the surfaces of Pluto including its atmosphere. 2. It recently sent back data suggesting that there could be a Oxygen Wall at the end of our solar system. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Scientific data sent back by National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) New Horizons spacecraft suggests that there could be a hydrogen wall at the end of our solar system.
New Horizons was launched on 19 January 2006, and has been travelling through space for the past nine years.
The mission will complete what NASA calls the reconnaissance of the classical solar system, and it makes the U.S. the first nation to send a space probe to every planet from Mercury to Pluto. The probe has traveled more than 3 billion miles to reach Pluto
New Horizon’s core science mission is to map the surfaces of Pluto and Charon, to study Pluto’s atmosphere and to take temperature readings.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 7

1. Which of the following cities will have India’s First Genetic Bank for Wildlife Conservation:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - In a step that would further the cause of conservation of endangered and protected animals, India has got its first scientific and most modern national wildlife genetic resource bank.
It is located in Hyderabad at the Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES), a research wing of the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB).
2. Consider the following statements about Conservation of Endangered Species Laboratory:

1. It is India’s only research facility engaged in conservation and preservation of wild life. 2. It is based in Kolkata. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - It is India’s only research facility engaged in conservation and preservation of wildlife and its resources.
It was established in 1998 with the help of Central Zoo Authority of India, CSIR and the government of Andhra Pradesh.
3. Assam shares its borders with which among the following states/countries?

1. Sikkim 2. Myanmar 3. Tripura 4. Meghalaya 5. Bhutan Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option B
4. With reference to Indian economy, public sector enterprises (PSE) are designated with different status. Which of the following PSE’s are Maharatnas?

1. Steel Authority of India 2. Bharat Electronics Limited 3. GAIL(India) Limited 4. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Select the correct answer using the code given below

Answer - Option B
Explanation -

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Coal India Limited
Indian Oil Corporation Limited
NTPC Limited
Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
Steel Authority of India Limited
Bharat Petroleum Corporation
GAIL

Criteria for grant of Maharatna status :- The CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status.
(i) Having Navratna status. (ii) Listed on Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations. (iii) Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (iv) Average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (v) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (vi) Should have significant global presence/international operations. Bharat Electronics Limited is a Navaratna company
5. Which of the following industry/industries requires an Industrial license to start business in India?

1. Tobacco and Cigar products 2. Electronic Aerospace and Defence equipment 3. Hazardous chemicals 4. Alcoholic drinks Select the correct answer using the code given below

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The major impact of liberalisation and globalisation of economy, which started in India in July, 1991, was to do away with the Compulsory Licensing.
As of now on FOUR industries are reserved for the Public Sector and only SIX industries fall under the compulsory licensing, as detailed below:
LIST OF INDUSTRIES RESERVED FOR THE PUBLIC SECTOR
1. Arms and ammunition and allied items of defence equipment, Defence aircraft and warships. 2. Atomic energy. 3. The substances specified in the schedule to the notification of the Government of India in the Department of Atomic Energy number S.O.212(E), dated the 15th March, 1995. 4. Railway transport.
LIST OF INDUSTRIES FOR WHICH INDUSTRIAL LICENSING IS COMPULSORY
1. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks. 2. Cigars and Cigarettes of tobacco and manufactured tobacco subsitutes. 3. Electronic Aerospace and Defence equipment: all types. 4. Industrial explosives including detonating fuses, safely fuses, gun powder, nitrocellulose and matches. 5. Hazardous chemicals. 6. Drugs and Pharmaceuticals (according to modified Drug Policy issued in September, 1994).
In case of the small units which employ less than 50 workers with power or less than 100 workers without power are not required to obtain any license under Compulsory Licensing Provisions.
6. United Nations Military Observer Group in India and Pakistan (UNMOGIP) mainly

Answer - Option A
Explanation - UNMOGIP, one of the oldest UN mission, was deployed in January 1949 to supervise the ceasefire between India and Pakistan in the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
The tasks of UNMOGIP have been to observe, to the extent possible, developments pertaining to the strict observance of the ceasefire of 17 December 1971 and to report thereon to the Secretary General.
The group, based in Rawalpindi, is composed of 43 military observers and 23 international civilian personnel. Since the Simla Agreement of 1972, India has adopted a nonrecognition policy towards third parties in their bilateral exchanges with Pakistan over the question regarding the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
The military authorities of Pakistan have continued to lodge alleged ceasefire violations complaints with UNMOGIP.
7. Consider the following statement Banks Board Bureau (BBB)

1. It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI appointed Nayak Committee to improve governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs). 2. It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - It was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI appointed Nayak Committee to improve governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
It was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government. It had replaced Appointments Board of Government. It is housed in Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) central office in Mumbai.
Its broad agenda was to improve governance at state-owned lenders.
Its mandate also involved advising the government on top-level bank appointments and assisting banks with capital-raising plans as well as strategies to deal with bad loans.
It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among other issues.
8. Which of the following are the major changes in taxation sharing mechanism between Union and state governments after Goods and Service Tax (GST) reforms?

1. Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. 2. States have no power to impose and appropriate any kind of indirect taxes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option A
Explanation -Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
States have power to impose indirect taxes on Petrol, Alcohol etc.
9. Which among the following releases the biennial Environmental Performance Index report?

Answer - Option A
Explanation - India is among the bottom five countries on the Environmental Performance Index 2018, plummeting 36 points from 141 in 2016, according to a biennial report by Yale and Columbia Universities along with the World Economic Forum.
Its overall low ranking — 177 among 180 countries — was linked to poor performance in the environment health policy and deaths due to air pollution categories.
The report was released on the sidelines of the ongoing World Economic Forum in Davos, Switzerland.
10. Consider the following statements about Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite:

1. It is NASA’s mission to look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky. 2. It is sent into an orbit around earth which is never used before. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is a NASA mission that will look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky. It was led by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology with seed funding from Google.
TESS will occupy a never-before-used orbit high above Earth. The elliptical orbit, called P/2, is exactly half of the moon’s orbital period; this means that TESS will orbit Earth every 13.7 days. Its closest point to Earth (67,000 miles or 108,000 kilometers) is about triple the distance of geosynchronous orbit, where most communications satellites operate.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 8

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The GI tag recently unveiled by Government is “Incredible India’s Treasures” 2. Karnataka is the state with the highest number of GI products. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - India has unveiled a tagline and a tricolour logo for geographical indication (GI) certified products. From now on, the GI-registered goods will sport the logo and the tagline to make them more attractive.
Tagline: “Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India”.
A total of 320 products have been conferred the GI status in India so far.
Karnataka comes first with 38 GI products, followed by Maharashtra which has 32 products.
2. Consider the following statements

1. Oxytocin hormone plays an important role in reproduction, child birth and lactation. 2. Oxytocin is used to increase the size of vegetables such as pumpkins. 3. Recently, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare banned the import of Oxytocin and its formulations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has restricted the manufacture of Oxytocin formulations for domestic use to public sector only.
Coupled with this, it has also banned the import of Oxytocin and its formulations.
Only Karnataka Antibiotics & Pharmaceuticals Ltd. (KAPL), a public sector company, will manufacture this drug for domestic use.
It will supply the drug to registered hospitals and clinics in public and private sector directly.
The drug is widely misused in the dairy industry. Oxytocin is also used to increase the size of vegetables such as pumpkins, watermelons, eggplants, gourds, and cucumbers.
Learning: Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddle chemical, moral molecule, and the bliss hormone due to its effects on behaviour, including its role in love and in female reproductive biological functions in reproduction
3. Consider the following statements with reference to the International North-South Transport Corridor:

1. India, Iran, Azerbaijan and Russia are its founder members. 2. The corridor connects the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, then connects Northern Europe via Russia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option B
Explanation - International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), is a multimodal transportation established in 2000 by Iran, Russia and India (Founding Members) for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States.
This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic republic of Iran, then is connected to St. Petersburg and North European via Russian Federation.
The INSTC has been expanded to include eleven new members, namely:
Republic of Azerbaijan, Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus, Oman, Syria, Bulgaria (Observer).
4. With the reference to “Indian Ocean Rim Association” (IORA), consider the following statements.

1. The IORA is a regional forum, bringing together representatives of Government, Business and Academia, for promoting co-operation and closer interaction among them. 2. Singapore is the latest member to join IORA 3. 2017 Indian-Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Summit was the first IORA Summit. Select the correct answer using the code given below

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IORARC), is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
The IORA is a regional forum, tripartite in nature, bringing together representatives of Government, Business and Academia, for promoting co-operation and closer interaction among them.
It is based on the principles of Open Regionalism for strengthening Economic Cooperation particularly on Trade Facilitation and Investment, Promotion as well as Social Development of the region.
The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an international organization with 21 Member countries. Maldives has now become the latest member of Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA). 2017 Indian-Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Summit was the first IORA Summit.
5. Consider the following statements about PM Gram Sadak Yojana:

1. It aims to boost rural connectivity in hitherto unconnected rural habitations. 2. The population criteria is followed to identify the Habitations that are to be provided road connectivity. 3. Scheme is implemented by Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The scheme, launched in 2000, aims to provide single all-weather road connectivity to all eligible unconnected habitations in rural areas with population of 500 persons and above (in plain areas) and 250 persons and above (in hilly states, desert areas, tribal areas and selected tribal and backward districts).
Union Ministry of Rural Development is nodal ministry for implementation of Scheme.
6. Recently SAARC AGRI Cooperative Business Forum was held in which capital:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The first South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Agri Cooperative Business Forum was held recently in Kathmandu, Nepal.
Theme: ‘Organizing and Strengthening Family Farmers’ Cooperatives to attain the Sustainable-Development-Goals-1 and 2 in South Asia’.
About SAARC Agri Cooperative Business Forum:
Organized by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of United Nations and Asian Farmers’ Association with the support from International Fund for Agricultural Development.
Aim: To provide platform to bring together representatives both from government and non-governmental entities from member states of SAARC as well as from regional and international organizations.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) in India.

1. SFAC is constituted as a society to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalyzing private investment. 2. SFAC implements National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option C
Explanation -Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) as a Society in 1994 to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalyzing private investment through Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) Scheme in close association with financial institutions.
The main functions of SFAC are: (i) Promotion of development of small agribusiness through VCA scheme; (ii) Helping formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs); (iii) Improving availability of working capital and development of business activities of FPOs/FPCs through Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme; (iv) Implementation of National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform.
8. With reference to ‘National Policy on Biofuels-2018’ which was recently approved by the cabinet, consider the following statements:

1. With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels. 2. The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - National Policy on Biofuels – 2018. Salient Features:
i. The Policy categorises biofuels as "Basic Biofuels" viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and "Advanced Biofuels" - Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to dropin fuels, Third generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
ii. The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
iii. Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
iv. With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
9. Consider the following statements about Participatory Notes:

1. The holder of these notes must be necessarily registered as FII in India. 2. The Notes are infamous for their role in Money Laundering in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - These are used by overseas market participants that don’t want to get registered as FIIs. P-notes are not issued in India, rather these are issued by an India registered FII to other overseas investors.
The FII will be the entity to initiate a transaction in our stock markets, which could be on behalf of foreign clients.
P-notes are then issued by the FII to the client, underlining that the securities are held on behalf of the client albeit in the name of the FII.
The P-note holder is entitled to all the dividends, capital gains and other payouts on the underlying securities.
FIIs have to periodically report to SEBI on P-note issuance without the need to name the final beneficiary.
The primary reason why P-Notes are worrying is because of the anonymous nature of the instrument as these investors could be beyond the reach of Indian regulators.
Further, there is a view that it is being used in money laundering with wealthy Indians, like the promoters of companies, using it to bring back unaccounted funds and to manipulate their stock prices.
10. Consider the following statements about Zero Budget Natural Farming:

1. It is a method of farming where the cost of growing and harvesting plants is zero. 2. The practice involves zero usage of Chemical Fertilisers and Pesticides. Which of the above statements is/are Correct:

Answer - Option C

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 9

1. Consider the following statements about Long Term Irrigation Fund:

1. It is a dedicated fund created under NABARD to finance incomplete Major and Medium Irrigation Projects. 2. The corpus of the fund is Rs40000 Crore. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option A
Explanation - To cater to the large fund requirement and ensure completion of the projects, the Union Finance Minister, during his Budget speech 2016-17, announced creation of dedicated Long Term Irrigation Fund (LTIF) in NABARD with an initial corpus of Rs. 20,000 crore for funding of Central and State share for the identified ongoing projects under PMKSY (AIBP and CAD).
Corpus would be raised by way of budgetary resources and market borrowings to fund fast tracking of implementation of incomplete major & medium irrigation projects.
2. Recently in the news, ‘iCRAFPT’ is related to

Answer - Option B
3. Consider the following statements about Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership:

1. It is a partnership proposed between ASEAN Nations including 6 other Nations with which ASEAN has Free Trade Agreement. 2. The other six nations are India, China, South Korea, Japan, Australia and New Zealand. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 10 ASEAN countries and six ASEAN FTA partners namely, India, China, Japan, Korea, Australia and New Zealand are members of the proposed RCEP.
ASEAN countries include Myanmar, Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam, Laos, Singapore, Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines and Brunei.
4. Consider the following statements about United Nations Environment Programme:

1. It was founded in 1972 as a result of Stockholm Conference. 2. It is headquartered in Gigiri, Nairobi. 3. It coordinates the environmental activities of United Nations including funding of environment related development projects. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is an agency of United Nations and coordinates its environmental activities, assisting developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
It was founded by Maurice Strong, its first director, as a result of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) in June 1972 and has its headquarters in the Gigiri neighborhood of Nairobi, Kenya.
UNEP has overall responsibility for environmental problems among United Nations agencies but talks on addressing global warming are overseen by the Bonn-based Secretariat of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNEP has also been active in funding and implementing environment related development projects.
IPCC: The World Meteorological Organization and UNEP established the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988. UNEP is also one of several Implementing Agencies for the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol, and it is also a member of the United Nations Development Group.
5. Recently, the fourth edition of Asian electoral stakeholders forum was held in which country?

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The fourth edition of Asian electoral stakeholders forum (AESFIV) was held in Sri Lanka to discuss the state of elections and democracy in the region.
It was jointly organised by Election Commission of Sri Lanka and Asian network for free elections (ANFREL).
This was for first time AESF was held in South Asia.
Theme: ‘Advancing Election Transparency and Integrity: Promoting and Defending Democracy Together‘.
6. Consider the following statements about Asia Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development:

1. It is established in 1965 under UN. 2. It is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur. Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Answer - Option B
Explanation - India has been elected as the president of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development
India got the presidency of the organisation, servicing countries of the UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) in the field of electronic media development, for the first time by defeating Iran in the election that took place in Sri Lanka.
The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was established in 1977 under the auspices of UNESCO.
It is a unique regional inter-governmental organisation servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development.
It is hosted by the Government of Malaysia and the secretariat is located in Kuala Lumpur.
7. The SAATHI initiative will promote the use of energyefficient equipment in

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Ministry of Textiles and Ministry of Power have joined hands under the initiative SAATHI(Sustainable and Accelerated Adoption of efficient Textile technologies to Help Small Industries) in order to sustain and accelerate the adoption of energy efficient textile technologies in the powerloom sector and cost savings due to use of such technology.
8. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with the objective(s) to

Answer - Option D
9. The “Pitch to MOVE” competition, recently in the news, is related to which one of the following summits?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - ‘Pitch to Move' -A Mobility Pitch event aims to provide the budding entrepreneurs of India, working in the various fields of mobility, a unique opportunity to pitch their business ideas to a distinguished jury consisting of Industry Leaders and Venture Capitalist for raising investments.
10. ‘e-Aksharayan’ was recently launched by the

Answer - Option A
Explanation -e-Aksharayan is desktop software for converting scanned printed Indian Language documents into a fully editable text format in Unicode encoding. The goal is to have realtime translation capability in each of the Indic languages.

UPSC Current Affairs Prelims Sets - Quiz 10

1. O-SMART is an umbrella scheme recently approved for implementation by the Union Cabinet. It will help address issues directly relating to

Answer - Option D
Explanation -Implementation of O-SMART will help in addressing issues relating to UN SDG 14, which aims to conserve use of oceans, marine resources for sustainable development.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given its approval for the umbrella scheme “Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science (O-SMART)”, for implementation during the period from 2017-18 to 2019-20 at an overall cost of Rs.1623 crore.
2. The Parliament recently passed the 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill. Till now, the National Commission for Backward Classes could only

1. Recommend inclusion and exclusion of castes from the OBC list. 2. Recommend the level of income that cuts off the “creamy layer” from the benefits of reservation for the OBCs. 3. Investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards of OBCs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option A
Explanation -Until now NCBC (a statutory body but now constitutional body vide 123rd Constitutional Amendment) can only recommend inclusion and exclusion of castes from the OBC list and the level of income that cuts off the “creamy layer” among these castes from the benefits of reservation.
Till now, it was the National Commission of Scheduled Castes that addressed the grievances of the OBCs. Article 338 of the Constitution, which provides for a “Special Officer for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes” to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards available to them under the Constitution, says categorically that SC/STs “shall be construed as including references to Other Backward Classes”, once a Commission decides who they are.
3. ‘Exercise Peace Mission’ is a multi-nation counter-terror exercise that takes place under the framework of

Answer - Option C
4. Letters of Undertaking and Letters of Credit have recently been in the news in the context of affairs related to

Answer - Option A
Explanation -LoU is a bank guarantee generated on behalf of importers for payments abroad. Under this arrangement, the issuing bank agrees to unconditionally repay the principal amount and interest thereupon.
Another definition: An LoU is an assurance given by one bank to another to meet a liability on behalf of a customer. The LoU is akin to a letter of credit or a guarantee.
LoUs are used in international banking transactions. An LoU is issued for overseas import remittances and involves four parties — an issuing bank, a receiving bank, an importer and a beneficiary entity overseas.
5. The Global Peace Index, the twelfth edition of which was released recently, is produced by

Answer - Option B
Explanation -About Institute for Economics and Peace:
It is the world’s leading think tank dedicated to developing metrics to analyse peace and to quantify its economic value. It does this by developing global and national indices, calculating the economic cost of violence, analyzing country level risk and understanding positive peace.
6. Under Price Support Scheme (PSS), the procurement of which of the following crops is undertaken?

1. Copra 2. Groundnut 3. Pulses 4. Cotton 5. Tobacco Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option D
Explanation -Under Price Support Scheme (PSS), the procurement of oil seeds (this includes groundnuts), pulses and cotton through Central Nodal Agencies at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is also undertaken.
This scheme is implemented at the request of the concerned State Government.
Further, Government of India also implements Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for procurement of agricultural and horticultural commodities which are perishable in nature and are not covered under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).
7. Consider the following statements about the Sinai Peninsula:

1. It is a raindrop-shaped peninsula. 2. It links Asia with Africa. 3. It adjoins Israel and Gaza Strip on the east. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Sinai Peninsula is a triangular peninsula linking Africa with Asia.
The peninsula’s arid expanse is called the Sinai Desert. Usually regarded as being geographically part of Asia, the Sinai Peninsula is the northeastern extremity of Egypt and adjoins Israel and the Gaza Strip
8. Under the Foreigners (Restricted) Areas Order, 1963, which of the following areas have been declared as ‘Restricted’ areas?

1. Parts of the state of Sikkim 2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 3. Lakshadweep Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer - Option A
9. Which one of the following countries has the smallest coastline opening out to the Caspian Sea?

Answer - Option D

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Competitive Exams - Study Guide
Category
Quantitative Aptitude	Reasoning Ability	General Awareness
Computer Awareness	English Knowledge	Banking Awareness
Descriptive Test		Marketing Aptitude

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Competitive Exams - Entrance Exams
Category	Notification
UG	NSTSE 2020	RIMC Admission 2020	WBJEE EVETS 2019
Diploma	HPBOSE D.El.Ed CET 2019	Goa Diploma Admissions 2019
PG	GATE 2020	ATMA 2019	XAT 2020
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Competitive Exams - Current Affairs
Category	Name of the Article
Current Affairs	Current Affairs Daily News Papers August 14th, 2019
	Current Affairs August 14th, 2019 Daily Newspapers Editorials
	Current Affairs August 14th, 2019 Daily Newspapers Important Articles
	Current Affairs Banking Awareness One-Liners August 14th, 2019
	Current Affairs Banking Awareness August 14th, 2019 Quiz
	Current Affairs One Liners August 14th, 2019
	Current Affairs Quiz August 13th, 2019 Quiz
	Current Affairs Vocabulary Day 138
	Current Affairs August 14th, 2019 Vocabulary Quiz
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English Language	Spotting Errors
Quantitative Aptitude	Permutation and Combination
Quantitative Aptitude	Compound Interest

GK

General Knowledge for Competitive Examinations
Topic	Name of the Article
GK - World	World News Agencies
	World Longest Train Services
	Different Countries Republic Days
GK - India	Inflation Types
	Indian Sobriquets
	Indian Rivers
GK - Abbreviations	Indian Railways Acronyms
GK - Abbreviations	Finance Abbreviations
GK - Banking & Insurance	Banking Mobile Apps
GK - Banking & Insurance	Banking Codes
GK - Science & Technology	Vitamins and Food Sources
	Energy Transformation Devices
	Father of Different Fields – Science & Technology

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