Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In a private journal in 1945, Alfred Kazin said that, “More and more, it is clear to me that what I suffer from is the lack of a working philosophy, of a strong central belief, of something outside to which my ‘self’ can hold and, for once, forget its ‘self.’” In a letter to his editor, Norman Mailer said The Naked and the Dead would feature “troubling terrifying glimpses of order in disorder, of a horror which may or may not lurk beneath the surface of things,” forging into “primitive glimpses of a structure behind things [...] on the edge of a deeper knowledge.” And Frank O’Hara’s search for the essence of the human person in poetry could travel so far to the edge of deeper knowledge that it became a sickening moral crisis.
Kazin’s absent working philosophy influenced a private life animated by self-aggrandizing myths of erotic heroism and acts of domestic violence. Mailer only had to look in the mirror to catch glimpses of the terrifying disorder. He nearly killed his second wife by stabbing her with a penknife. In the case of O’Hara, the quintessential poet of the avant-garde was so artistically insecure that he could descend into states of depressive alcoholism leading to poetic impotence. These are just a few examples of the inner turmoil and private instability, which Mendelson carefully reveals as the backdrop of literary expression in the 20th century. At a time when the question of human nature was of grave public concern, it proved no less compelling behind closed doors.
Though Dwight Macdonald’s work as a commentator and critic was not celebrated like the novels and poems of his peers, he was instrumental in setting the stakes of the literary and humanistic debate. Raised in the cradle of America’s founding elite, Mendelson says that ‘’ his ancestors were to Yale what the Adams, Eliot, and Lowell families were to Harvard.” In each case, the “family produced one or more soberly respectable presidents of the college or the nation,” but they also “produced a volatile and often tormented moralist-aesthete.” Dwight was his family’s Henry (Adams), T. S. (Eliot), and Robert (Lowell), editing for the Partisan Review, Yorker to Esquire. Deeply moved by the horrors of the two World Wars, and America’s numerous moral failures (especially in relation to the descendants of slavery), Macdonald’s response to moral and political ambiguity was an unfailing attempt to establish supreme clarity. His defining statement remains the essay “Masscult and Midcult.”
In it, Macdonald outlined the traditional divide between High Art and Folk Art, which was not fraught with pejorative overtones as it would be today. Rather, it was merely the result of aristocratic hierarchies that made up most of recorded history. For him, the virtue of aesthetic hierarchy was that it emanated from the work of individuals who were expressing the concrete realities of their community. ”Folk Art grew mainly from below,” and was “shaped by the people to fit their own needs, even though it often took its cue from High Culture.” Obviously high art and culture were curated by the elite, but clear distinctions allowed for cross-germination that aspired to move in both directions (for example, Picasso’s immersion in African folklore, or the contemporary sign painting of Steve Powers).
With the advent of Mass Culture — “or better Masscult, since it really isn’t culture at all” — the communal context of artistic expression was overrun by industrial mechanisms to produce and deliver (almost anything) to a freshly minted entity known as the public. Where folk art and high culture were unique and respectable in their own right, masscult was a parody of high culture, conceived in executive boardrooms to sell to the masses (the precursor to the consumer and the taxpayer). The result was the semblance of art produced on the basis of behavioral patterns and capitalizing on distraction. In Macdonald’s appraisal, the moral implications of this aesthetic revolution were high, and the ramifications were deeply political. Anticipating a key feature of late 20th-century American fiction, “the mass man,” he argued, “is a solitary atom, uniform with the millions of other atoms that go to make up ‘the lonely crowd.’” Individuals, he argued, thrive in relationship to the community, where economic interests, traditions, humor, controversy, and values can be shared, and from which vibrant artistic and political expressions can emerge. On the flipside, A mass society, like a crowd, is inchoate and uncreative. Its atoms cohere not according to individual liking or traditions or even interests but in a purely mechanical way, as iron filings of different shapes and sizes are pulled toward a magnet working on the one quality they have in common. Its morality sinks to the level of the most primitive members — a crowd will commit atrocities that very few of its members would commit as individuals — and its taste to that of the least sensitive and the most ignorant. Where he thought the blurring of lines between the upper and lower classes was one of America’s great political achievements, it was culturally devastating. Instead of preserving the nation’s organic ethnic plurality, Macdonald saw a hasty assimilation by immigrants (the “huddled masses”) who were made to feel ashamed of their rich artistic and linguistic traditions, rendering many “at the lowest cultural (as well as economic) levels [...] ready-made consumers of Kitsch.” Hasty assimilation and consumption of kitsch led to the advent of Midcult, which “pretends to respect the standards of High Culture while in fact it waters them down and vulgarizes them.” According to Macdonald, Midcult could neither sustain cultural plurality nor challenge conventional wisdom. Arguably a precursor of contemporary phenomena such as trigger warnings, Midcult was predicated on being acceptable, uncontroversial, and inoffensive. It promoted a cultural world of aesthetic, political and intellectual homogenization, where “the fear that wakes publishers in the night is,” not that the quality of their acquisitions, but “that the presses may for a moment stop.” In turn, the fear that silences citizens and artists is that they might offend.
1Q. According to the given passage, which of the following options is/ are NOT TRUE about Dwight Macdonald? (i) As a commentator and critic, he wasn’t as successful as his contemporaries. (ii) According to him, the moral implications of the aesthetic revolution were high. (iii) He was successful in establishing supreme clarity between moral and political ambiguity.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (ii) (D) All (i), (ii), (iii) (E) None of (i), (ii), (iii)

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: The statement ‘.....Dwight Macdonald’s work as a commentator and critic was not celebrated like the novels and poems of his peers....’ suggests that he was not an as successful commentator and critic as his contemporaries. Hence, (i) is true.
In the fourth paragraph, it is clearly given that ‘.......In Macdonald’s appraisal, the moral implications of this aesthetic revolution were high.......’ Hence, (ii) is also true.
The author has called McDonald’s response to moral and political ambiguity an unfailing attempt. Hence (iii) is also true. Hence, (E) is the correct answer.
2Q. According to the given passage, on what aspect(s) was the Midcult based?

(A) On being acceptable (B) On not being controversial (C) On being inoffensive. (D) Both (a) and (c) (E) All (a), (b) and (c).

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: In the last paragraph, it is given that ‘Midcult was predicated on being acceptable, uncontroversial, and inoffensive’. From which we can easily infer that ‘Midcult’ is based on all three aspects given in the options (A), (B) and (C).
3Q. Who has been referred to as a freshly minted entity in the passage?

(A) Artists (B) Public (C) Industrialists (D) Tax Payers (E) Immigrants

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: It is clearly given in the passage that ‘...the communal context of artistic expression was overrun by industrial mechanisms to produce and deliver (almost anything) to a freshly minted entity known as the Public. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
4Q. According to the given passage, In case of O’Hara, what was the main reason that led to poetic impotence?

(A) Depressive alcoholism (B) Private instability (C) Artistic insecurity (D) Midcult Art (E) Self-aggrandizing myths

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: It is given in the second paragraph that ‘.....In the case of O’Hara, the quintessential poet of the avant-garde was so artistically insecure that he could descend into states of depressive alcoholism leading to poetic impotence....‘ It is clear from this statement that (B), (D) and (E) can’t be the correct answer. Now, one may get confused between options (A) and (C) but, it is given in this statement that it was actually artistic insecurity that descended him into the depressive alcoholism. Hence, the main reason that led to poetic impotence is ‘Artistic Insecurity’. Hence (C) is the correct answer.
5Q. On the basis of the given passage, which of the following option(s) is/are TRUE about ‘Folk Art’? (i) It was a flexible form of art. (ii) It is a unique art form. (ii) It was independent of High Culture.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (ii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) Both (i) and (iii)

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: It is given in the third paragraph that ‘Folk Art grew mainly from below,” and was “shaped by the people to fit their own needs,’. Hence we can infer that Folk art was flexible enough to be shaped by the people. Hence, (i) is true.
In the same paragraph, it is given that ‘.....Where folk art and high culture were unique and respectable in their own right, masscult was a parody of high culture...........’. On the basis of which, we can conclude that option (ii) is also true.
Now, it is mentioned in the same paragraph that Folk art took its cue from High Culture. Hence we can’t conclude that it was independent of High Culture. Hence (ii) is not true. Hence, (D) is the correct option.
Directions (6-8): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
6Q. Aggrandizing

(A) Glorify (B) Disgracing (C) Empower (D) Mushrooming (E) Belittling

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Aggrandizing means ‘increase the power or status of something’. Hence, ‘empower’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Glorify: Describe or represent as admirable Disgracing: Bring shame or discredit on Empower: Make (someone) stronger and more confident Mushrooming: Increase, spread, or develop rapidly. Belittling: Dismiss (someone or something) as unimportant.
7Q. Ramifications

(A) Repercussions (B) Outcome (C) Drawbacks (D) Flaws (E) Effects

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Ramifications mean ‘a complex or unwelcome consequence of an action or event’. Hence, ‘repercussions’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Repercussions: An unintended consequence of an event or action, especially an unwelcome one. Outcome: The way a thing turns out Drawbacks: A feature that renders something less acceptable Flaws: A shortcoming, imperfection, or lack. Effects: A change which is a result or consequence of an action or other cause.
8Q. Assimilation

(A) Absorption (B) Wearing out (C) Hard work (D) Contraction (E) Expansion

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Assimilation means ‘The process by which a person or persons acquire the social and psychological characteristics of a group’. Hence, ‘absorption’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options. Absorption: The state of being engrossed in something. Wearing out: To tire or exhaust Hard work: A great deal of effort or endurance. Contraction: The process of becoming smaller. Expansion: The action of becoming larger or more extensive.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Inchoate

(A) Vulgar (B) Inceptive (C) Firm (D) Prudent (E) Matured

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Inchoate means ‘just begun and so not fully formed or developed’. Hence, ‘matured’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Vulgar: Lacking sophistication or good taste. Inceptive: Relating to or marking the beginning of something; initial. Firm: Strongly felt and unlikely to change. Prudent: Acting with or showing care and thought for the future. Matured: Become fully grown or developed.
10Q. Slavery

(A) Thralldom (B) Vassalage (C) Braggadocio (D) Confinement (E) Carte blanche

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Slavery means ‘the state of being a slave’. Hence ‘Carte blanche’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options. Thralldom: The state of being under the control of another person Vassalage: Bondage Braggadocio: Boastful or arrogant behavior Confinement: The action of confining or state of being confined Carte blanche: Complete freedom to act as one wishes.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Banks, it is often said, are the fulcrum of a robust economy. Healthy banks are an essential prerequisite for placing the economy on a higher growth orbit. The banking scene in India, however, presents an absolutely scary picture. A combination of factors ranging from poor credit appraisal to political interference and mismanagement by borrowers have conspired to push the banking industry into a messy cobweb. Bank after bank, especially the government-owned, has come out with poor third-quarter results. The stressed assets (comprising gross non-performing assets plus written-off assets and restructured assets) account for 14.1 percent of total bank loans as of September 2015, up from 13.6 percent in March 2015. For public sector banks, the stressed assets were in the vicinity of 17 percent at the end of September, while the figure for private sector banks stood at 6.7 percent. The rising stress level, or increase in bad loans, has yielded a twin fallout — of declining profitability at banks and poor credit disbursal. The double effect is already telling on the economy in various ways. For long, banks have either managed to or rather been allowed to, keep the stress invisible, giving the outside world a very little clue as to the happenings inside the industry. The Reserve Bank of India under Raghuram Rajan’s stewardship, however, has decided to clean up banks’ books rather than letting them camouflage the real picture. “There are two polar approaches to loan stress,” he said at the CII Banking Summit in Mumbai this week. “One is to apply band-aids to keep the loan current and hope that time and growth will set the project back on track. Sometimes this works. But most of the time, the low growth that precipitated the stress persists. The fresh lending intended to keep the original loan current grows. Facing large and potentially un-payable debt, the promoter loses interest, does little to fix existing problems, and the project goes into further losses.” Indeed, legacy problems should be given a burial, and should not be allowed to persist. So hinting, Dr. Rajan articulated the need for surgical action to retrieve the health of the industry.
Forcing banks to recognize a problem is one thing, and finding a viable long-term solution to it is quite another. That requires not just holistic thinking but an out-of-the-box approach as well, especially in the evolving global context. A meaningful fix can happen only if banks are given functional autonomy at various levels. Restricted freedom inevitably leads to a blame game, making it even more difficult to fix responsibility. The concept of arm’s- length relationship especially needs to be clearly defined and implemented in letter and spirit in the banking industry. It is not just about how much money the Central government will freshly pump into stressed banks. The litmus test for the government lies in its ability, and capacity, to let go of control. The banking system indeed needs a change in the way it is managed.
1Q. According to the passage, which of the following is the main factor for pushing the banking industry into a messy cobweb?

(A) Increase in bad loans and poor credit disbursal. (B) Unpayable debt. (C) Poor credit appraisal to political interference and mismanagement by borrowers. (D) Restricted freedom and rising stress level. (E) None of the above.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: In the first paragraph, it is given that “A combination of factors ranging from poor credit appraisal to political interference and mismanagement by borrowers have conspired to push the banking industry into a messy cobweb.” This statement suggests that the main factors for pushing the banking industry into a messy cobweb are ‘poor credit assessment’, ‘mismanagement of loans by borrowers’ and ‘political interference’. Hence, (C) is the correct option.
2Q. Which of the following can be the most suitable title of the passage?

(A) NPA at ‘unacceptable’ level for public sector banks (B) Rising NPAs put banks in a tight spot (C) Containing the rising stressed assets in Indian banks (D) Bank ultimately need autonomy (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: ‘Bank ultimately needs autonomy’ is the most appropriate title. Throughout the passage, the author has discussed the ill-effects of interference on banking. Besides this, the statement ’ The banking system indeed needs a change in the way it is managed.’ given in the last paragraph, also supports the title. Hence, (D) is the correct option.
3Q. Which of the following best explain the meaning of the idiom ‘arm’s length relationship’ in the context of the passage?

(A) a relationship lacking intimacy or friendliness, esp. when possessing some special connection, such as previous closeness. (B) Maintaining a sweet relationship. (C) To be convinced of one’s sincerity and act in accordance with his/ her statement. (D) Selfish friends who are with us only in a comfortable situation. (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: ‘Arm’s length relationship’ refers to “a relationship lacking intimacy or friendliness, esp. when possessing some special connection, such as previous closeness.”. Hence, (A) is the correct option
4Q. According to the passage, what is/are the approaches to clean up banks’ books rather than letting them camouflage the real picture? (i) To apply band-aids to keep the loan current. (ii) Hope that time and growth will set the project back on track. (iii) Facing large and potentially unpayable debt.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) and (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Only (i) and (iii) (E) None of the above.

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: In the First paragraph, it is given that “There are two polar approaches to loan stress,...... One is to apply band-aids to keep the loan current, and hope that time and growth will set the project back on track.....” which suggests that (i) and (ii) are true. Now it is also given in the same paragraph that, ‘’ Facing large and potentially un-payable debt, the promoter loses interest, does little to fix existing problems...”. from which, we can infer that (iii) is not true. Hence, (B) is the correct option.
5Q. Which of the following statement is/are true in the context of the passage? (i) The banking system indeed needs a change in the way it is managed. (ii) Increase in bad loans has yielded a twin fallout – of declining profitability at banks and poor credit appraisal. (iii) Currently, the stressed assets account for 13.6 % of total bank loans.

(A) Only (iii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (i) and (ii) (D) Only (ii) (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The last line of the last paragraph clearly states that ‘The banking system indeed needs a change in the way it is managed.’. Therefore we can conclude that (i) is true. Again, in the first paragraph, it is mentioned that ‘....increase in bad loans, has yielded a twin fallout — of declining profitability at banks and poor credit disbursal.....’ Hence (ii) is also true. Now, in the same paragraph, it is given that “The stressed assets (comprising gross non-performing assets plus written-off assets and restructured assets) account for 14.1 percent of total bank loans as of September 2015, up from 13.6 percent in March 2015.”, which contradicts the fact given in (iii). Therefore, (iii) is not true. Hence (C) is the correct option.
Directions (6-8): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6Q. Camouflage

(A) Waiting (B) Revealed (C) Exposed (D) Disguise (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Camouflage means to travel through (an unfamiliar area) in order to learn about it. So, the disguise is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Waiting: The action of staying where one is or delaying action until a particular time or event Revealed: Make (previously unknown or secret information) known to others. Exposed: Make (something) visible by uncovering it. Disguise: Give (someone or oneself) a different appearance in order to conceal one’s identity.
7Q. Cobweb

(A) Device (B) Puzzle (C) Decoration (D) Entanglement (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Cobweb means something resembling a cobweb in delicacy or intricacy. So, entanglement is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Device: A thing made or adapted for a particular purpose Puzzle: A person or thing that is difficult to understand or explain; an enigma. Decoration: The process or art of decorating something. Entanglement: A complicated or compromising relationship or situation.
8Q. Holistic

(A) Innovative (B) Aggregate (C) Alternative (D) Positive (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Holistic means characterized by the belief that the parts of something are intimately interconnected and explicable only by reference to the whole. So, the aggregate is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Innovative: Featuring new methods Aggregate: A whole formed by combining several separate elements. Alternative: Available as another possibility or choice. Positive: Constructive, optimistic, or confident
Directions (9-10): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Fulcrum

(A) Exterior (B) Pivotal (C) Border (D) Unimportant (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Fulcrum means a thing that plays a central or essential role in an activity, event, or situation. So, Unimportant is the word which is opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Exterior: Forming, situated on, or relating to the outside of something. Pivotal: Of crucial importance in relation to the development or success of something else. Border: The edge or boundary of something, or the part near it. Unimportant: Lacking in importance or significance.
10Q. Persist

(A) Abandon (B) Informal (C) Cease (D) Insist (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Persist means continue in an opinion or course of action in spite of difficulty or opposition. So, Cease is the word which is opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Abandon: Give up completely. Informal: Having a relaxed, friendly, or unofficial style, manner, or nature. Cease: Come or bring to an end. Insist: Demand something forcefully.

Directions (1 - 10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Shortly after taking over as the Reserve Bank of India governor in September 2013, Raghuram Rajan had promised a “dramatic remaking” of the country’s banking sector. Rajan has walked the talk, though the full results of his efforts would be visible only a few years from now. For example, five years down the line, the Indian banking sector could look very different from what it is now. To start with, the near-monopoly of public sector banks, which now account for over 77 percent of the loan market, could well be over. Experts say there could be fewer public sector banks, more niche banks that offer only specific products or cater to a particular group of customers and more private universal banks. The postal department’s ambition to become a full-service bank could also impact the monopoly that state-run lenders enjoy in the hinterlands.
Most importantly, customer choices would change dramatically with technological innovations, as a result of which lenders which still depend on savings deposits to attract customers, could face oblivion in the next five years.
“There is definitely change in the air with payments banks, small finance banks, and more universal banks coming in. Three years down the line, you will see many of these things happening,” said Arundhati Bhattacharya, chairman, State Bank of India, the country’s largest lender which controls 17 percent of the total credit of the banking system.
The recent decision of the government to capitalize public sector banks based on their efficiency could go a long way in ending the muscle power that the state-run banks enjoy if the government sticks to the strategy of selective infusion of capital. Weaker banks’ survival would be in question as their ability to raise capital from the market would be limited because of mounting non-performing loans. For diluting their owner’s stake by tapping equity markets, these banks need the government’s approval, and the latter is in no mood to oblige due to poor evaluations.
Data compiled by the finance ministry show public sector banks’ combined market capitalization is only 36 percent of the banking sector’s total market cap even though they control 77 percent of the loan market while their average price-to-book value (P/BV) is 0.67. In contrast, private sector lenders’ market cap is 74 percent with average P/BV at 2.35.
While observing that the government’s move to link capital infusion with efficiency is one way to incentivize banks for better efficiency, Bhattacharya said only time will tell if government banks can hold on to their dominance. “It is difficult to predict at this point in time what will happen. We will have to see whether it (market share) remains where it is now or comes down to 50 percent,” she added.
The response to set up niche banks in India after the banking regulator invited applications from aspirants has been stupendous. Over 100 entities have applied to set up payments banks and small finance banks, though the central bank made it clear that it will be cautious in awarding licenses.
RBI has also paved the way for wholesale banks, or to be more specific, banks which will only finance infrastructure projects. RBI has provided incentives for such banks as they can now raise resources through long- term bonds (with a tenure of at least seven years) and will not have cash reserve ratio (CRR), statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) or priority sector lending obligations. However, it is still to be seen whether the concept excites banking aspirants.
There could be another kind of niche banks. Going by the deliberations at the two-day bankers’ retreat (Gyan Sangam) convened by the finance ministry in Pune, there is a proposal that small public sector banks should rather focus on their strengths and not try to sell all kinds of products. “Re-orient portfolios of small PSU banks to differentiate and focus on specific niches to build capabilities and to optimize capital,” the summary of recommendations released after the retreat said. This could result in some government banks selling loans only to farmers, and some selling only to small enterprises. The one-size-fits-all theory could well be a thing of the past, so far as the structure of public sector banks is concerned.
1Q. According to the given passage, what step has been proposed by the government to motivate banks for better efficiency?

(A) Offering products to a particular group of customers. (B) Giving them time to improve their efficiency. (C) Linking capital infusion with efficiency. (D) Converting all the banks into niche banks. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: It is specifically given in the seventh paragraph of the passage that ‘government’s move to link capital infusion with efficiency is one way to incentivize banks for better efficiency’ which suggests that government has proposed to link capital infusion with efficiency in order to motivate banks for better efficiency. Hence, (C) is the correct option.
2Q. According to the passage, what was the main aim of the Governor of Reserve Bank Of India?

(A) To improve the infrastructure of the Indian banking sector. (B) To make a change in the air with payment banks. (C) To improve the efficiency of the entire banking system. (D) To set up more and more niche banks. (E) To reconstruct the entire banking sector.

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: It is given the first paragraph that, ‘Raghuram Rajan had promised a “dramatic remaking” of the country’s banking sector’ from which we can infer that the main of the Governor of Reserve Bank Of India is to reconstruct the entire banking sector. Hence, (E) is the correct option.
3Q. According to the given passage, what does a niche bank mean?

(A) A bank with better efficiency and capitalization. (B) Women-oriented bank. (C) A bank which tries to sell all kind of products (D) A bank that serves the needs of a certain demographic segment of the population. (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: ‘Niche Banks’ are the banks that cater to and serve the needs of a certain demographic segment of the population. Hence (D) is the correct option.
4Q. Which of the following fact(s) are TRUE on the basis of the given passage. (i) The results of the policies of Mr. Rajan are not instantaneous. (ii) The market cap of private sector banks is higher than that of public sector banks. (iii) Selling loans only to farmers and small enterprises is safer option.

(A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) both (i) and (ii) (D) only (iii) (E) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: It is given in the first paragraph that, ‘...the full results of his efforts would be visible only a few years from now.....’ from which we can infer that (i) is true. It is given in the passage that the market cap of public sector banks is 77 percent while that of private sector banks is 74 percent. Hence, (ii) is not true. (iii) can also not be considered as true since this statement is the function of a niche bank, Hence, it cannot be inferred whether it’s safe or not.. Therefore (i) is the only true statement. Hence, (A) is the correct option.
5Q. According to the given passage, which of the following option(s) is/ are the expected outcome(s) of Mr. Rajan’s policies?

(A) A complete change in the Indian banking sector. (B) To re-orient portfolios of small PSU banks (C) An end to the monopoly of public sector banks (D) A better cash reserve ratio (CRR) and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) (E) Only (a) and (c)

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: It is given in the first paragraph of the passage that ’ Raghuram Rajan had promised a “dramatic remaking” of the country’s banking sector. Rajan has walked the talk, though the full results of his efforts would be visible only a few years from now........’ suggests that Raghuram Rajan’s aim is to change the Indian banking sector and his policies are expected to do the same. Hence, (A) is the expected outcome
Option (B) is nothing but a restatement of the summary of recommendations released after the retreat. Hence (B) cannot be the expected outcome.
It is given in the second paragraph of the second paragraph of the passage that ’... the near-monopoly of public sector banks, which now account for over 77 percent of the loan market, could well be over....’ which suggests that option (C) can also be the expected outcome.
It is given in the passage that, ‘they can now raise resources through long-term bonds (with a tenure of at least seven years) and will not have cash reserve ratio (CRR), statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) or priority sector lending obligations’ from which clearly suggests that (D) is not the outcome the policies of Mr. Rajan. Hence, (E) is the correct option.
6Q. Which of the following is/are NOT TRUE according to the given passage.? (i) Raghuram Rajan has not been able to deliver on his promises. (ii) Entities have not shown much interest in the proposal to set up niche banks in India (iii) State bank of India is the world’s largest lender

(A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) only (iii) (D) both (i) and (ii) (E) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: The usage of the phrase ‘walk the talk’ suggests that (i) is not true. It is given in the third last paragraph that ‘The response to set up niche banks in India after the banking regulator invited applications from aspirants has been stupendous’ Hence we can conclude that (ii) is also not true. In the given passage, it is given that the State bank of India is the country’s largest lender. However, we aren’t given whether it’s the world’s largest lender or not. Hence (iii) is also not true. Hence (E) is the correct option
Directions (7-8): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
7Q. Walk the talk

(A) To perform actions consistent with one’s claims. (B) To work according to what was discussed (C) To walk out after a heated argument (D) To draw a plan to achieve something. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: ‘Walk the talk’ means ‘To perform actions consistent with one’s claims.’. Hence (A) is the correct option.
8Q. Tenure

(A) Acquittal (B) Release (C) Term (D) Spree (E) Tenor

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: ‘tenure’ means ‘period of something’. Hence, the term is the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to it Look at the meaning of the given options Acquittal: A judgement or verdict that a person is not guilty of the crime Release: Set free Term: A fixed or limited period for which something, is intended to last Spree: A spell or sustained period of unrestrained activity of a particular kind. Tenor: A singing voice between baritone and alto or countertenor, the highest of the ordinary adult male range.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Infusion

(A) Brew (B) Take out (C) Penetrate (D) Permeate (E) Percolate

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: ‘Infusion’ means ‘to fill; pervade’ Hence,’ take out’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Brew: Make (tea or coffee) by mixing it with hot water. Take out: Make (tea or coffee) by mixing it with hot water. Penetrate: Go into or through (something), especially with force or effort. Permeate: Spread throughout Percolate: (Of a liquid or gas) filter gradually through a porous surface or substance
10Q. Deliberations

(A) Disregard (B) Admiration (C) Approbation (D) Endorsement (E) Recommendation

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Deliberations means ‘long and careful consideration or discussion’. Hence ‘disregard’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Disregard: Pay no attention Admiration: Respect and warm approval Approbation: Approval or praise Endorsement: The action of endorsing someone or something. Recommendation: The action of recommending something or someone. Environment RC Solutions with explanations.

Directions (1 - 10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Annals of science about the effect of global warming on the Arctic has been described in part one of a three-part series. The Alaskan village of Shishmaref sits on an island known as Sarichef, 5 miles off the coast of the Seward Peninsula. In the early 1990s, seal hunters began to notice that the sea ice was changing-it was forming later in the fall and breaking up earlier in the spring. This caused the island to become more vulnerable to storm surges. In 2002, the entire village voted to move to the mainland. The National Academy of Sciences undertook its first rigorous study of global warming in 1979 mentions studies by Syukuro Manabe and James Hansen. The Ad Hoc Study Group on Carbon Dioxide and Climate, headed by Jule Charney, found that if carbon dioxide emissions continued to increase, the climate changes would be severe. It’s now 25 years since that report was issued, and, in this period, carbon-dioxide emissions have increased from 5 billion a year to 7 billion and the earth’s temperature has steadily risen. The world is now warmer than it has been at any point in the last 2 millennia. The impacts of global warming are no longer just hypothetical. Nearly every major glacier in the world is shrinking. The oceans are becoming not just warmer but more acidic; the difference between day and night time temperatures is diminishing, and plants are blooming weeks earlier than they used to. These are the warning signs that the Charney panel cautioned against waiting for. The most dramatic changes are occurring in the Arctic, which is melting. Most of the land in the Arctic is underlaid by zones of permafrost. The writer visited Fairbanks and Deadhorse, Alaska, with University of Alaska geophysicist and permafrost expert Vladimir Romanovsky describes signs that the permafrost-which has existed for 120,000 years-is melting. The writer observed Romanovsky collecting data from some of his 60 electronic monitoring stations.
Rising temperature can cause the organic material that has been frozen for millennia to break down, giving off carbon dioxide or methane. In 1997, the Des Groseilliers expedition found that the Arctic sea-ice depth had declined significantly. Donald Perovich, of the Cold Regions Research and Engineering Laboratory (CRREL), studies the interaction of solar radiation with sea ice. Anything that changes the earth’s albedo changes how much energy the planet absorbs, with dire consequences. The ice-albedo feedback is thought to be a major reason why the Arctic is warming so rapidly mentions the Madison Boulder. Antarctic ice cores show that carbon-dioxide levels today are significantly higher than they’ve been in the last 420,000 years. Some of the climate models Perovich has assembled predict that the perennial sea-ice cover in the Arctic will disappear entirely by 2080. In 1859, British physicist John Tyndall identified the natural greenhouse effect. Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation and then reemit it; if these gas levels increase, the earth’s temperature will also rise, mentions Svante Arrhenius. Swiss Camp is a research station set on Greenland’s ice sheet, which is the second largest on earth mentions Konrad Steffen, Swiss Camp’s director. Much of what’s known about the earth’s climate over the last 100,000 years comes from ice cores drilled in central Greenland. Ten years ago, Jay Zwally, a NASA scientist, installed G.P.S. receivers around Swiss Camp to study changes in the ice sheet’s elevation. While discussing the rise in sea levels due to global warming thermohaline circulation mentions that no nation has a keener interest in climate change than Iceland. Oddur Sigurdsson heads the Icelandic Glaciological Society, which surveys the country’s 300 glaciers, which have been rapidly declining. The glacier Sólheimajökull has shrunk by 1100 feet in the last decade discusses last fall’s Reykjavik symposium on global warming. The study found that temperatures in the Arctic were rising at a surprising rate and that humans had become the “dominant factor” influencing the climate mentions oceanographer Robert Corell.
1Q. According to the passage, what are the severe effects of climate change? (i) The constant increase in earth’s temperature. (ii) Melting of glaciers. (iii) Acidification of oceans

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: It is clearly mentioned in the second paragraph that due to climate change ‘.....the earth’s temperature has steadily risen....’, ‘.....Nearly every major glacier in the world is shrinking....’ and ‘.....The oceans are becoming not just warmer but more acidic.....’ from which we can conclude that (i), (ii) and (iii) are all true. Hence, (E) is the correct option.
2Q. According to the given passage, which of the following option(s) was/were the findings of Des Groseilliers expedition?

(A) Decline in the depth of Arctic sea ice. (B) The difference between day and night time temperatures is diminishing. (C) The world has become warmer than ever before. (D) There is a fall in the amount of energy absorbed by the earth. (E) Glaciers are shrinking day by day.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: In the third paragraph of the given passage, It is clearly mentioned that ‘the Des Groseilliers expedition found that the Arctic sea-ice depth had declined significantly’ From which we can conclude that option (A) is correct.
According to the given passage, option (B), (C) and (E) is the effect of climate change and not the findings of the Des Groseilliers expedition. Hence, they are not the correct option.
Option (C) is the effect of change in earth’s albedo. Therefore, (C) is also not the correct answer. Hence, (A) is the correct answer.
3Q. According to the given passage, why did NASA scientist, install G.P.S. receivers around Swiss Camp?

(A) To study the effects of global warming. (B) To study the interaction of solar radiation with sea ice. (C) To undertake its first rigorous study of global warming in 1979. (D) To study changes in the altitude of ice sheets. (E) To study the vulnerability of storm surges.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: According to the given passage, interaction of solar radiation with sea ice has been studied by 1997 Donald Perovich, of the Cold Regions Research and Engineering Laboratory. Hence, (B) is not correct.
It is given in the first paragraph that it was The National Academy of Sciences which had undertaken its first rigorous study of global warming in 1979. Hence (C) is also not correct.
It is given in the last paragraph that ‘NASA scientist, installed G.P.S. receivers around Swiss Camp to study changes in the ice sheet’s elevation’. From which we can infer that the G.P.S has been installed in order to study the changes in the altitude of ice sheets. Hence (D) is the correct option. From the same statement, we can conclude that (A) and (E) is not correct.
4Q. According to the given passage, what are the predictions of Perovich’s climate models?

(A) Carbon-dioxide emissions would increase from 5 billion a year to 7 billion (B) The perennial sea-ice cover in the Arctic would disappear entirely by 2080 (C) Glaciers which have existed for over 120,000 years are melting (D) Rising temperatures can cause the organic material that has been frozen for millennia to break down (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: It is clearly given in the last paragraph that Perovich’s climate models predict that The perennial sea-ice cover in the Arctic Would disappear entirely by 2080. Hence (B) is the correct option.
According to the given passage, option (A), (C) and (D) are the effect of climate change. Hence, they are not the correct options. Hence, (B) is the correct option.
5Q. According to the given passage, what is the discovery of British physicist John Tyndall?

(A) The ice cores drilled in central Greenland are a major source of information about the earth’s temperature in the past. (B) Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation and then reemit it (C) Greenhouse gases increase the earth’s temperature. (D) No nation has a keener interest in climate change than Iceland. (E) Natural greenhouse effect.

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: It is clearly mentioned in the third paragraph that ‘1859, British physicist John Tyndall identified the natural greenhouse effect’ Hence (E) is correct. Please note that options (B) and (C) are the points mentioned by Svante Arrhenius and not ‘Tyndall’. Hence (E) is the correct option. Option (A) and (D) are the general facts given in the passage and are not related to Tyndall. Hence, (E) is the correct answer.
6Q. According to the given passage, what is the major reason for the warming of the Arctic?

(A) The ice-albedo feedback (B) Greenhouse gases (C) Carbon-dioxide emissions (D) Global warming (E) Storm surges

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: It is specifically mentioned in the passage that ‘The ice-albedo feedback is thought to be a major reason why the Arctic is warming so rapidly.’ Hence (A) is the correct answer.
Directions (7-8): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
7Q. Annal

(A) Daily (B) Journal (C) Annual (D) Analogical (E) Explanation

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: ‘Annal’ means ‘a record of the events of one year.’. Hence ‘explanation’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Daily: Done, produced, or occurring every day Journal: A newspaper or magazine that deals with a particular subject or professional activity. Annual: Occurring once every year. Analogical: Of, relating to, or based on analogy. Explanation: A statement or account that makes something clear.
8Q. Symposium

(A) Conference (B) Synopsis (C) Summary (D) Similar (E) Rundown

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: ‘Symposium’ means ‘a conference or meeting to discuss a particular subject.’. Hence, ‘conference’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Conference: A formal meeting of people with a shared interest, typically one that takes place over several days. Synopsis: A brief summary or general survey of something Summary: A brief statement or account of the main points of something. Similar: Having a resemblance in appearance, character, or quantity. Rundown: An analysis or summary of something by a knowledgeable person.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Ad Hoc

(A) Impromptu (B) Unplanned (C) Deliberate (D) Unspecified (E) Ignorant

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: ‘Ad Hoc’ means ‘created or done for a particular purpose as necessary.’ Hence ‘unspecific’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Impromptu: Done without being planned or rehearsed. Unplanned: Not planned Deliberate: Done consciously and intentionally. Unspecified: Not stated clearly or exactly Ignorant: Lacking knowledge or awareness in general
10Q. Hypothetical

(A) Conjecturable (B) Refutable (C) Disputable (D) Factual (E) Contingent

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: ‘Hypothetical’ means ‘based on or serving as a hypothesis’, Hence ‘factuable’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Conjecturable: imaginary Refutable: To prove to be false or erroneous Disputable: Not established as a fact, and so open to question or debate. Factual: Actually occurring. Contingent: Subject to chance

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Gastric cancer is the fourth most common form of cancer and the second most common cause of death from cancer; a ten-fold variation in its occurrence across the world records four-six lakh cases in Africa, North America, western and northern Europe and Australia, 10-15 lakh cases in Central America and 30-35 lakh cases in eastern Asia. Three-quarters of new cases are in Asia with more than two-fifths being in China.
There are many contributing factors, prime among them being one’s lifestyle. A medical study using the South Indian population found some of the common contributing factors to be the reuse of cooking oil, a high intake of salt, consumption of red meat, low intake of fruits and vegetables, improperly preserved food, smoking, alcohol, and H .Pylori infection.
Unfortunately, data available in India, through tumor registries and institutions maintaining a database, cover only 7 percent of the population with cancer. The common age at presentation is between 50 and 70, though it can occur even in people under 40, with there being a clear male predominance. Our study showed a 14.84 percent incidence in the under- 40 age group and 7.7 percent in the above 70 age group.
Most patients, especially from suburban and rural areas, present themselves when in an advanced stage. The major contributing factor for delayed presentation is “ignoring” warning symptoms. Other factors are access to centers with specialists, myths about cancer, resorting to native treatment without proper medical advice, and socio-cultural barriers. It also involves resources. Affordability and accessibility play a big role. As a result of these factors, the chances of treatment with an intention to cure comes down drastically, which translates into a decreased number of years of survival after diagnosis.
Data on the Indian population show that the survival rate at the end of the first year is 34.3-35.7 percent, which drops to 13.2-14.6 percent in the third year and 8.6-10.1 percent at the end of five. In contrast, in Korea, the five-year rate of survival in 2000 was 46.6 percent, which improved to 67 percent in 2010. This positive change is due to a unique screening programme where endoscopy is done routinely for anybody above 40. This helps in very early stage diagnosis. A nationwide survey was done by us, which included 495 surgeons managing gastric cancer in India, and using a 43-point questionnaire, revealed: the common age group was between 41 and 50 years, with a male preponderance of 70:30. In 47.17 percent of situations, patients experienced vomiting and 40.28 percent had dyspeptic symptoms such as indigestion and a loss of appetite. Those with vomiting had a relatively advanced stage of the disease when compared to those who had consulted a doctor and undergone early endoscopy. The next major contributing factor was the availability of resources for management of the condition. For a rural population, many will get the basic and limited level, a few, the enhanced level, and fewer still, the maximum level. The factors analyzed in deciding the level — the findings were published in Lancet — are endoscopy and its advances, ultrasound and its advances, CT scan, MRI, PET scan, laparoscopy, molecular targeting, endo-interventions, surgical interventions, availability of latest and targeted chemotherapeutic agents and structured follow-up. The States with the highest health standards are considered to be Tamil Nadu and Kerala but they provide care to only 9.1 percent of the Indian population, whereas States with the lowest health standards according to Indian public health standards are Assam, Bihar, and Jharkhand and are accountable for care to 13.1 percent of the population.
Another important factor is the availability of trained personnel and experts. Health-care resources are found to be unequal between rural and urban regions within each geographical region. Urban areas have a greater proportion of trained physicians (60 percent) than rural areas (40 percent). Tamil Nadu, for instance, has focussed efforts on rural recruitment and placement in trying to reach health care to rural areas.
The Union for International Cancer Control has undertaken an initiative for a three-year campaign against cancer, with the theme being “We Can — I Can”. This explores how everyone can play his/her part in reducing the global burden of cancer.
Major changes can be initiated at the individual level by observing a healthy lifestyle. As a society, we have to break socio-cultural barriers obstructing cancer care such as low regard for health care, social taboos, nihilistic approach to cancer diagnosis (that is, cancer fatalism), blind faith in traditional methods of healing, religious dynamics and superstitions.
1Q. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(A) Major changes can be initiated at the individual level by observing a healthy lifestyle. As a society, we have to break socio-cultural barriers obstructing cancer care. (B) Everyone can play his/her part in reducing the global burden of cancer. (C) Provide patient care that is compassionate, appropriate, and effective for the treatment of cancer and hematologic disease. (D) Be involved in process improvement and implement changes with the goal of practice improvement. (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Refer to the last paragraph of the passage. “Major changes can be initiated at the individual level by observing a healthy lifestyle. As a society, we have to break socio-cultural barriers obstructing cancer care....”. It suggests that the main objective of the author is to make people aware of cancer and to make them adopt a healthy lifestyle and help others to do so. (B), (C) and (D) are the steps that should be taken in order to achieve this objective. Hence, (A) is the correct option.
2Q. Which of the following can be the most suitable title of the passage?

(A) Life prolongation and relief of sufferings. (B) The primary treatment for cancer. (C) Stepping up the fight. (D) Cancer doesn’t completely go away. (E) Goals and objectives in the management of cancer.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: ‘Stepping up the fight’ is the most appropriate title. The entire passage discusses the various steps and measures that must be taken to curb Gastric cancer. It also envisages the required change in human approach towards the same and asks us to be more conscious about this disease and change our unhealthy lifestyle. Option (A) does not go with the sense of the passage. Option (B) and (D) cannot be the correct option as well since the passage is not about cancer but about a particular type of it. Hence (C) is the correct option.
3Q. Which of the following is the major contributing factor in delaying treatment of cancer?

(A) Myths about cancer. (B) Restoring to native treatment. (C) Socio-cultural barriers. (D) Ignoring warning symptoms. (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Refer to the fourth paragraph of the passage. It is given that “The major contributing factor for delayed presentation is “ignoring” warning symptoms.” Therefore, we can infer that it is the major contributing factor in delaying treatment of cancer. Although, options (A), (B) and (C) are also mentioned as the reasons for the delay in the treatment of cancer on the basis of above statement it can be concluded that these are the secondary reasons for the same. Hence, (D) is the correct option.
4Q. Which of the following statement is/are not true in the context of the passage? (I)There is male predominance in tumor registries. (II) Rural areas have a greater proportion of trained physicians. (III) One’s lifestyle is a major contributing factor for causing cancer.

(A) Only B (B) Both A and C (C) Only C (D) All A, B, and C (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: In the third paragraph, it is given that ‘...The common age at presentation is between 50 and 70, though it can occur even in people under 40, with there being a clear male predominance.....’. Hence, ‘A’ is true.
Refer to the third last paragraph of the passage. It is clearly given that “Urban areas have a greater proportion of trained physicians (60 percent) than rural areas (40 percent).” Hence ‘B’ is not true.
In the second paragraph, it’s clearly mentioned that ‘...There are many contributing factors, prime among them being one’s lifestyle......’ Hence, ‘C’ is also true. Hence, (A) is the correct option
5Q. What is the main goal of an initiative ‘We Can- I Can’ started by the Union for International Cancer Control?

(A) To Communicate effectively with patients, families, and the public, as appropriate, across a broad range of socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds. (B) To work effectively as a member or leader of a health care team or another professional group. (C) To participate in the education of patients, families, students, residents and other health professionals. (D) To achieve a cure, and when cure is not possible, good palliation (life prolongation and relief of sufferings) is warranted. (E) How everyone can play his/her part in reducing the global burden of cancer.

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: In the second last paragraph of the passage, it is clearly given that “This explores how everyone can play his/her part in reducing the global burden of cancer.” Hence, (E) is the correct option. No other option is related to the ‘We Can- I Can’ initiative.
Directions (6-8): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6Q. Predominance

(A) Trivial (B) Unimportant (C) Prevalence (D) Leadership (E) Inferior

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Predominance means the state or condition of being greater in number or amount. So, prevalence is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Trivial: Of little value or importance. Unimportant: Lacking in importance or significance. Prevalence: The fact or condition of being prevalent Leadership: The action of leading a group of people or an organization Inferior: Lower in rank, status, or quality.
7Q. Diagnosis

(A) Opinion (B) Classification (C) Explanation (D) Analogue (E) Examination

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Diagnosis means the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms. So, Examination is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Opinion: A view or judgment formed about something, not necessarily based on fact or knowledge. Classification: The action or process of classifying something. Explanation: A statement or account that makes something clear. Analogue: A person or thing seen as comparable to another. Examination: A detailed inspection or study.
8Q. Accountable

(A) Hampered (B) Immature (C) Untrustworthy (D) Responsible (E) Chargeable

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Accountable means required or expected to justify actions or decisions. So, responsible is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Hampered: Hinder or impede the movement or progress of something. Immature: Having or showing an emotional or intellectual development appropriate to someone younger. Untrustworthy: Not able to be relied on as honest or truthful. Responsible: Being the primary cause of something and so able to be blamed or credited for it. Chargeable: Answerable.
Directions (9 – 10): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
49. Superstitions

(A) Stubbornness (B) Obsessiveness (C) Reality (D) Illusion (E) Prediction

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Superstitions mean excessively credulous belief in and reverence for the supernatural. So, the reality is the word which is opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Stubbornness: Refusing to change one’s mind or course of action despite pressure to do so; Obsessiveness: Intolerance Reality: The state of things as they actually exist, Illusion: An instance of a wrong or misinterpreted perception of sensory experience. Prediction: a forecast
50. Explore

(A) Investigate (B) Neglect (C) Scout (D) Inspect (E) Traverse

Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: Explore means travel through (an unfamiliar area) in order to learn about it. So, neglect is the word which is opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Investigate: carry out a systematic or formal inquiry to discover and examine the facts of something Neglect: Not pay proper attention to; disregard. Scout: Make a search for someone or something in various places. Inspect: Look at (someone or something) closely, typically to assess their condition or to discover any shortcomings. Traverse: Travel across or through.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Insurance companies are widening their net and looking at India’s vast hinterland. Global insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area. One of the reasons for this is the huge gap in per capita spending on life insurance between developed and emerging markets. While developed markets spend $1,887 on life insurance, emerging markets spend only $46. It’s no surprise that many companies are targeting the rural population and tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of this segment. So villagers now have the option of ensuring their cow or television set for as low as Rs 20-40 a month. If a cow dies, the policyholder is likely to get as much as Rs 8,000. Though the premium amounts are very small, insurance companies see this as a way of entering a market that is sure to grow over the next few years. For long, LIC has had a market monopoly in India and still holds 90 percent of the life insurance sector. With foreign competition, the insurance sector is going through a churn. The entry of new players has meant that there is now intense competition to woo consumers. This is welcome since even by developing country standards, India is woefully under-insured. Without any sort of government safety net, a majority of India’s population has no cover for old age or unforeseen contingencies. This is where micro-insurance schemes can make a difference.
Such schemes are, however, not without their difficulties. Collecting premium and verifying claims can be time-consuming, especially in rural India. To get around this, insurance companies are using locals or self- help groups as agents to access rural markets. For death insurance claims, companies are willing to forgo the usual death certificates and accept signatures of a panchayat member or a village elder. Such innovative measures have ensured that several insurance companies at least have a presence in rural India. The challenge, however, is to move from micro-insurance to covering crops and health. For this to happen, it would help if people formed collectives and went in for group insurance. This would be particularly useful for farmers who cultivate the same crops on small plots of land. Health and crop insurance for small farmers would also have the additional benefit of eliminating the dreaded moneylender who benefits from the precarious condition of the rural poor.
1Q. What is attracting the insurance companies towards the villages in India?

(A) Rural areas generate more revenue than urban areas in India. (B) Indian villages offer immense potential for insurance firms which is still to be tapped. (C) Villages in India are more insurance-friendly than even the villages in the developed world. (D) Insurance companies see Indian villages as relatively risk-free areas. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The passage is silent about urban areas and urban population. Hence (a) and (c) are not the correct options. It is given in the first paragraph it is given that ‘One of the reasons for this is the huge gap in per capita spending on life insurance between developed and emerging markets. While developed markets spend $1,887 on life insurance, emerging markets spend only $46’ from which we can conclude that the insurance companies are attracted towards the villages because of its potential which is still to be tapped. The challenges described in last paragraph also suggest that option (d) is not correct. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
2Q. Many insurance companies are tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of rural people because

(A) they are a more stubborn and rigid lot. (B) these people are not found in a financially sound position throughout the year. (C) insurance companies are in fierce competition with each other to capture the rural segment. (D) the needs of the rural people are much different from those of the urban people. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Option (A) is an extreme judgment which cannot be passed on the basis of the passage. Hence, (A) is not the correct option. The usage of the word ‘precarious’ also suggests that option (B) is not correct. Option (C) can also not be inferred from the passage. Now, in the first paragraph, it is given that ‘many companies are tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of this segment’ after which the author has given examples of various things which a villager can insure. Hence (D) is the most appropriate option.
3Q. What would be the possible outcome if insurance firms launch policies with heavy premium amounts in village areas?

(A) Such policies would become of the dreaded moneylender only. (B) Such policies would become an instant hit with the rich and influential segment. (C) Such an initiative would fail to yield desired results on a large scale. (D) It would add to the woes of the economically weaker segment. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Option (A) and (D) are extreme judgments which cannot be inferred on the basis of the passage. Hence, they are not the correct option. The passage is silent about the effects of insurance policies with a high premium on the rich Hence, (B) is also not the correct option.
Now, In the first paragraph, the statement, ‘Though the premium amounts are very small, insurance companies see this as a way of entering a market that is sure to grow over the next few years...’ suggests that the aim to launch policies with low premium is to connect more and more people, from every sphere of the society, with the insurance sector. Hence, if insurance firms launch policies with heavy premium amounts in village areas, then such an initiative would fail to yield desired results on a large scale. Hence (C) is the correct option.
4Q. What does the emerging markets’ per capita spending on life insurance of $46 against developed markets’ $ 1,887 reflect?

(A) Insurance companies have little scope and opportunity in emerging markets. (B) There are few takers of insurance policies in emerging markets. (C) Insurance has not been a profitable area of business in emerging markets. (D) There is fierce competition in the insurance sector in emerging markets. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: It’s clearly mentioned in the passage that ‘. Global insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area ‘ after which, the author cites the given figures, from this we can infer that there is a scope of growth for insurance companies in the emerging markets. Hence (E) is the correct option.
5Q. Which of the following is ‘true’ in the context of the passage?

(A) There lies a vast potential for the insurance sector in countryside areas of India. (B) Urban India has more to offer than rural India in the area of insurance. (C) Global insurance firms eye India as a low-return market. (D) LIC has prevented the entry of other insurance companies in the Indian market. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: From the statement ‘Global insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area‘ given in the first paragraph, we can infer that rural India is seen as a growth area by major insurance firms. hence, option (A) is true. From the same statement, we can also rule out option (C). The author of the given passage has not discussed the potential of the urban areas. Hence, option (B) is also not correct. Option (B) can also not be inferred from the given passage. Hence, (A) is the correct option.
6Q. Which of the following is ‘false’ in the context of the passage?

(A) There is a scope of expansion in the area of insurance in our villages. (B) The insurance-related needs of rural folks are not similar to those of urban people. (C) In absence of suitable insurance policies, marginal farmers are exploited by moneylenders. (D) Any developed country cannot compete with India in terms of per capita expenditure over insurance policies. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The statement ‘Global insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area. One of the reasons for this is the huge gap in per capita spending on life insurance between developed and emerging markets’ suggests that the option (A) is true. It is given in the passage that the insurance companies are ‘tailoring’ their policies as per the needs of the rural people. From which we can conclude that the needs of rural people are different from those of urban people. Hence we can infer that option (B) is also true. The last line of the passage says that ‘Health and crop insurance for small farmers would also have the additional benefit of eliminating the dreaded moneylender who benefits from the precarious condition of the rural poor.’ Hence option (C) is also true. The statement, ‘While developed markets spend $1,887 on life insurance, emerging markets spend only $46.’ suggests that per capita expenditure of developed countries is already more than that of developing countries (including India). Hence, option d is false. Hence (D) is the correct option.
7Q. What makes insurance firms forgo the usual death certificates for death insurance claims in villages?

(A) Death certificates are generally not issued in rural areas. (B) People in villages usually do not seek death certificates from authorities. (C) Generally, rural people do not die in hospital from where death certificate is issued. (D) It is much easy to get a forged death certificate in our villages. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: IT’s given in the last paragraph of the passage that ‘companies are willing to forgo the usual death certificates and accept signatures of a panchayat member or a village elder. Such innovative measures have ensured that several insurance companies at least have a presence in rural India.’ from which we can conclude that the forego death certificates because they want a hassle-free entry in the rural areas to make their presence felt there. None of the given options explains the conclusion made here, hence (E) is the correct option.
Directions (8-9): Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
8Q. TAILORING

(A) pruning (B) adjusting (C) stretching (D) negotiating (E) unfolding

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: TAILORING means adapting requirements through deletion, modification, and/or supplementation. So, ‘adjusting’ is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the following options: Pruning: To cut away Adjusting: Alter or move (something) slightly in order to achieve the desired fit Stretching: Extend or spread over an area or period of time. Negotiating: Obtain or bring about by discussion. Unfolding: Gradually develop or be revealed.
9Q. MONOPOLY

(A) dominance (B) bargain (C) presence (D) hold (E) strategy

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: MONOPOLY means the exclusive possession or control of the supply of or trade in a commodity or service. So, dominance is the word which is similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the following options: Dominance: Power and influence over others Bargain: Negotiate the terms and conditions of a transaction Presence: The state or fact of existing Hold: Grasp, carry, or support with one’s arms or hands. Strategy: A plan of action designed to achieve a long-term or overall aim.
Directions (10): Choose the word which is the most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
10Q. PRECARIOUS

(A) secure (B) influential (C) competent (D) moral (E) basic

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: PRECARIOUS means are dangerously likely to fall or collapse. So, secure is the word which is opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the following options: Secure: Certain to remain safe and unthreatened Influential: Having great influence on someone or something Competent: Having the necessary ability, knowledge, or skill to do something successfully. Moral: Concerned with the principles of right and wrong behavior. Basic: Forming an essential foundation or starting point; fundamental

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Facing mounting criticism, the government at the Centre has decided to drop its Budget proposal to tax a portion of the EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund) corpus upon withdrawal. An ill-conceived move both context- and content-wise, it has deservedly been given a burial. “In view of the representations received, the government would like to do a comprehensive review of this proposal, and, therefore, withdraw the proposal in paragraph 138 and 139 of my Budget speech,’’ Finance Minister Arun Jaitley said in a statement in the Lok Sabha. The government has also withdrawn the proposal to limit tax-free contributions by the employer to the provident fund account of an employee to Rs.1.5 lakh a year. This did not gel with the Budget speech rationale for taxing EPF savings — to bring parity in tax treatment between the EPF and the National Pension System (or NPS, where employers can pay up to 10 percent of salary as contribution without any such cap). By putting the EPF back into an EEE tax regime (where contributions, income as well as the accumulated corpus are all exempt from tax), the government’s volte-face would help retain the EPF’s popularity among the salaried class, most of whom are part of it not out of choice but by statutory default. The Finance Minister had himself called them hostages to the EPF in his last Budget, but instead of setting them free, he thought it better to tax them citing fair taxation principles. It is still not clear whether the government had initially thought it could pull the taxation proposal past its middle-class constituency. In the event, the tax on EPF withdrawal gave additional ammunition to an aggressive opposition, including the Congress party. Differences within the National Democratic Alliance and the Cabinet finally ensured the climb-down by the Finance Ministry.
While announcing a return to status quo on the EPF, the Finance Minister has rightly retained the Budget provision allowing NPS subscribers to withdraw 40 percent of the corpus without any tax liability. The remainder 60 percent will attract a combination of withdrawal tax and deferred tax on the annuity products one buys. In a way, partial tax relief for the NPS will narrow the existing tax-induced gap between the EPF and the NPS. The strident opposition to EPF tax must be read in the context of the virtual absence of a social security net of any worth in India. There are no two views on the need to move towards a ‘pensioned society’. However, this cannot happen abruptly or in a coercive manner — people need to be nudged over time to gear up for such transitions. Whatever the intention, it was the ‘out-of-the-blue’ approach of the government that triggered an uproar. A sheepish rollback is a smart move, ahead of a round of Assembly elections. It is to be hoped that this U-turn will trigger a larger debate on ushering in a holistic social security ecosystem in the country.
1Q. Which of the following is/are true with respect to the expected result(s) of the government’s decision to drop the proposed tax on EPF? (i) Contribution, income as well as the accumulated corpus are all expected to be exempted from tax. (ii) A debate to steer for a comprehensive society. (iii) It’ll help to retain EPF’s popularity.

(A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) only (iii) (D) both (ii) and (iii) (E) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The statement ‘...government’s volte-face would help retain the EPF’s popularity among the salaried class...’ clearly supports the answer. Hence (C) is the correct answer.
2Q. Who are the hostages to EPF as per the Finance Minister?

(A) Tax Payers (B) Middle Class (C) Salaried Class (D) both (B) and (C) (E) None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: In the statement ‘...government’s volte-face would help retain the EPF’s popularity among the salaried class, most of whom are part of it not out of choice but by statutory default.....’ ‘whom’ has been used for salaried class and not for ‘Taxpayers’ or ‘Middle class’. Hence (C) is the correct answer
3Q. According to the author what kind of approach was it to impose a tax on EPF?

(A) Revolutionary (B) Avaricious (C) Trite (D) Unanticipated (E) Obligatory

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: According to author the decision was an ‘out-of-the-blue’ approach. which means an ‘Unanticipated’ approach. Hence (D) is the correct answer
4Q. According to the given passage why is it difficult to have a pensioned society?

(A) The opposition is not cooperative in her approach. (B) People are not yet ready for any radical transmutations. (C) People need more time to be financially stable to bear the cost of taxation. (D) Most of the people are part of EPFs not out of choice but by statutory default. (E) Political parties are more interested in their personal gains than public welfare.

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The sentence ‘...people need to be nudged over time to gear up for such transitions...’ clearly supports the answer. Hence (B) is the correct answer
5Q. What was/were the reason(s) the Finance Minister gave for levying a tax on EPFs? I. To make EPF more profitable than NPS II. To bring equality between EPF and NPS. III. To narrow the existing tax-induced gap between the EPF and the NPS.

(A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) only (iii) (D) both (ii) and (iii) (E) all (i),(ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: In the first paragraph, it is given that ‘......This did not gel with the Budget speech rationale for taxing EPF savings — to bring parity in tax treatment between the EPF and the National Pension System.....‘ supports the answer. NOTE: Although (iii) is another reason given in the passage. But, it was not given by the Finance Minister.
Direction (6-8): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
6Q. Volte-face

(A) Ratification (B) Fidelity (C) Maneuver (D) Tergiversation (E) Adherence

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: volte face: Turnabout Tergiversation: Withdrawal Ratification: Confirmation Maneuver: Series of moves requiring skill and care Hence, (D) is the correct answer.
7Q. Ammunition

(A) Bullets (B) Confetti (C) Arguments (D) Torpedo (E) Knockdown

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Ammunition means Arguments. Hence, (C) is the correct answer.Look at the meaning of the other options. Bullets: a metal projectile for firing from a rifle Confetti: small pieces of colored paper traditionally thrown over a bride and bridegroom by their wedding guests after the marriage the ceremony has taken place Torpedo: a cigar-shaped self-propelled underwater missile designed to be fired from a ship or submarine Knockdown: an act of knocking an opponent down
8Q. Status quo

(A) Cachet (B) Stature (C) validation (D) Standpoint (E) No change

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Status quo means No change. Hence, (E) is the correct answer. Look at the meaning of the other options Cachet: the state of being respected or admired Stature: importance or reputation gained by ability or achievement Validation: make or declare legally valid. Standpoint: an attitude to a particular issue.
Direction (9-10): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Strident

(A) Vociferous (B) Substantiate (C) Raucous (D) Mellifluous (E) Clamorous

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Strident: Characterized by vehement opinions.
Mellifluous: Agreeable Hence, (D) is the correct answer. Look at the meaning of the other options. Vociferous: expressing or characterized by vehement opinions. Substantiate: provide evidence to support or prove the truth of. Raucous: making or constituting a disturbingly harsh and loud noise. Clamorous: making a loud and confused noise.
10Q. Hostages

(A) Autarchic (B) Captive (C) Shackled (D) fettered (E) Unlimited

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Hostages: A person seized or held as security for the fulfillment of a condition.
Autarchic: Absolute sovereignty Hence, (A) is the correct answer. Look at the meaning of the other options. Captive: Imprisoned or confined. Shackled: restrained Fettered: confine or restrict Unlimited: not limited or restricted in terms of number, quantity, or extent.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The twelfth meeting of the energy dialogue between the European Union (EU) and the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) took place in Vienna, Austria today. The EU delegation was headed by Miguel Arias Cañete, Commissioner for Climate Action & Energy at the European Commission. The OPEC delegation was led by Abdalla Salem El-Badri, Acting Secretary General of OPEC.
Both parties emphasized that the Energy Dialogue has come a long way since its establishment in 2005 and is more important than ever in the current context of energy markets. Supported by various round tables, workshops, and studies, the Energy Dialogue has resulted in productive joint activities on a wide range of oil and energy-related issues and has brought significant benefits to both sides.
The parties noted that since the last Energy Dialogue meeting in June 2014, there has been a growing challenge in energy markets, particularly for oil. Oil prices have fallen by more than 70%, many investments have been deferred or canceled, manpower has been laid off, and the market has been searching for a supply-demand balance. Looking ahead, both the EU and OPEC noted with concern that the current price environment has considerably reduced investments. Such a massive fall in investment could in time lead to a supply shortfall and the risk of a sharp oil price rebound, as has been witnessed in the past.
Although producers and consumers might have different views on what is an adequate oil price level, there was broad agreement that excessive oil price volatility and/or sharp price rises would be harmful to the economies of both the producing and consuming countries. An affordable and stable oil price, alongside a balanced and stable market, is a prerequisite for economic growth for both producers and consumers. Both the EU and OPEC recognized that through the Energy Dialogue and through initiatives in other global fora and organizations, cooperation should be enhanced, as should understanding of the behavior of energy and oil markets, something which is important to helping achieve future oil market stability.
The adoption in December 2015 of the ‘Paris Agreement’ to combat climate change was welcomed by both sides. OPEC presented an assessment of short-term oil market prospects. It emphasized that lower crude oil prices mainly reflect the ongoing excess crude oil supply over global demand. The positive impacts of low oil prices on oil demand in major growth regions remain intact in both the OECD and non-OECD regions. Expected oil demand growth in 2016 is in line with the average seen over the last three years. On the supply side, lower oil prices have reversed the strong growth trend in non-OPEC supply into an expected contraction in 2016. It was noted, however, that over the previous three years, non-OPEC supply has increased significantly while on average there was no growth in OPEC crude supply.
OPEC also provided an overview of the long-term oil market outlook. It highlighted that energy demand will increase by almost 50% in the period up to 2040, with oil remaining the fuel with the largest share over the next 20 years. Oil demand reaches almost 110 mb/d by 2040, with developing countries accounting for most of the growth. On the supply side, total non-OPEC supply is expected to increase in the next decade but declines towards the end of the projection period. OPEC crude supply is anticipated to increase steadily which underscores once again the need for future investments in the industry. However, it was stressed that the Outlook is clouded with uncertainties stemming, in particular, from economic growth and non-OPEC supply prospects.
The EU side presented the latest developments in EU energy policies, focusing on the Communication on the State of the Energy Union of November 2015 and the ‘Security of Supply Package’ adopted by the Commission on 16 February 2016. The package includes initiatives to foster the EU energy security, notably two proposals for the revision of the Regulation on Security of Gas Supply and for a revision of the Decision on Intergovernmental Agreements as well as strategies for LNG & gas storage and for heating & cooling.
The main energy policy initiatives foreseen for 2016 were also presented. Emphasis was given to a package, to be adopted later this year, which will propose initiatives in the energy efficiency sector. Energy efficiency will be a key tool to achieve EU’s decarbonization objectives and for more sustainable use of energy. The EU expressed its willingness and availability to share its experience in the area of energy efficiency with the OPEC partners in the framework of the current energy dialogue or in other fora.
1Q. According to the passage, What do(es) lower crude oil prices indicate?

(A) Excess of crude oil supply over demand. (B) Growth in OPEC crude oil supply. (C) The rise in the investment (D) Increase in pollution level due to carbonization of the environment. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: It is given in the sixth paragraph that, ‘. It emphasized that lower crude oil prices mainly reflect the ongoing excess crude oil supply over global demand.’ which suggests that (A) is the correct option. Also, note that it is clearly given in paragraph 4 of the passage that there has been a massive fall in investments. Hence (C) is not true. Options (B) and (C) cannot be inferred on the bases of the given paragraph. Hence (A) is the current option.
2Q. According to the given passage which of the following fact(s) is/are true? (i) Energy demand is expected to increase within the next two decades. (ii) An increase in oil prices would be beneficial for oil-producing countries. (iii) Efficient energy will be a key to achieve the European Union’s decarbonization objectives.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (ii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) All of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: In the seventh paragraph, it’s given that ‘energy demand will increase by almost 50% in the period up to 2040’ from which we can infer that (i) is true.
It is also mentioned in the passage that ‘sharp price rises would be harmful to the economies of both the producing and consuming countries’. Hence, (ii) is not true.
In the last paragraph, it is specifically given that ‘Energy efficiency will be a key tool to achieve EU’s decarbonization objectives’ Hence (iii) is also true. Hence (D) is the correct option.
3Q. What has been the result of the Energy Dialogue between OPEC nations and EU?

(A) Productive joint activities on a wide range of oil and energy-related issues. (B) Prices of oils have come under control. (C) Cooperation between OPEC and the EU has been enhanced. (D) A global institution has been proposed to cater to the needs of both OPEC and the EU. (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: It is given in the second paragraph that ‘Energy Dialogue has resulted in productive joint activities on a wide range of oil and energy related issues’ Hence, we can conclude that option (A) is true.
Option (B), (C) and (D) are not given with respect to the result of the Energy Dialogue between OPEC nations and EU. Hence (A) is the correct option.
4Q. Which of the following has/have been the challenges in the oil market?

(A) Fall in oil prices (B) Canceled Investments (C) Laying off of manpower (D) The imbalance between supply and demand (E) All of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Each of the options given is clearly mentioned in the third paragraph. Hence, (E) is the correct option.
5Q. Which of the following fact(s) is/are NOT TRUE according to the given passage? (i) The Energy Dialogue was established in 2005. (ii) A hike in oil prices would be beneficial to petroleum-producing nations. (iii) Developing countries have a significant role in growth in oil demand.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) both (i) and (iii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) Both (ii) and (iii)

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: It is clearly given in the second paragraph that the Energy Dialogue was established in 2005. Hence (i) is true. It is also given in the passage that the hike in oil prices would be harmful to both oil producing as well as consuming nations. Hence (ii) is not true. Now, it is also given that ‘Oil demand reaches almost 110 Mb/d by 2040, with developing countries accounting for most of the growth..’ from which we can conclude that (iii) is also true. Hence, only (ii) is not true. Hence, (B) is the correct option.
6Q. According to the passage, how can cooperation between EU and OPEC be enhanced?

(A) By focusing on better communication between the EU and OPEC. (B) By supporting each other at global conferences. (C) Through the Energy Dialogue and through initiatives at global platforms. (D) Through encouraging intergovernmental agreements. (E) All of these.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: It is given in the passage that ‘Both the EU and OPEC recognised that through the Energy Dialogue and through initiatives in other global fora and organizations’ from this we can infer that (C) is the correct option. Note that other options are given to confuse the candidate, neither the intergovernmental agreements nor global conferences nor better communication has been describing as the way of enhancing cooperation between EU and OPEC.
Directions (7-8): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
7Q. deferred

(A) Preponed (B) Delayed (C) Advanced (D) Repudiated (E) Abjured

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Deferred means ‘ to put off (an action or event) to a later time’. Hence, delayed is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options: Preponed: Bring (something) forward to an earlier date or time. Delayed: Postpone or defer (an action). Advanced: New and not yet generally accepted. Repudiated: Refuse to accept Abjured: Reject
8Q. laid off

(A) Desist (B) Deployed (C) Employed (D) lie down (E) Give up

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: ‘Laid off means ‘to give up or stop doing something’. Hence, ‘desist’ is the word which is most similar in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Desist: Stop doing something Deployed: Bring into effective action. Employed: Give work to (someone) and pay them for it. Lie down: A short rest in which one lies down on a bed, sofa, etc. Give up: Cease making an effort; admit defeat.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Foster

(A) Cherish (B) Harbor (C) Dissuade (D) Supplement (E) Else

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: ‘Foster’ means to ‘encourage someone. Hence, ‘dissuade’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Cherish: Protect and care for Harbor: Give a home or shelter to. Dissuade: Persuade (someone) not to take a particular course of action. Supplement: A thing added to something else in order to complete or enhance it. Else: In addition; besides.
10Q. Anticipated

(A) Foreseen (B) Inconceivable (C) Inapt (D) Dissimilar (E) Credible

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: ‘Anticipated’ means to ‘regard something as probable’. Hence ‘Inconceivable’ is the word which is most opposite in meaning to it. Look at the meaning of the given options Foreseen: Be aware of beforehand; predict. Inconceivable: Not capable of being imagined or grasped mentally Inapt: Not suitable or appropriate in the circumstances. Verisimilar: Not the same Credible: Able to be believed

Directions (1-10):Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The first time Sarah “Sally” Thomason and I spoke, she’d just completed her annual two-day, eighteen-hundred-mile drive from her home in Ann Arbor, Michigan, where she teaches, to rural northwestern Montana, where she spends her summers studying Montana Salish. For thirty-four years, Thomason has been assembling a dictionary of this Native American language, which is spoken fluently by fewer than forty people. Thomason, a linguist, is fascinated by what happens when one language meets another, and how those languages change or don’t. I had contacted her because I was interested in how certain words—say, e-mail, or Google, or tweet— had been exported worldwide by American-born technology. I’d already called several linguists, and they all said I had to speak to Sally. No one they said, had more insight into how linguistic traits travel, how pidgins and creoles are born, and how languages interact and change over time.
The French government tried very hard to resist American loanwords like e-mail, promoting in its place messagerie électronique or courriel. They’d formed a whole agency for this purpose. Laws were passed and enforced. And yet e-mail prevailed—it was simply more efficient. But Sally was especially excited about languages that resist such borrowing, even in the face of extraordinary cultural influence and dominance. Montana Salish was one such language. Our conversations followed a pattern: I arrived expecting one thing and ended up somewhere entirely distinct, thinking differently about language and human culture.
Is it fair to say that you study what happens when languages meet? Is meet too friendly a word? I suppose there’s a whole range of things that happen, and sometimes it’s friendly and sometimes it’s not. Right, but having a language disappear because all the speakers got massacred is actually really rare. There are a couple of examples where all the speakers of some language got wiped out by a volcanic eruption on an island. And there are a couple of examples, at least one in this country, where almost everybody was wiped out by smallpox and then the remainder was lynched by a mob.
Let’s see, Susquehannock is the language that died when all the speakers got lynched by a mob. It was an Iroquoian language. First, they got devastated by smallpox. And there are cases where languages were almost killed, or at least there was an effort to kill them, out of genocide. You know, as a side effect of genocide in El Salvador, when they had all those wars some years back, the government decided that Indians were dangerous and they should kill them all. And so they actually killed an awful lot of Indians, but I think maybe only one or two languages completely disappeared. The most famous story is in the Bible—the people at the bridge saying shibboleth. And that was a case where they were both speaking dialects of Hebrew, I guess it was, and if you couldn’t say shibboleth because you didn’t have the shh sound, they’d kill you. But that wouldn’t have killed the whole language either, because the people who were trying to cross that bridge were all warriors, all men, and there would have been women and children who weren’t in the battle, I assume. We’re living in an era when jargon, especially from the tech world, tends to bleed into the culture at large. Is that something you pay attention to? Yeah, and that’s obviously important for social history, too, right? Things that get to be mainstream used to be very specific to a particular subculture. One aspect of that is what happens to slang. Every generation of teenagers will invent their own words because the whole point of teenage slang is to have an in-group vocabulary that outsiders, like old people, can’t understand very well. And a lot of those words are ephemeral. The next generation comes along, gets their own words, the old words disappear. But some of them don’t, some of them hang on—and predicting which ones will hang on is a mug’s game.
But looking at the ones that did hang on is interesting because it tells you the entire process by which they turned out to be useful. Mob—the word mob used to be a slang word. It’s a reduced form of a Latin word, mobile. But now it’s a really useful word. It’s interesting to see which words turn out to be useful. There must have been a time when a computer mouse was confined to a very small subculture.
1Q. According to the given passage, why is it interesting to look at the words that that hang on?

(A) Because it tells us how a slang becomes useful. (B) Because slangs are interesting. (C) Because Latin words have interesting usage. (D) Because it tells us how technical words cross geographic boundaries. (E) None of these.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: It is given in the last paragraph that ‘looking at the ones (words) that did hang on is interesting because it tells you that they turned out to be useful’. Hence, (A) is the correct option.
2Q. According to the author, why is it difficult to have a language disappeared? Choose the most appropriate option.

(A) Because natural disasters are not potent enough to disappear the speakers of a language, (B) Because ladies and children do not participate in wars (C) Because it is not usual to annihilate all the speakers of a language. (D) Because the governments are committed to safeguarding the interests of its citizens. (E) Because genocides do not ensure entire removal of all the speakers of a language.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: It is given in the third paragraph of the passage that ‘having a language disappear because all the speakers got massacred is actually really rare’. Even though (A) and (B) can also be the correct option, but (C) covers both of them. Hence, from this, we can conclude that (C) is the most appropriate option.
3Q. What does the phrase ‘HANG ON’ mean? Give answer in the context of the passage.

(A) Hold tightly (B) Retain (C) To be in a difficult situation (D) Listen closely to (E) Be contingent or dependent on

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: In the context of the given passage, the most appropriate meaning of the phrase ‘Hang on’ is ‘Retain’. Hence, (B) is the correct option.
4Q. What was the reason that even after so much of restrictions the word e-mail prevailed?

(A) Because people of France were hostile towards their government. (B) Because other words messagerie électronique or courriel weren’t speaker friendly. (C) Because the agencies formed were not efficient enough. (D) Because it was more efficient to use. (E) Because the laws, which were passed, were not enforced properly.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: It is given in the second paragraph that ‘And yet e-mail prevailed— (because) it was simply more efficient.’ Hence, we can easily conclude that (D) is the correct option.
5Q. According to the given passage, what is a reason for a language to disappear? Give answer in the context of the passage.

(A) Natural Disaster (B) War (C) Lynching (D) Epidemic (E) All of these.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Read closely the fourth paragraph of the given passage, it is given that, ‘..... all the speakers of some language got wiped out by a volcanic eruption on an island. And there are a couple of examples, at least one in this country, where almost everybody was wiped out by smallpox and then the remainder was lynched by a mob.’. This shows that volcanic eruption (natural disaster) alone was the reason for wiping out of the speakers of some language. Whereas, lynching and smallpox (epidemic) worked together to get the speakers of a language wiped completely. Since ‘war’ has not been mentioned here, hence (E) can also not be the correct option. Hence, (A) is the most appropriate answer.
6Q. According to the given passage, what was the profession of Sarah “Sally” Thomson?

(A) She is a lexicographer (B) She is a linguist (C) She is a polyglot (D) She is a teacher (E) None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: It is given in the first paragraph of the passage that ‘......from her home in Ann Arbor, Michigan, where she teaches.....’. Option (b) has been given to confuse the candidates. Please note that in the given passage present indefinite tense has been used with ‘teach’ which means that ‘she’ teaches on a regular basis and we can easily conclude that teaching is her profession. But no such clue has been given for ‘linguist’ being her profession. Hence, we can conclude that (d) is the most appropriate option.
Directions (7-8): Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as time word given in bold as given in the passage.
7Q. Pidgins

(A) Boilerplate (B) Standard (C) Pilgrims (D) Different (E) Tok Pisin

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: ‘Pidgins’ means ‘a grammatically simplified form of a language’ . Hence, ‘Tok Pisin’ is the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to it. Boilerplate: Rolled steel plates for making boilers Standard: Used or accepted as normal Pilgrims: A person who journeys to a sacred place for religious reasons. Different: Distinct; separate
8Q. Jargon

(A) Laconism (B) Noiseless (C) Argot (D) Reticence (E) Taciturn

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: ‘Jargon’ means ‘special words or expressions used by a profession or group that are difficult for others to understand.’ Hence, ‘Argot’ is the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to it. Laconism: Using very few words. Noiseless: Silent or very quiet. Taciturn: Saying little Reticence: The quality of being reticent; reserve.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word/ group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as given in the passage.
9Q. Ephemeral

(A) Enduring (B) Fleeting (C) Fugacious (D) Unenduring (E) Episodic

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: ‘Ephemeral’ means ‘lasting for a very short time.’ . Hence, ‘Enduring’ is the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to it. Fleeting: Lasting for a very short time. Fugacious: Tending to disappear Episodic: Containing or consisting of a series of separate parts or events.
10Q. Mainstream

(A) Common (B) Eccentric (C) Normal (D) Common (E) Dominant

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: ‘Mainstream’ means ‘normal or conventional’ . Hence, ‘Eccentric’ is the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to it. Common: Occurring, found, or done often; prevalent. Normal: Conforming to a standard Common: A piece of open land for public use Dominant: Having power and influence over others.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Over the last three centuries the world economy has evolved from a predominantly agriculture-based system to a digital economic system. The earlier economies were mainly agrarian. In this era, capital did play a role as did technological innovations such as the plough, the steamboat or the train. But land and labor were more critical.
With the service economy, the wealth created by services exceeded the wealth created through manufacturing. Here the ability of the service provider to establish a sound business gave him access to additional capital. This evolved into a global economy where goods and services were traded across international borders with little restriction. In this period, capital started flowing across borders on a large scale for the first time.
The last five years have seen the advent of the digital economy where technology is becoming the driving force. With information being the driver of value and wealth creation, information technology is becoming the key to success in a growing number of industries. In the digital economy, the power of innovation and ideas have gained the upper hand over direct access to capital.
The Indian economy is in a unique position in terms of its economic evolution. While the manufacturing and service industries in India cannot freely access capital, the new breed of IT-based industries has access to venture capital and private equity. The country’s potential in this emerging sector has opened the doors to capital inflows that are still not available to traditional industries.
There are two key trends which will boost the democratization of capital, either directly as funding sources or indirectly.
More effective capital market routes especially for information based and software companies.
This is already happening rapidly. A market that was supposed to be stagnating with no public offering from the manufacturing sector in the first quarter of the fiscal year, may see as many as 20-25 new software issues this year. Numerous Internet and e-commerce companies are tapping funds through the capital market. For the financial intermediaries as well as for the investing public, dot com or ‘info’ initial public offerings are fast becoming attractive investment alternatives to traditional manufacturing or financial sector offers.
With more effective capital markets, for high potential IT stocks, ‘critical mass’, which in the industrial economy was primary in ensuring a company’s ability to raise capital, will cease to matter. This underlines the manner in which a burgeoning digital economy has led to a redeployment of capital from a concentrated segment to the smaller knowledge entrepreneur.
A greater number of venture capitalists are actively seeking to fund budding knowledge entrepreneurs. Along with the rise in Net entrepreneurs, one has seen the emergence of a new breed of venture capitalists who recognize the potential that resides in these ideas. The emergence and strengthening of the virtual economy necessitate sources of funds at the ‘ideation’ stage where business plans may still be at the infancy stage and potential not clearly identified.
This need is being fulfilled by the incubator funds or the angel investors who hand-hold Internet start-ups and other Info Tech ventures till the stage at which they can attract bigger investors. Instead of looking at high risk but big ventures, this genre of venture capitalists are looking at investments in companies which have the potential of excellent valuations in the future on the strength of their ideas.
1Q. Which of the following has been rated as most crucial in agro based economy? (i) Land (ii) Labour (iii) Capital

(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (iii) (C) Only (ii) (D) Only (i) (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Land and Labour
2Q. How did the service economy evolve into a global economy?

(A) The wealth gained through service exceeded the gain through manufacture. (B) The services started flowing across borders. (C) The labor started producing goods for the mass market. (D) The trade for services and goods crossed the international borders. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The wealth gained through service exceeded the gain through manufacture.
3Q. Which of the following best describes the phrase “critical mass” as used in the passage?

(A) Paradigm shift from fund base to knowledge base (B) The net worth of a small knowledge entrepreneur (C) The ability of an organization to raise funds (D) The sum total capital of the industrial economy (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The ability of an organization to raise funds.
4Q. The public offer of which type of companies are preferred by the investors at present?

(A) Service sector companies (B) Agro-based companies (C) Information based companies (D) Companies dealing with the financial sector (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Information based companies.
5Q. What impact on the economy has been envisaged owing to rise in the net enterprise?

(A) The venture capitalists have started financing the projects even at the planning stage. (B) Economic planning will no more be realistic now. (C) The funding of unplanned projects has increased. (D) Virtual economy has necessitated the source of funds from abroad. (E) None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The venture capitalists have started financing the projects even at the planning stage.
6Q. Which trend can boost capital growth in the modern era?

(A) Conversion of land and labour to private equity (B) Converting manufacturing industries into the service sector (C) Generating resources through international trade (D) Promoting information based and software companies (E) None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Promoting information based and software companies.
Directions (7-8): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7Q. Advent

(A) shining (B) departure (C) power (D) force (E) arrival

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Advent means the arrival of a notable person or thing. So, arrival is the word which is similar in meaning to it.
8Q. Traditional

(A) religious (B) excessive (C) old (D) customary (E) sick

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Traditional means existing in or as part of a tradition. So, customary is the word which is similar in meaning to it.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9Q. Burgeoning

(A) growing (B) retarding (C) dipping (D) unique (E) common

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Burgeoning means begin to grow or increase rapidly; flourish. So, retarding is the word which is opposite in meaning to it.
10Q. Stagnating

(A) developing (B) redundant (C) overworking (D) fixed (E) stationary

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Stagnating means cease developing; become inactive or dull. So, developing is the word which is opposite in meaning to it.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Two principles are involved in the controversy about the presence of foreign controlled media in the country; the free ûow ideas and images across national borders and the need to safeguard the national interest and preserve cultural autonomy are valid but both are at loggerheads because each has been used to promote less lofty goals. The ûrst principle conforms to a moral imperative: freedom of expression cannot rhyme with restrictions imposed by any government. But the ûow rhetoric also clouds the fact that the powerful Western and especially American media, can and often do present, or brazenly, news in a manner that promotes Western political, ideological and strategic interests. Besides, Western entertainment programmes present lifestyles and values that run counter to the lifestyles and values cherished by traditional. All this explains why so many Indian newspapers, magazines and news agencies have sought protection from the courts prevent foreign publications and news agencies from operating in the country. Their arguments are weak on two counts. As the bitter debate on a new world information and communication order demonstrated in the late seventies and early eighties, many of those who resent Western ‘invasion’ in the ûelds of information and culture are no great friends of democracy. Secondly, the threat of such an ‘invasion’ has been aired by those media groups in the developing countries that fear that their business interests will be harmed if Western groups, equipped with large financial and technological resources and superior management skills, are allowed to operate in the country without let.
The fear is valid but it goes against the grain of the economic reform programme. The presence of foreign newspapers and television channels will increase competition, which, in the course of time, can only lead to the upgradation of dynamic Indian newspapers and television channels, even while they drive the rest out of the market. One way to strike a balance between the two antagonistic principles would be to allow foreign media entry into the country, provided the Indian state treats them at par with the domestic media on all fronts. On the import of technology, for instance, foreign media cannot be allowed duty concessions denied to their Indian counterparts. Foreign media will also have to face legal consequence should they run afoul of Indian laws. Why, for example, should the BBC, or Time magazine or The Economist get away by showing a map of Kashmir, which is at variance with the official Indian map? Why should they go scot-free when they allow secessionists and terrorists to air their views without giving the government the right to reply, or when they depict sexually explicit scenes, which would otherwise not be cleared by the Censor Board? Since the government can do precious little in the matter, especially about satellite broadcasts, what if it should consider attaching the properties of the offending parties? Demands of this kind are bound to be voiced unless New Delhi makes it clear to the foreign media that they will have to respect Indian susceptibilities, especially where it concerns the country’s integrity and its culture. It may be able to derive some inspiration from France’s successful attempts in the recent GATT to protect its cinematography industry.
1Q. Which of the following is one of the points weakening the argument to prevent the entry of foreign media?

(A) Such entry would be against traditional culture (B) The threat being voiced by those whose business will be harmed by such an entry (C) The arguments being put forth are at loggerheads (D) The foreign media may not be treated on par with the domestic media (E) None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The threat being voiced by those whose business will be harmed by such an entry
2Q. What will be the impact of increasing competition?

(A) The domestic media will not be able to withstand it (B) The foreign media will not be allowed duty concessions on import of technology (C) It will improve Indian newspapers and television (D) The Indian newspapers and news agencies will seek protection from the court (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: It will improve Indian newspapers and television
3Q. Which of the following has been cited as having succeeded in protecting country?

(A) GATT (B) News Agencies (C) Television (D) Cultural traditions (E) None of these

Answer: Option (E)
4Q. Which of the following has been the major recommendation regarding the entry of foreign media?

(A) It should not be allowed (B) It should be welcomed without putting any restrictions (C) Allow entry, treating them on par with domestic media (D) Allow entry, provided they do not ask for duty concessions on import of technology (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Allow entry, treating them on par with domestic media
5Q. Which of the following is the meaning of the phrase “without let”, as used in the passage?

(A) with no difûculty (B) without conûnement (C) with strings (D) without restrictions (E) conducive environment

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: without restrictions
6Q. Which of the following is the meaning of the phrase “at loggerheads”, as used in the passage’?

(A) in league with (B) unimportant (C) out of place (D) unsuited to each other (E) opposite to each other

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: opposite to each other
Directions (7-8): Choose the word that is most closely the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals taken as from the passage
7Q. COUNTER

(A) similar (B) downwards (C) unresponsive (D) upwards (E) imitate

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: similar
8Q. ANTAGONISTIC

(A) counteract (B) coincidental (C) equal (D) corresponding (E) dependent

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Antagonistic means showing or feeling active opposition or hostility towards someone or something.
Directions (9-10): Choose the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals taken from the passage
9Q. SUSCEPTIBILITIES

(A) norms (B) weaknesses (C) influences (D) persuasions (E) sensitivities

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Susceptibility means the state or fact of being likely or liable to be influenced or harmed by a particular thing.
10Q. RHETORIC

(A) rhyming words (B) persuasive speaking (C) dull monologue (D) tongue-in-cheek (E) double talk

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Rhetoric means the art of effective or persuasive speaking or writing, especially the exploitation of figures of speech and other compositional techniques.