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BSNL MT External Management Aptitude

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BSNL MT External Management Aptitude

shape Introduction

BSNL Management Training (MT) 2019 Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 3 hour, a maximum score of 450 marks, and consists of 3 sections, namely – Management Aptitude, Cognitive Ability and Technical knowledge. There is a Negative marking in BSNL MT exam and 25% marks are deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates must clear the cut-off in all 3 sections to qualify for the BSNL MT exam.

shape Pattern

Components Marks Duration
Section-I - Management Aptitude 150 3 Hours (10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.)
Section-II - Cognitive Ability 150
Section-III - Technical knowledge 150
Total 450

shape Syllabus

BSNL MT External Management Aptitude Syllabus:
This section would gauge the ability of candidates on key management subjects such as economics, finance knowledge, operations, HR science etc. The syllabus for this section is as follows:
    (1) General Management
    (2) Management Information Systems
    (3) Managerial economics
    (4) Marketing
    (5) Accounting and Finance
    (6) Human Resources Management
    (7) Organizational Behavior
    (8) Strategic Management
    (9) Operations Management
    (10) Telecom knowledge
    (11) Current events of national and international importance

Below mentioned are the different categories of Sample questions in the BSNL MT External Management Aptitude Section.

shape Samples

General Management:
1. Overall and strategic planning is done by the
    A. Top management B. Middle level management C. Supervisory level management D. None of these
Answer: Option A
2. Consider the following statements: - Planning involves
    A. Choice among alternative courses of action B. Forecasting C. Both (a) and (b) D. Decision only by production manager
Answer: Option C
3. If a general manager asks the sales manager to recruit some salesman on his behalf, it is an instance of
    A. Division of authority B. Delegation of authority C. Delegation of responsibility D. Decentralisation of authority
Answer: Option B
4. An organisation structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives of the enterprise. This is known as
    A. Scalar principle B. Principle of unity of objectives C. Principle of functional definition D. None of the above
Answer: Option B
5. While delegating, a superior delegates
    A. Only authority B. Authority and responsibility C. Authority, responsibility and accountability D. Authority and responsibility but not accountability
Answer: Option A
Management Information Systems:
1. Information systems that monitor the elementary activities and transactions of the organizations are _________________.
    A. Management level system B. Operational level system C. Knowledge level system D. Strategic level system
Answer: A
2. Projections and responses to queries are Information output characteristics associated with ______________________.
    A. Decision Support System (DSS) B. Management Information System (MIS) C. Executive Support System (ESS) D. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
Answer: C
3. Summary transaction data, high-volume data, and simple models are information inputs characteristic of _________________.
    A. Decision Support System (DSS) B. Management Information System (MIS) C. Executive Support System (ESS) D. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
Answer: B
4. Which of the following individuals typically have less formal, advanced educational degrees and tend to process rather than create information?
    A. Knowledge workers B. Executives C. System analysts D. Data workers
Answer: D
5. Prototype is a ______________.
    A. Working model of existing system B. Mini model of existing system C. Mini model of processed system D. None of the above
Answer: A
Managerial economics:
1. The concept of supply curve as used in economic theory is relevant only for the case of
    A. Oligopoly competition B. Perfect or pure competition C. Monopolistic competition D. Monopoly
Answer: B
2. Other things being equal, an increase in supply can be caused by
    A. A rise in the income of the consumer B. An improvement in the techniques of production C. A rise in the price of the commodity D. An increase in the income of the seller
Answer: B
3. Direct regulation of business has the potential to yield economic benefits to society when
    A. diseconomies of scale exist. B. barriers to entry are absent. C. there are no good substitutes for a product. D. many firms serve a given market.
Answer: C
4. The Revealed Preference Theory is based on
    A. Introspection B. Utility and demand C. The assumption of indifference D. Observed consumer behaviour
Answer: D
5. One would expect a firm to close down rather than continue producing in the short-period if
    A. Variable costs were to fall below fixed costs B. Total revenue were less than total variable cost C. Total revenue were more than total variable cost D. Variable costs were to rise above fixed costs
Answer: B
1. The four unique elements to services include:
    A. Independence, intangibility, inventory, and inception B. Independence, increase, inventory, and intangibility C. Intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, and inventory D. Intangibility, independence, inseparability, and inventory
Answer: C
2. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers to which one of the following concept?
    A. Learning B. Role selection C. Perception D. Motivation
Answer: A
3. While buying milk which kind of behavior is displayed by a person?
    A. Extensive problem solving behavior B. Routinized buying behavior C. Variety seeking behavior D. None of the above
Answer: B
4. Whether to sell via intermediaries or directly to consumers, how many outlets to sell through, and whether to control or cooperate with other channel members are examples of decisions marketers must make about
    A. Promotion B. Price C. Distribution D. Product
Answer: C
5. The extended Ps of service marketing mix is:
    A. People, Product, Place B. Price Physical Evidence, Promotion C. Physical Environment, Process, People D. Product, Process, Physical Environment
Answer: C
Accounting and Finance:
1. In the calculation of return on shareholders investments the referred investment deals with
    A. All reserves B. Preference and equity capital only C. All appropriations D. All of the above
Answer: D
2. Which of the following is an advantage of standard costing?
    A. Measuring efficiency B. Facilitates cost control C. Determination of variance D. All of the above
Answer: D
3. The following item is shown in profit and loss appropriation account.
    A. Dividends declared B. Discount of issue of shares C. Non-operating expenses D. Current asset
Answer: A
4. The assets of a business can be classified as
    A. Only fixed assets B. Only current assets C. Fixed and current assets D. None of the above
Answer: C
5. Which of the following is the test of the long term liquidity of a business?
    A. Interest coverage ratio B. Stock turnover ratio C. Operating ratio D. Current ratio
Answer: A
Human Resources Management:
1. The meaning of the acronym HRM is
    A. Human Relations Management B. Humanistic Resource Management C. Human Resource Management D. Human Resourceful Management
Answer: C
2. HRM is___________
    A. A staff functions B. A line function C. A staff function, line function and accounting function D. All of the above
Answer: A
3. Finding ways to reduce ________ is a key responsibility of management.
    A. Dissatisfaction B. Uncertainty C. Stress D. None of the above
Answer: B
4. The ________ and control systems should be altered to support the strategic human resource function.
    A. Appointment B. Reward C. Job allotment D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. All aspects of the merger need ________.
    A. Controlling B. Delegating C. Staffing D. Managing
Answer: D
Organizational Behavior:
1. Mismatch between personality and organization may lead(s) to
    A. Confusion and chaos B. Loss of interest by members in organization C. Low morale and job satisfaction D. All of the above
Answer D
2. A ________ person has a cause and an ideology to fight for achieving the set goal.
    A. Self-actualized B. Self-confident C. Self-driven D. Self-disciplined
Answer: A
3. The techniques such as interviews, questionnaires, etc. are used in the ________ stage related to management of change.
    A. Training B. Diagnosis C. Recruitment D. All of the above
Answer: B
4 The team whose members collaborate through use of various information technologies is known as ________ team.
    A. Virtual B. Ideal C. Real D. None of the above
Answer: A
5. Which personality theories give recognition to continuity of personalities?
    A. Humanistic B. Integrative C. Trait D. None of the above
Answer: C
Strategic Management:
1. Strategy is developed by the visionary chief executive in ___________ mode of strategic management
    A. planning mode B. adaptive mode C. strategic mode D. entrepreneurial mode
Answer: D
2. stability strategy is a ____________ strategy
    A. corporate level B. business level C. functional level D. strategic level
Answer: A
3. What are the means by which long term objectives will be achieved?
    A. Strategies B. Policies C. Strength D. Opportunities
Answer: A
4. Marketing strategy is a ___________ type of strategy
    A. business level B. Growth strategy C. corporate strategy D. functional strategy
Answer: D
5. When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can be the most important part of an external audit
    A. Economic B. Competitive C. Political D. Multinational
Answer: C
Operations Management:
1. Which of the following are assignable cause?
    A. Large variations in hardness of material B. Tool wear C. Errors in setting D. All of the above
Answer: D
2. What is the reason of excessive friction between parts?
    A. Improper or lack of lubrication B. Material of parts C. both (A) and (B) D. None of above
Answer: A
3. Which kind of labour force is required in case of Jobbing Production?
    A. Highly Skilled B. Semi-skilled C. Unskilled D. Any of the above
Answer: A
4. What is the location of lower control limit in the X bar-R control chart?
    A. 3 standard deviations below central line B. 2 standard deviations below central line C. 1 standard deviations below central line D. Any of the above
Answer: A
5. Which photographic technique is used to record path of motions of the members of the body during method study?
    A. Acrograph B. Cyclograph C. Cyclogram D. Cycloscope
Answer: B
Telecom knowledge:
1. If ‘n’ number of users are present in a network with point-to-point links, then how many links will be required in the network?
    A. n (n – 1) B. n (n – 1) / 2 C. n (n – 1) / 4 D. n (n – 1) / 8
Answer: B
2. Which among the following is/are adopted by cross bar systems with hard wired control subsystem?
    A. Relays B. Latches C. Both a and b D. None of the above
Answer: C
3. Which kind of switching technique indicates the transfer of coded values from input to output during the same interval of time?
    A. Space Switching B. Time Switching C. Combination Switching D. None of the above
Answer: A
4. What is the hardware, used to establish connection as an electrical path between inlet and outlet pair in switching system, known as?
    A. Switching Matrix B. Switching Network C. Both a and b D. None of the above
Answer: C
5. In folded type of network, ________
    A. input lines are folded back to output lines B. output lines are folded back to input lines C. input lines are folded back to themselves (input lines) D. output lines are folded back to themselves (output lines)
Answer: B
Current events of national and international importance
1. Who was appointed as the Ambassador of India to the Republic of Argentina, on 1st February 2019?
    A. Manushree Tejas B. Dinesh Bhatia C. Sumit Rawat D. Kunal Kashyap
Answer: B
2. The first-ever global report "Future of the Rail" has prepared by which international organisation?
Answer: A
3. When is the International World Cancer Day celebrated?
    A. February 1 B. February 2 C. February 3 D. February 4
Answer: D
4. Which country relations with India on new heights as investment expected in the energy sector?
    A. Algeria B. Albania C. Australia D. Pakistan
Answer: A
5. What is the duration of the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty between US and Soviet Union?
    A. 50 years B. 99 years C. 150 years D. Unlimited
Answer: D