SSC Stenographer - SPLessons

SSC Stenographer CBE Practice Test

Home > > Tutorial
SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

SSC Stenographer CBE Practice Test

shape Introduction

Computer Based Examination is important to qualify for the Skill Test. SSC Stenographer CBE Practice & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

Date of Exam Part Subject No. of Questions Maximum Marks Total Duration
1-2-2019 to 6-2-2019 I General Intelligence & Reasoning 50 50 2 Hours (2 hours and 40 minutes for the candidates who are allowed use of scribe)
II General Awareness 50 50
III English Language and Comprehension 100 100

shape Syllabus

[Click Here] - SSC Stenographer Exam Syllabus

shape Samples

1. Merchant' is related to 'Trade' in the same way as 'Doctor' is related to:
    A. Medicine B. Prescription C. Healing D. Examination

Answer : Option D
Explanation : A doctor “examines” a patient, whereas a merchant “trades” goods.
2. 'Fish’ is related to 'Pisciculture' in the same way as 'Bees' is related to:
    A. Horticulture B. Apiculture C. Sericulture D. Viticulture

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Fish farming is called Pisciculture, Bee Farming is called Apiculture.
3. Out of the four options given below, three are of a kind while one does not belong to the group. Choose the one which is unlike the others.
    A. Circle : arc B. TV : Screen C. Book : Cover D. Laptop : Charger

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Second one is the part of the first one, except laptop: charger.
4.In a certain code, WORKABLE is written as VOYZPILD, how will BLUNDERS be written in same code?
    A. CMVOEST B. TSEOVMC C. YOFMWVIH D. HIVWMFOY

Answer : Option D
5. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series? 114 11510713470?
    A. 140 B. 35 C. 195 D. 150

Answer : Option C
6. D, the son-in-law of B, is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A related to B?
    A. Brother B. Son C. Father D. None of these

Answer : Option D
Explanation : D is the brother-in-law of A, who is brother of C. C is wife of D. D is the son-in-law of B. B Can either father or mother of A.
7. There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sitting in a line facing west. E is to the immediate right of G. B is at one of the extreme ends and has E as his neighbour. G is between E and F. C is sitting second from the south end. Who is sitting at the southern end?
    A. A B. B C. C D. E

Answer : Option A
Explanation : The arrangement is A C D F G E B.
8. A man starts walking towards Northeast diagonally from the left corner of a square plot and turns right after reaching the center of the plot. After some distance he again turns right and continues walking. Which direction is he facing now?
    A. East B. West C. North D. South

Answer : Option C
9. Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between U and W?
    A. W B. T C. S D. None of these

Answer : Option D
Explanation : There are 15 letters between U and W in the given series. So, the middle letter is the eighth letter to the right of U, which is Y. Clearly, the tenth letter to the right of Y is C.
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
    A. YIB B. VXM C. SCR D. LNI

Answer : Option B
Explanation : In all other alternatives except (b), the second letter is two steps behind the first letter, while the third letter is four steps ahead of the second letter, in the given arrangement.
11. Amit is cleverer than Rohan. Sudeep is cleverer than Amit, but not more than Harshit. Garima is the cleverest of them all. If they are arranged in ascending order of cleverness, then who among the following will hold the middle position?
    A. Amit B. Rohan C. Sudeep D. Harshit

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Cleverness in ascending order: Rohan <Amit<Sudeep<Harshit<Garima.
12. If P means 'add to', V means 'multiply by', M means 'subtract from' and L means 'divide by' then 30 L 2 P 3 V 6 M 5 = ?
    A. 28 B. 28 C. 31 D. 103

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Using Correct Symbols, We have: Given expression = 30 / 2 + 3 x 6 - 5 = 15 + 18 - 5 = 28
13. In a certain coded language BAT is coded as 2012, BALL is coded as 121212. What will be the coded of BOWLER?
    A. 1851223152 B. 1815221352 C. 95323152 D. 185223152

Answer : Option A
Explanation : The position of each alphabet in the word is written but in the reverse order. Like the position of alphabets in the word BOWLER is 2, 15, 23, 12, 5, 18. So, the code is 1851223152.
14. Who form the following is a reporter?
    A. O B. L C. N D. R

Answer : Option A
15. What is the position of S regarding R?
    A. Third to the right B. Second to the right C. Third to the left D. Second to the left

Answer : Option A
16. 729: 3:: 64: __? __
    A. -686 B. 686 C. 1 D. 2

Answer : Option B
17. Iron: anaemia::Sleep: __? __
    A. Somnambulism B. Dreams C. Insomnia D. Nightmare

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Iron deprivation is Anaemia and the condition in which there is sleep deprivation is Insomnia.
18. 64 128 92 220 148 404 ?
    A. 332 B. 296 C. 276 D. 260

Answer : Option D
Explanation : 64 128 92 220 148 404 ? See the bold part. It makes a series as follows: 64 92 148 ? +28 +56 +112 Hence,? Will be replaced by 260.
19. 5 6 16 57 ? 1245 7506
    A. 6 B. 16 C. 57 D. 248

Answer : Option D
20. If OUGHT is coded as ABCDE in a certain language. How can TOUGH be coded in the same language?
    A. ABCDE B. BCDEA C. CDEAB D. EABCD

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Here, the code for O = A, U = B, G = C, H = D and T = E. Then, the code for TOUGH is EABCD.
21. If BITER is coded as KLMNO in a certain language. How can TRIBE be coded in the same language?
    A. MOLNK B. MOLKN C. MOKLN D. MOKNL

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Here, the code for B = K, I = L, T = M, E = N and R = O. Then, the code for TRIBE is MOLKN.
22. Pointing to a man in the Photograph Kabir said, ‘His son’s mother is the only daughter in law of my mother’. Who is the person in photograph to Kabir?
    A. Brother B. Uncle C. Father D. None of these

Answer : Option D
Explanation : The person is Kabir himself.
23. Rahul and Govind start a race, and together they run for 50m. Rahul turns right and runs 60m. While Govind turns left and runs 40m. Then Rahul turns left and runs 50m. While Govind turns right and runs 50m. How far are both now from the each other?
    A. 60m B. 100m C. 20m D. 150m

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Rahul and Govind will finish on a straight line and the distance between them will be = 40 + 60 = 100m.
24. How many such letters are there in the word “ACCELERATION” each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as it is from the beginning of the English Alphabet?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Clearly, C is the third letter in the word “ACCELERATION” as well as in the English Alphabet. Therefore, there is only one such letter.
25. Study the following number sequence and answer the questions given below it. 5 9 6 3 7 1 2 5 3 8 4 7 9 5 2 4 7 2 5 8 8 6 7 6 1 4 How many odd numbers are there in the sequence each of which is immediately followed by to an odd number?
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. More than 4

Answer : Option D
26. If the first and last digits of each number are interchanged what would be the second largest number?
    A. 756 B. 857 C. 985 D. 874

Answer : Option B
Explanation : The required sequence would be: 345 985 756 857 237 586
27. Which number in the sequence has the highest sum of its digits?
    A. 758 B. 732 C. 685 D. 589

Answer : Option D
Explanation :
28. Statement: Some leaders are as corrupts as Mahesh. Conclusion:
    A. Mahesh is corrupt. B. Most of the leaders are corrupt. C. Mahesh is not corrupt. D. Leaders are not corrupt.

Answer : Option A
Explanation : The statement clearly tells Mahesh is corrupt but nothing can be said about the leaders.
29. In a certain code, ABET is written as 3-5-11-41, how will CUBE be written in same code?
    A. 3-41-5-11 B. 9-35-5-11 C. 1-17-5-11 D. 7-43-5-11

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Coding pattern is (2n + 1) where n = position of alphabet in alphabetic order.
30. Pituitary : Brain : : Thymus : ?
    A. Larynx B. Spinal Cord C. Throat D. Chest

Answer Option D
31.A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
    A. LMNO B. MNO C. MNOP D. NOPQ

Answer - Option C
32. Blunt : Sharp : : Sow : ?
    A. Water B. Crow C. Farm D. Reap

Answer : Option C
33. 42 40 38 35 33 31 28
    A. 25 22 B. 26 23 C. 25 23 D. 26 22

Answer : Option C
34. RQP, ONM, LKJ, _____, FED
    A. IHG B. CAB C. JKL D. GHI

Answer : Option A
Explanation : This sequence consists of letters in the reverse alphabetical order
35. Team A has scored more goals than Team B Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
    A. True B. false C. Uncertain D. None of these

Answer : Option B
Explanation : From the first two statements, we know that of the three teams, Team A has the scored the highest number of goals, so the third statement is necessarily false.
36. CDC, EFE, GHG, IJI
    A. KLK B. HJH C. IJI D. JHJ

Answer : Option A
Explanation : This sequence consists of a simple alphabetical order with the first 2 letters of all segments: C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L. The third letter of each segment is a repetition of the 1st letter.
37. Find the next number in the sequence: 3, 6, 9, 30, 117......
    A. 192 B. 352 C. 388 D. 588

Answer : Option D
Explanation : 3 * 1 + 3 = 6 6 * 2 – 3 = 9 9 * 3 + 3 = 30 30 * 4 – 3 = 117 117 * 5 + 3 = 588
38. Raju weighs less than Farhan. Raju weighs more than Bunty. Of the three friends, Bunty weighs the least. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
    A. True B. false C. uncertain D. None of these

Answer : Option A
Explanation : According to the first two statements, Farhan weighs the most and Bunty weighs the least.
39. Find the next number in the sequence: 26, 63, 124, 215, 342.....
    A. 416 B. 511 C. 686 D. 559

Answer : Option B
Explanation : All the numbers in the sequence are 1 less than the cubes of 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. Therefore, 511 is the answer.
40. John has more coins than Sonu. Sonu has fewer coins than Danish. Danish has more coins than John. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
    A. True B. false C. uncertain D. None of these

Answer : Option B
Explanation : If the first two sentences are true, both John and Danish have more coins than Sonu. However, it is uncertain as to whether Danish has more coins than John.
41. As per the position mentioned above; four of the following pairs are alike & so they form their group. Which one does not belong to this group?
    A. Teacher-Painter B. Supervisor – Shopkeeper C. Doctor – Accountant D. Shopkeeper – Doctor

Answer : Option D
42. Which of the following statement is false regarding the above-mentioned arrangement?
    A. N is at the immediate right of supervisor. B. Cricketer is third to the right of shopkeeper. C. Doctor is sitting exactly between supervisor & accountant D. L is neither a teacher nor a supervisor.

Answer : Option C
43. Radio : Listener : : Film : ?
    A. Producer B. Actor C. Viewer D. Director

Answer : Option C
44. ATTRIBUTION, TTRIBUTIO, RIBUTIO, IBUTI, ?
    A. IBU B. UT C. UTI D. BUT

Answer : Option C
45. Foresight : Anticipation : : Insomnia : ?
    A. Treatment B. Disease C. Sleeplessness D. Unrest

Answer : Option C
46. KUZ, MOX, OIV, QET....?
    A. SUR B. SDR C. SMR D. SAR

Answer : Option D
47. Virology : Virus : : Semantics : ?
    A. Amoeba B. Language C. Nature D. Society

Answer : Option B
48. SHG, RIF, QJE, PKD, ?
    A. OLE B. OLC C. NMC D. NLB

Answer : Option B
49. Novelty : Oldness : : Newness : ?
    A. Culture B. Discovery C. Model D. Antiquity

Answer : Option D
50. Pituitary : Brain : : Thymus : ?
    A. Larynx B. Spinal Cord C. Throat D. Chest

Answer : Option D
1. In which city was 102nd Indian Science Congress held in 2015?
    A. Mumbai B. Kolkata C. Gandhinagar D. New Delhi

Answer : Option D
2. In which city was 18th SAARC summit held in 2014?
    A. Islamabad B. Kathmandu C. New Delhi D. Dhaka

Answer : Option A
3. In which country was 6th BRICS Summit held in 2014?
    A. Russia B. South Africa C. India D. Brazil

Answer : Option C
4. In which city was UN Climate Change Summit held in 2014?
    A. Paris B. Brisbane C. New York D. Sydney

Answer : Option D
5. In which city was 9th G-20 Summit held in 2014?
    A. Seoul B. London C. Saint Petersburg D. Brisbane

Answer : Option D
6. In which city was 25th ASEAN Summit held in 2014?
    A. Nay Pyi Daw B. Singapore C. Bail D. Kulala Lumpur

Answer : Option D
7. The 6th IBSA Summit was held in 2013 at ______.
    A. Brasilia B. New Delhi C. Pretoria D. Cape Town

Answer : Option D
8. The member countries of IBSA Dialogue Forum are_____.
    A. India, Brazil and South Africa B. India, Britain and Spain C. Israel, Brazil and Sweden D. India, Bangladesh and South Africa

Answer : Option A
9. The member countries of BRICS are ______.
    A. Britain, Russia, Ireland, Canada and Sweden B. Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and South Africa C. Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa D. Britain, Russia, India, Canada and Spain

Answer : Option C
10. Following 2014 Crimean crisis, the G-8 Group became G-7 Group by expelling _______.
    A. Russia B. Germany C. France D. Canada

Answer : Option B
11. Which among the following river originated in India?
    A. Ganga B. Sutlej C. Chenab D. Brahmaputra

Answer : Option C
12. Sentinelese tribe is found in which of the following States/ territories?
    A. Dadra and Nagar Haveli B. Goa C. West Bengal D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer : Option D
13. How many times a person can attempt for re-election as the President of India?
    A. Only thrice B. Only once C. Only twice D. Any number of times

Answer : Option D
14. In which generation, the development of GUIs, mouse and handheld devices were took place?
    A. Second Generation B. First Generation C. Third Generation D. Fourth Generation

Answer : Option D
15. The governor of a state is appointed by the President on the advice of _________.
    A. Prime Minister B. Chief Minister of the state C. Speaker of the state D. Chief Justice of High Court of the state

Answer : Option A
16. Which among the following is NOT a factor of Production?
    A. Bank credit B. Labour C. Land D. Capital

Answer : Option A
17. Which of the following does not involve in the study of microeconomics?
    A. Households B. Industries C. Individual consumers D. Economic aggregates

Answer : Option D
18. The stranger gas is also known as___________.
    A. Xenon B. Argon C. Helium D. Neon

Answer : Option A
19. A compact disc (CD) is a type of _____________ storage media.
    A. Electrical B. Magnetic C. Optical D. None of these

Answer : Option C
20. The British established their first factory in Surat with the permission of _________.
    A. Jahangir B. Sher Shah Suri C. Hemu D. Shah Jahan

Answer : Option A
21. The Curiosity rover built by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) as a part of Astrobiology mission successfully landed on the planet
    A. Mars B. Saturn C. Venus D. Mercury

Answer : Option A
22. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
    A. Pituitary gland B. Pancreas C. Pineal gland D. None of these

Answer : Option D
23. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
    A. Cyrus Mistry : Tata Group B. Sheryl Sandberg : Facebook C. Larry Page : Google D. Deepak Parekh : HFCL

Answer : Option D
24. Who among the following Viceroys wrote the book ‘Problems of the East’?
    A. Lord Curzon B. Lord Clive C. Lord Mayo D. Lord Mountbatten

Answer : Option A
25. Which among the following Philosophical Systems expounds ‘Critical Examination’ or ‘Solution of a problem by reflection’?
    A. Vaishesika B. Samkhya C. Mimansa D. Yoga

Answer : Option C
26. Who among the following said about Md. Ali Jinnah that he was an ‘Ambassador of Hindu- Muslim Unity’?
    A. Annie Besant B. Sarojini Naidu C. B. G. Tilak D. None of these

Answer : Option B
27. Which among the following is considered as the best rock cut temple in the world?
    A. Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur B. Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneswar C. Kailasha Temple, Ellora D. Kandariya Temple, Khajuraho

Answer : Option C
28. Badayuni said that “Sultan got freedom from his masses and masses from the Sultan”. Who among the following kings does he refer to?
    A. Alauddin Khilji B. Balban C. Iltutmish D. Md. Bin Tughlaq

Answer : Option D
29. The cost that changes in proportion to the goods or services that a business produces is termed as________.
    A. Opportunity cost B. Average cost C. Variable cost D. Marginal cost

Answer : Option C
30. Who among the following was a German philosopher, economist and revolution socialist?
    A. David Ricardo B. Karl Marx C. Adam Smith D. John Maynard Keynes

Answer : Option B
31. The existence of Parallel Economy refers to the existence of ________.
    A. Foreign investment B. Call money C. Hot money D. Block money

Answer : Option D
32. The speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints who among the following?
    A. Leader of Opposition B. Prime minister C. Two members of the Anglo-Indian community D. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer : Option A
33. The current President of India is Pranab Mukherjee, who is the ______.
    A. 10th President of India B. 12th President of India C. 13th President of India D. 14th President of India

Answer : Option C
34. The ‘Provision of States’ incorporated in the Constitution of India was borrowed from the Constitution of________.
    A. UK B. US C. Japan D. Canada

Answer : Option B
35. Who among the following non-members has the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, through not to vote?
    A. RBI Governor B. CBI chief C. Attorney General D. Chief Justice of India

Answer : Option C
36. Part XV ( Article 324-329 ) of the Indian Constitution deal with which of the following?
    A. Elections B. Tribunals C. Official Language D. Municipalities

Answer : Option A
37. Which state has officially declared the name of its capital city as Amaravathi?
    A. Karnataka B. Andhra Pradesh C. Telangana D. Tamil Nadu

Answer : Option B
38. King Simuka was the founder of_________.
    A. Satavahana dynasty B. Sunga dynasty C. Chola dynasty D. Kanva dynasty

Answer : Option A
39.Though slavery was abolished throughout the British Empire through the Slavery Abolition Act 1833, slavery was abolished in India Slavery Act of______.
    A. 1835 B. 1838 C. 1839 D. 1843

Answer : Option D
40. Which of the following is wrongly paired? Book Author
    A. Dashakumaracharita Dandin B. Mudrarakshasa Vishakhadatta C. Brihatkatha Gunadhya D. Rajtarangini Somdeva

Answer : Option D
41. A quick-growing crop planted between two regular crops grown in consecutive seasons, is called a______.
    A. Substitute crop B. Middle crop C. Cash crop D. Catch crop

Answer : Option D
42. Which of the following is a project(s) constructed on the Mahanadi river in India?
    A. Dudhawa Reservior B. Ravishankar Sagar dam ( Gangrel Dam ) C. Hirakud Dam D. All the above

Answer : Option D
43. The pre-monsoon showers that are beneficial for coffee plantation in Karnataka are called________.
    A. Mango Showers B. Cherry Blossoms C. Kalbaishakhi D. Brown Showers

Answer : Option B
44. Which of the following pairs of cities and countries is NOT matched correctly?
    A. Istanbul - Turkey B. Marseille – Spain C. Hamburg – Germany D. Florence – Italy

Answer : Option B
45. The famous Angkor Wat temple, the largest religious monument in the world, was built in the early 12th century by_______.
    A. Indravarman B. Suryavarman II C. Bhavavarman II D. Jayavarman

Answer : Option B
46. Who was chosen as the first satyagrahi to launch the Individual Satyagraha in 1940?
    A. Acharya Vinoba Bhava B. Jawahar Lal Nehru C. Brahma Datt D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer : Option A
47. Who among the following non-members has the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, through not to vote?
    A. RBI Governor B. CBI chief C. Attorney General D. Chief Justice of India

Answer : Option C
48. Pappu Karki, the popular Kumaoni folk singer has passed away. He was native of which state?
    A. Jammu&Kashmir B. HimachalPradesh C. Uttarakhand D. Assam

Answer : Option C
49. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Central Board of Indirect taxes and Customs (CBIC)?
    A. Johnjoseph B. VanajaN.Sarna C. MahenderSingh D. S Ramesh

Answer : Option D
50. Who has been appointed as the acting Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
    A. ArvindSaxena B. SudhaJain C. KirtiKumar D. Omi Agrawal

Answer : Option A
1. In the following question, the first word is given in capital letters followed by four alternative words. Select from the alternatives the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters. LEVERAGING
    A. Weakening B. Destroying C. Gearing D. Demonstrating

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Both ‘Leveraging’ and ‘Gearing’ means the use of credit or borrowed capital to increase the earning potential of shares.
2. In the following question, the first word is given in capital letters followed by four other words, one of which is the antonym of the first word. Find the word. HEDGING
    A. Minimizing B. Maximizing C. Climbing D. Sidelining

Answer : Option B
Explanation : A hedge is an investment to reduce the risk of adverse price movements in an asset and ‘Maximizing’ is the exact opposite word.
3. A wrong or inaccurate use of a name or term
    A. Misunderstanding B. Misjudge C. Misinterpret D. Misnomer

Answer : Option D
Explanation : A misnomer is a word or term that suggests a meaning that is known to be wrong.
4. A person in-charge of a museum
    A. Orator B. Administrator C. Curator D. Operator

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Curator means a keeper or custodian of a museum or other collection.
5. A Life story of person written by self
    A. Bibliography B. Autobiography C. Photography D. Lithography

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Autobiography means an account of a person's life written by that person.
6. The Banks and Financial Institutions had been experiencing considerable difficulties in __________ loans and enforcement of securities charged with them.
    A. Inventing B. Discovering C. Recovering D. Originating

Answer : Option C
Explanation : As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘recovering’ which means the earning back of the initial funds put into an investment, fits in the blanks.
7. The government will subject the recommended candidates to the necessary due __________ process before it makes the final decision on appointments.
    A. Hard work B. Diligence C. Credit D. Obligation

Answer : Option B
Explanation : As per the meaning of the sentence, the term ‘due diligence’ which means the detailed examination of a company and its financial records done before becoming involved in a business arrangement with it, fits in the blanks.
8. NPCI was started by the RBI with a mandate to develop an Indian payments switch to drive financial ____________ in the country.
    A. Incision B. Incentive C. Investment D. Inclusion

Answer : Option D
Explanation : As per the meaning of the sentence, the term ‘financial inclusion’ which means delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low-income segments of society, fits in the blanks.
9. Bankers estimate about a third of these bonds could potentially be turned into derivatives, helping to further ____________ the young product.
    A. Broach B. Introduce C. Boost D. Blow

Answer : Option C
Explanation : As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘boost’ which means helping or encouraging something to increase or improve, fits in the blanks.
10. The main point of her speech was well understood.
    A. That she spoke B. Made when she spoke C. Made by her speech D. No improvement

Answer : Option D
Explanation : There is no grammatical error in the sentence.
11. Potatoes are dead cheap these days.
    A. Deadly Cheap B. Dirt Cheap C. Dust Cheap D. No improvement

Answer : Option B
Explanation : The correct sentence would be “Potatoes are dirt cheap these days”.
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?
    A. Payments by mobiles have grown from 860 transactions in 2010 to 4.4 million in 2014. B. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rs 21,000 crore in currency operations costs. C. Citizens of Delhi alone spend Rs. 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash. D. Less than 4% of our population pays income tax.

Answer : Option D
Explanation : The third paragraph clearly states that given that less than three per cent of our population pays income tax, transactions by plastic cards may not amount to much. Hence, option d) is incorrect
13. How would the e-transactions help the Government of India?
    A. Increasing the revenue of the government B. Increasing the paperwork of the government C. Curbing illegal transactions D. Increasing the audit work at government level

Answer : Option C
Explanation : The last lines of the passage clearly mention that electronic transactions and the ease of audit they afford should make the government’s job much easier in terms of curbing illegal transactions.
14. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is directly linked?
    A. Credit transactions and black money B. Cash transactions and black money C. Cash and Credit Transactions D. Black and White Money

Answer : Option B
Explanation : The author clearly mentions in the second paragraph that cash transactions and black money are directly linked, since a cash trail is nigh impossible to track.
15. According to the passage, which country after India can be considered to be a Cash-dependent economy?
    A. Brazil B. Mexico C. South Africa D. Brazil or South Africa

Answer : Option B
Explanation : According to the passage India considered to be amongst the most cash-intensive economies with a cash-to-GDP ratio of 12%, almost four times as much as other markets such as Brazil (3.93%), Mexico (5.3%) and South Africa (3.73%).
16. According to the author of the passage, what type of economy is India?
    A. Dependent Economy B. Developed Economy C. Cash-intensive Economy D. Labour-intensive Economy

Answer : Option C
Explanation : The author clearly states in the passage that India is a hugely cash-dependent economy.
17. His views on female foeticide are effectively a paper test of his views on women's rights.
    A. An equality test B. an eraser test C. a litmus test D. a gender test

Answer : Option C
Explanation : The phrase ‘a litmus test’ means a test used to determine someone's true intentions or beliefs.
18. The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it deals with
    A. an alarming journey B. a commanding situation C. a journey into outer space D. a frightful battle

Answer : Option c
19. Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for the warning lights to be on?
    A. There was a shower of debris. B. Jack was yelling. C. A catastrophe was imminent. D. The moon was looming close and big

Answer : Option c
20. The statement that the dazzling sunshine was "for once unfiltered by layers of air" means
    A. that the sun was very hot B. that there was no strong wind C. that the air was unpolluted D. none of above

Answer : Option D
Directions(Q.21 -25):In the passage given below there are 10 blanks. Every blank has four alternative words or Sentences given in options (1),(2),(3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if no change is required i.e “No change required”.
21.The ________(21.) of unemployment to the individual are not hard to imagine. When a person loses his or her job, there is often an immediate impact to that person’s standard of living. Prior to the Great Recession, the average savings rate in the U.S. had been drifting down towards zero (and sometimes below), and there are __________(22.) reports that the average person is only a few weeks away from serious financial trouble without a paying job. Even for those eligible for unemployment benefits and other forms of government assistance, it is often the case that these benefits replace 50% or less of their regular income. That means these people are consuming far less than usual. However, the economic consequences can go beyond just less consumption. Many people will turn to retirement savings in a pinch, and draining these savings has long-term _________(23.) Prolonged unemployment can lead to an erosion of skills, basically robbing the economy of otherwise useful talents. At the same time, the experience of unemployment (either direct or indirect) can ________(24.) how workers plan for their futures — prolonged unemployment can lead to greater skepticism and pessimism about the value of education and training and lead to workers being less willing to invest in the long years of training some jobs require. On a similar note, the absence of income created by unemployment can force families to deny educational opportunities to their children and deprive the economy of those future skills. Last but not least, there are other costs to the individual. Studies have shown that _________(25) unemployment harms the mental health of workers and can actually worsen physical health and shorten lifespans.
    21. A. charges B. cost C. costs D. expense

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Option C (costs) is suitable as per the sentence ahead.
    22. A. experiential B. incidental C. fictional D. anecdotal

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Anecdotal – (of an account) not necessarily true or reliable, because based on personal accounts rather than facts or research.
    23. A. development B. ramifications C. effect D. manifestations

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Ramifications – consequences,results, aftermath
    24. A. alter B. embellish C. revamp D. transfigure

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Alter – change in character or composition, typically in a comparatively small but significant way.
    25. A. delayed B. prolonged C. lengthy D. elongated

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Prolonged – continuing for a long time or longer than usual
Directions(Q.26-35): In the given sentences a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options, (1), (2), (3), (4), a combination of words would fit the blank thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct. Select that option as the answer. If all the given combinations fit perfectly, then select ‘All fit’ as the answer.
26. If India’s universities develop tomorrow’s technologies, it could provide cutting-edge and __________ technologies. I. frugal II. ascetic III. economical IV. meagre
    A. III,IV B. II,III C. I,III D. III,IV

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Frugal – cost saving,economical
27. The noise of a dentist’s drill might awaken feelings of __________ and nervousness. I. apprehension II. scruple III. uneasiness IV. disgust
    A. II,IV B. I,III C. III,IV D. I,II

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Apprehension – anxiety or fear or uneasiness that something bad or unpleasant will happen.
28. Political commitment to improving the quality of education backed by strong review and monitoring mechanisms can _________ meaningful activity in states. I. arouse II. spur III. impetus IV. prompt
    A. II,III B. I,IV C. I,III D. II,IV

Answer : Option D
Explanation : spur/prompt – give an incentive or encouragement.to make something happen
29.Since its ________, the NITI Aayog has been a believer in competitive federalism that puts pressure on policymakers across states to perform better on pre-defined goals and metrics. I. nascent II. founding III. inception IV. birth
    A. III,IV B. I,II C. II,IV D. III,IV

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Inception – the establishment or starting point of an institution or activity.
30. All world religions ___________ Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of Ahimsa as the highest of ideals and give the message of tolerance. I. propound II. effeminate III. prod IV. advocate
    A. II,IV B. II,III C. I,IV D. I,II

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Propound – put forward (an idea or theory) for consideration by others.
31. In a business-as-usual scenario, the world will ________ its energy related resources in less than a fifty years to trigger a crisis it isn’t able to cope with. I. dispel II. exhaust III. evaporate IV. dissipate
    A. I,IV B. II,IV C. I,III D. II,IV

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Exhaust – use up (resources or reserves) completely.
32. Despite alternative sources of energy flourishing, Oil, for the time being is not ________. I. fungible II. extractable III. substitutable IV. infrangible
    A. I,III B. II,III C. III,IV D. I,II

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Fungible – Able to be substituted for something of equal value or utility
33. Terrorism has no place in a civilised world and is contrary to all religious __________. I. scruples II. tenets III. principles IV. thesis
    A. III,IV B. I,II C. II,IV D. II,III

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Tenets – a principle or belief, especially one of the main principles of a religion or philosophy.
34. A healthy planet is public good and governments and people are __________ to use it well. I. indentured II. obligated III. grateful IV. bound
    A. I,III B. II,IV C. II,IV D. I,II

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Obligated – an act or course of action to which a person is morally or legally bound; a duty or commitment.
Directions- (Q.35-40): In each of the following questions ,one phrase has been given and it has been followed by four sentences. You have to find out in which of these sentences phrase has been used properly according to its meaning and mark your answer from the options denoted by 1,2 ,3 ,4. As your answer if you find that phrase has been applied properly in all the sentences.
35. Hold water I. It may seem logical, but his argument doesn’t hold water. II. His account of events simply doesn’t hold water. III. The newly launched denims can hold water for some time. IV. His demonstration of the deduction logic does not hold water.
    A. II,IV B. All except II C. I,III D. All except III

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Hold water – to be convincing
36. Hit below the belt I. Some felt the harsh comments hit below the belt. II. In boxing it is a foul to hit below the belt intentionally. III. Some say the ads hit below the belt. IV. They hit the workers below the belt when they closed the factory gates without any warning
    A. III,IV B. All except II C. I,II D. All are correct

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Hit below the belt – to hit in an unfair way
37. Get cold feet I. The plan failed after sponsors got cold feet. II. The inclement weather made everyone feet cold. III. I was going to apply for the job but i got cold feet IV. He was going to ask her but he got cold feet and said nothing.
    A. I,II B. I,IV C. All except II D. II,III

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Get cold feet – to lose courage, fear
38. Dead letter I. The representatives of the two states tried to enforce a treaty which was a dead letter II. Despite maintenance, the letters in the post office looked dead letters and dirty. III. He never expected a dead letter from his own friend. IV. The treaty had been a dead letter for many years.
    A. I,II B. All except III C. II,III D. I,IV

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Dead letter – no longer in force, dormant
39. All ears I. The employees were all ears when manager mentioned something about increment. II. I was all years when my grandfather was telling about his adventure trip to Himalayas in his youth. III. She expected her fiance to be all ears when she was telling him about the wedding plans. IV. The student were all ears when teacher started his lecture.
    A. II,IV B. I,III C. All except II D. All are correct

Answer : Option D
Explanation : All ears – attentive, to listen with keen attention
40. Baker’s dozen I. He bought a baker’s dozen of biscuits. II. The man in white suit in the cafe looked like a baker’s dozen candy. III. The shopkeeper couldn’t believe he was made a baker’s dozen before everyone. IV. You should get a baker’s dozen donuts on your birthday.
    A. I,IV B. II,III C. All except IV D. III,IV

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Baker’s dozen – thirteen
Direction(Q. 45-50):In each of the following questions four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite meaning. Find out the two words which are the most nearly the same or the opposite meaning.
45. A. drivel B. trifling C. blather D. putrid
    A. B-D B. A-C C. A-D D. B-C

Answer: Option B
Explanation : A-C are synonyms drivel/blather – senseless talk, nonsense Trifling – unimportant Putrid – of or characteristic of rotting matter.
46. A. cunning B. savvy C. limpid D. perceptive
    A. A-B B. B-C C. C-D D. B-D

Answer : Option D
Explanation : B-D are synonyms Savvy – shrewdness and practical knowledge; the ability to make good judgements. Limpid – clear,transparent,bright
47. A. genial B. berate C. indolent D. sardonic
    A. C-D B. B-C C. A-D D. A-B

Answer : Option C
Explanation : A-D are antonyms Genial – affable Sardonic – grimly mocking or cynical. Indolent – lazy Berate – scold,chide
48. A. adverse B. petrify C. pester D. soften
    A. B-D B. A-C C. B-C D. A-D

Answer : Option A
Explanation : B-D are antonyms Petrify – harden,fossilise Pester – irritate
49. A. fecund B. cantankerous C. fertile D. credulous
    A. B-C B. A-D C. B-D D. A-C

Answer : Option D
Explanation : A-C are synonyms Fecund – productive,fertile Cantankerous – bad-tempered, argumentative, and uncooperative. Credulous – naive,gullible
50. A. convoluted B. lively C. tangled D. excruciating
    A. . B-D B. A-C C. A-B D. C-D

Answer : Option B
Explanation : A-C are synonyms convoluted/tangled – extremely complex,complicated Excruciating – intensely painful.
Directions (51-55): Given below are six sentences (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and (F). Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph. A. Urban residential electricity consumers are still hesitant to consider rooftop solar power for their homes. For residential urban consumers, one of the key barriers to installing rooftop solar systems is that they do not know who to contact to understand the processes to be followed and permissions required. B. A significant majority of consumers seek face-to-face discussions and recommendations from friends and family. C. The local electricity linesmen, electricity inspectors, and other nodal officials in the electricity department also have key roles to play. Building their capacities to disseminate such information and handle consumer queries and concerns, and providing basic training in billing and metering for solar power can go a long way in improving consumers’ experience. D. India has set an ambitious target of achieving 40 GW of rooftop solar capacity by 2022. However, while there has been progress on rooftop solar installations among industries and commercial consumers, the uptake among residential consumers has been slow. E. There is no single source to access information, evaluate benefits and disadvantages, and examine if any government support (such as a financial subsidy) is available. Most of the technical information provided by various sources, including the government, tends to be Internet-based. F. Devising simple, well-designed and creative ways to disseminate information is important to help consumers make informed decisions.
51. Considering statement (A) “Urban residential electricity consumers are still hesitant to consider rooftop solar power for their homes. For residential urban consumers, one of the key barriers to installing rooftop solar systems is that they do not know who to contact to understand the processes to be followed and permissions required.” as the second statement,then which of the following becomes the FOURTH statement of the rearrangement?
    A. D B. E C. B D. C

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Correct sequence is DAEBFC
52. Considering statement (A) “Urban residential electricity consumers are still hesitant to consider rooftop solar power for their homes. For residential urban consumers, one of the key barriers to installing rooftop solar systems is that they do not know who to contact to understand the processes to be followed and permissions required.” as the second statement,then which of the following becomes the SIXTH statement of the rearrangement?
    A. B B. C C. F D. A E. D

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Correct sequence is DAEBFC
53. Considering statement (A) “Urban residential electricity consumers are still hesitant to consider rooftop solar power for their homes. For residential urban consumers, one of the key barriers to installing rooftop solar systems is that they do not know who to contact to understand the processes to be followed and permissions required.” as the second statement,then which of the following becomes the THIRD statement of the rearrangement?
    A. E B. C C. D D. F E. B

Answer : Option E
Explanation : Correct sequence is DAEBFC
54. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement?
    A. B-D B. E-B C. C-D D. A-C D. A-B

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Correct sequence is DAEBFC
55. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement?
    A. C-E B. A-F C. B-D D. B-C E.A-E

Answer : Option 5
Explanation : Correct sequence is DAEBFC
Directions (Q.56-60): Which of the following phrases given against each sentence can replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence grammatically and contextually? if none of the phrases can replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence , select ‘None’ as your answer.
56.The Swedes are not alone in finding their language under pressure from the ubiquitous spread of English. I. omnipresent II. all-pervasive III. percolate
    A. II B. I,III C. III D. I,II

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Ubiquitous – present, appearing, or found everywhere.
57. To foster a culture of innovation, faculty must be open to exploring the unknown making the environment conducive for interactions. I. encourage II. endeavour III. promote
    A. III B. I,III C. II,III D. I,II

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Foster – encourage the development of (something, especially something desirable).
58. He keeps trying to get his silly matter published but I think he’s flogging a dead horse. I. just holding it in leash II. just fiddling around here III. hogging over it
    A. II,III B. III C. I,II D. II

Answer : Option D
Explanation : flogging a dead horse – to waste one’s efforts, waste time unnecessarily without any purpose
59. His apparent heresy is not that of the smooth talking cleric, but the statistician specialising in the field of criminology. I. piousness II. hearsay III. ramblings
    A. III B. I,II C. II D. None of these

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Heresy – belief or opinion contrary to orthodox religious (especially Christian) doctrine.
60. Many of us conform to the outmoded customs laid down by our forebears. I. outdated practices II. in vogue traditions III. obsolescent conventions
    A. I,II B. II,III C. I,III D. I

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Outdated customs – old-fashioned and no longer useful or relevant to modern life.
61. From the time Albert Einstein proposed his general theory of relativity and existence of black holes, an unseeable frontier has captivated the human mind. Now that there is a photographic evidence, it makes it all the more real and facinating.
    A. unseeable B. captivated C. facinating D. proposed

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Correct spelling is fascinating
62. Coupled with the momentuous discovery of gravitational waves, generated by two black holes, in 2015 by LIGO, the black hole image of M87 is a testament to engineering skills. It will help to form international collaborations to pool the capabilities of disparate scientific instruments and perceive phenomena that cannot be comprehended by individuals.
    A. disparate B. testament C. capabilities D. momentuous

Answer : Option D
Explanation : Correct spelling is momentous
63. The past year and a half has been an inflection point in cybersecurity with the battle against lack of awareness among busineses and the public sector largely being won, mainly following the two global ransomware attacks – Wannacry and Notpeya
    A. busineses B. inflection C. awareness D. cybersecurity

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Correct spelling is businesses
64. The treatment of tuberculosis is becoming more difficult as most patients don’t adhere to the treatment regimen which includes six to nine months of daily antibiotics. This also contributes to emergence of multi-drug resistant bacteria.
    A. resistant B. emergence C. regimen D. All are correct

Answer : Option D
Explanation : All are correct
65. For more than hundred years now, scientists and writers of science fiction alike have fosterred the illusion that someday humankind will have weapons so terrible that the fear of its impact will end war for all times.
    A. scientists B. terrible C. fosterred D. illusion

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Correct spelling is fostered
Directions(Q.66-70): In each of the questions, there’s error in any two parts of the sentences. You have to identify the same and if there’s no error according to you, then mark option five as your answer.
66. Studies have show that(A)/ buildings, roads and other hard surfaces(B)/ absorb and store heat(C)/ whereas vegetation reflect heat.(D)
    A. AC B. BD C. AD D. BC

Answer : Option C
Explanation : In A, replace ‘show’ by ‘shown’ In D, replace ‘reflect’ by ‘reflects’
67. No institution,(A)/ however high,(B)/ including the judiciary,(C)/ should insulate oneself from improvements.(D)
    A. BC B. AD C. BD D. CD

Answer : Option C
Explanation : In B, ‘howsoever’ should be used In D, replace ‘oneself’ with ‘itself’
68. Since more than 100 years now,(A)/ scientists and writers of science fiction alike have hoped(B)/ that someday humankind will have a weapon so terrible(C)/ that the fear of its impact will end war for all time.(D)
    A. BC B. AD C. BD D. AD

Answer : Option B
Explanation : In A, replace ‘since’ by ‘for’ In D, replace ‘time’ by ‘times’
69. The salient of space(A)/ in defence are evident from(B)/ the fact that all three countries- U.S., China and Russia(C)/ have set up ‘Space Commands’.(D)
    A. CD B. AB C. BD D. AC

Answer : Option B
Explanation : In A, replace ‘salient’ by ‘salience’ In B, replace ‘are’ by ‘is’
70. Before the internet,(A)/ if young people communicate(B)/ through their speech,(C)/ now they do through their phones.(D)
    A. BC B. AD C. AB D. BD

Answer : Option D
Explanation : In B, replace ‘communicate’ with ‘communicated’ In D, now they do ‘so’…
71. New York is ----- large city
    A. a B. an C. the D. No article

Answer Option A
72. Are you attending ----- reception today
    A. a B. an C. the D. No article

Answer : Option C
73.----- Oranges are grown in Nagpur
    A. a B. an C. the D. No article

Answer : Option D
74. She wants to become ----- engineer
    A. a B. an C. the D. No article

Answer : Option B
75.----- lion is a ferocious animal
    A. a B. an C. the D. No article

Answer : Option C
76. Have the box broken
    A. Break the box. B. Get someone to break the box C. Have the broken box D. They have broken the box.

Answer : Option B
77. His pocket has been picked.
    A. Someone has picked his pocket. B. Picked has been his pocket. C. They have his pocket picked. D. Picking has been done to his pocket

Answer : Option A
78. Why do you waste time?
    A. Why is time wasted by you? B. Why has time been wasted by you? C. Why is time being wasted by you? D. Why is time been wasted by you?

Answer : Option A
79. People claim to have seen the suspect in several cities.
    A. The suspect is claimed to have been seen in several cities. B. The suspect was seen by people in several cities. C. The suspect has been the people in several cities. D. The suspect is being seen in several cities

Answer : Option A
80. A stone struck mo on the head.
    A. My head was struck by a stone. B. I had been struck by a stone on the head. C. I was struck on the head by a stone. D. I was struck by a stone on the head.

Answer : Option C
81. A sentence has been given in Direct Speech. Out of the four altenatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect Speech.
    A. Judge exclaimed no one is above law B. Judge told no one is above law C. Judge ordered that no one is above law D. Judge asked no one is above law

Answer : Option C
Explanation : Usage of 'order' makes the best combination with the designation or position of Judge.
82.His father says “Honesty is the best policy”
    A. His father called honesty is the best policy B. His father asked if honesty is the best policy C. His father exclaimed that honesty is the best policy D. His father says that honesty is the best policy

Answer : Option D
Explanation : After says if we place that then we can place the quote statement as it is after 'that' in indirect form of speech.
83.Rama said, 'I am very busy now.
    A. Rama said that he was very busy then B. Rama said that he would be very busy now, C. D. Rama said that he is very busy now.

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Simple present tense changes into simple past; first person in the reported speech changes as per the subject in the given sentence. The use of ‘that’ is mandatory.
84.He said to him,' Is not your name Khalid?
    A. He said that his name was Khalid B. He inquired whether his name was not Khalid C. He asked is his name was not Khalid D. He asked why his name was Khalid

Answer : Option B
Explanation : In interrogative sentences conjunction 'if' or 'whether' is used in place of that' in the indirect speech and question mark is removed. Simple present will change into simple past.
85. All said to the beggar, 'I know you very well’
    A. Ali recognized the beggar B. Ali told the beggar that he knew him very well C. Beggar knew Ali too D. Beggar was recognized by Ali

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Said to should be changed to told. Inverted commas should be dropped and that should be added. The sentence inside inverted commas should be changed into past tense. Pronouns changed from 1stperson to 2nd person and from 2nd person to 3rd. Ali told the beggar that he knew him very well.
86. He said, "Yes, I'll come and see you.
    A. He accepted that he will come and see me B. He said that he will come and see me C. He agreed that he will come and see me D. He said that he would come and see me

Answer : Option D
Explanation : while changing the 'direct speech' into 'indirect speech' in place of comma and inverted comma) 'that' is used and first person in the reported speech is changed as the subject of the reporting verb and 'will changes into 'would'. So 'I' has been changed to 'he' and 'would' in place of 'will'.
87. Ram remarked “What a wonderful day!”
    A. Ram exclaimed that it was a wonderful day B. Ram asked if it was a wonderful day C. Ram said what a wonderful day D. Ram asked what a wonderful day

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Due to the usage of exclamation mark exclaimed is the right option
88. "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to her in a calm voice.
    A. He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet calmly B. He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quiet. C. He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quiet. D. Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will have to shoot her.

Answer : Option C
89. I told him that he was not working hard.
    A. I said to him, "You are not working hard. B. I told to him, "You are not working hard C. I said, "You are not working hard D. I said to him, "He is not working hard

Answer : Option A
90. His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
    A. His father said, "Go to your room and study. B. His father said to him, "Go and study in your room C. His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room D. His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room

Answer : Option A
91. He said to his father, "Please increase my pocket-money."
    A. He told his father, "Please increase the pocket-money B. He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket money. C. He requested his father to increase his pocket-money. D. He asked his father to increase his pocket-money

Answer : Option C
92. She said that her brother was getting married.
    A. She said, "Her brother is getting married." B. She told, "Her brother is getting married." C. She said, "My brother is getting married." D. She said, "My brother was getting married."

Answer : Option C
93. The boy said, "Who dare call you a thief?"
    A. The boy enquired who dared call him a thief. B. The boy asked who called him a thief. C. The boy told that who dared call him a thief D. The boy wondered who dared call a thief.

Answer : Option A
94. He exclaimed with joy that India had won the Sahara Cup.
    A. He said, "India has won the Sahara Cup" B. He said, "India won the Sahara Cup" C. He said, "How! India will win the Sahara Cup" D. He said, "Hurrah! India has won the Sahara Cup"

Answer : Option D
95. John asked, “How long will it take to travel from Germany to South Africa?
    A. John asked how long it will take to travel from Germany to South Africa B. John asked how long would it take to travel from Germany to South Africa C. John asked how long it should take to travel from Germany to South Africa D. John asking how long must it take to travel from Germany to South Africa

Answer : Option B
Explanation : Change 'will' into 'would' , the rest of the sentence will remain unchanged as it is in simple future tense.
96. He said to me, “I expect you to attend the function.
    A. He told me that he had expected me to attend the function B. He told me that he expected me to attended the function C. He told me that he expected me to have attended the function D. He told me that he expected me to attend the function

Answer : Option A
Explanation - Simple present will become simple past. First person I will change as the subject of the reporting verb and second changes as per the object of the reporting verb. Hence option 1 is the correct answer.
97. The father warned his son that he should be beware of him
    A. The father warned his son, “Beware of me!” B. The father warned his son, “Watch that chap!” C. The father warned his son, “Be careful about him.” D. The father warned his son, “Don’t fall into the trap.”

Answer : Option A
Explanation : Father warned the son (then add inverted comma )and after the sentence an exclamatory mark will come
98.Raj said, “I’m teaching English online
    A. Raj told I am teaching English online B. Raj asked me if I was teaching English online C. Raj said he was teaching English online D. Raj ordered that I am teaching English online

Answer : Option C
Explanation I’m means I am which refers to 'RAJ' and needs to be changed to He was in form of indirect speech.
99. He swore in the name of God that he was ignorant of the matter
    A. He said, “I’m ignorant by God B. He declared, “God knows I was ignorant of the matter.” C. He said, “By God ! I’m ignorant of the matter.” D. He said he was ignorant of God

Answer : Option C
Explanation : The sentence in Indirect Speech is in Simple Past Passive Tense. In Direct Speech the sentence will change to Simple Present.
100. "Please don't go away", she said.
    A. She said to please her and not go away. B. She told me to go away. C. She begged me not to go away. D. She begged that I not go away.

Answer : Option C

shape Test

For SSC Stenographer Practice: CLICK HERE
For SSC Stenographer Mock Test: CLICK HERE

shape Tips

To prepare for SSC Stenographer Computer Based Exam 2018, the three main parts that you need to be excellent at are General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness and English Language & Comprehension.
Candidates can crack the exam only with the right approach and correct strategy and can also clear the SSC Stenographer 2018 Computer Based Exam but remember scores will be normalized and such normalized scores will be used to determine final merit.
✦ Tip - 1: The Staff Sectional Commission repeats/ encore queries over the years with same digits. A few queries might look familiar as well as such kind of questions will save candidate’s time during the examination. Candidates should remember that, if you will save one second then you can use that time to solve another question, which might be beneficial for you.
✦ Tip - 2: Before solving the paper, properly plan the way you will attempt the paper that is called the strategy of attempting the paper.
✦ Tip - 3: In the examination hall, candidates should make the strategy as per their preparation. First of all, solve that section which is your strength and you will take less time to solve.
✦ Tip - 4: To get good marks in English Language section of SSC Stenographer Exam 2018 one can mug up all the Idioms and phrases, one-word substitutions, and vocabulary from the previous year books.
Candidates never skip the comprehension section because the passages are easy as well as can be scored off quickly.
Candidates, try to read and study at least 10 new English words daily. In addition to, note down all English word’s Meaning with the example that you think unfamiliar or difficult to remember.
✦ Tip - 5: To get good marks in Reasoning section of SSC Stenographer Exam 2018, candidates should always remember that the given queries will be solved through the given data only. Therefore, do not make unnecessary judgment or assumptions at the time of solving the problems. Try to use appropriate and smart method & tricks to solve any query.
Reasoning questions take more time as compared than other sections. That’s why; time detention should be kept in mind while solving the questions of reasoning section.
✦ Tip - 6: To get good marks in the General Awareness section of SSC Stenographer Exam 2018, candidates should absolutely go by the previous year questions so that that can score better in the examination.
The other option to prepare GK is the daily current affairs and magazines that focus General Knowledge. Candidates should read magazines and current affairs on the daily basis to strong their GK section.
Candidates should read newspapers on the daily basis. This habit will help them in two subjects - English Comprehension and General Awareness.