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RRB NTPC Reasoning Second Stage

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RRB NTPC Reasoning Second Stage

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RRB NTPC (Non-Technical Popular Categories) 2019 – Second Stage Computer Based Test (CBT), conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 90 minutes [120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe], consists of 3 sections, namely – General Awareness, Mathematics and General Intelligence & Reasoning. The total number of questions are 120. The 3 sections are not separately timed. There is a Negative marking in RRB NTPC Second Stage CBT and 1/3rd marks are deducted for each wrong answer. The below sections gives the detailed information about RRB NTPC Reasoning in the Second Stage CBT.

shape Pattern

Exam Duration in Minutes No. of Questions (each of 1 mark) from Total No. of Questions
General Awareness Mathematics General Intelligence and Reasoning
90 50 35 35 120

The RRB NTPC General Intelligence & Reasoning section in the Second Stage CBT, has the 35 objective questions. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Second Stage CBT of RRB NTPC General Intelligence & Reasoning Section.

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shape Samples

Analogies
1. Elated is to despondent as enlightened is to
    A. aware B. ignorant C. miserable D. tolerant

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Elated is the opposite of despondent; enlightened is the opposite of ignorant.
2. An optimist is too cheerful as a pessimist is to
    A. gloomy B. mean C. petty D. helpful

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: An optimist is a person whose outlook is cheerful. A pessimist is a person whose outlook is gloomy. The answer is not (choice b) because a pessimist does not have to be mean. (Choices c) and d is incorrect because neither adjective describes the outlook of a pessimist.
3. Reptile is to the lizard as the flower is to
    A. petal B. stem C. daisy D. alligator

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: A lizard is a type of reptile; a daisy is a type of flower. Choices a and b are incorrect because a petal and a stem are parts of a flower, not types of flowers. (Choice d) is incorrect because an alligator is another type of reptile, not a type of flower.
4. The play is to the actor as the concert is to
    A. symphony B. musician C. piano D. percussion

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: An actor performs in a play. A musician performs at a concert. Choices a, c, and d are incorrect because none is people who perform.
5. The sponge is to porous as rubber is to
    A. massive B. solid C. elastic D. inflexible

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: A sponge is a porous material. Rubber is an elastic material. (Choice a) is incorrect because rubber would not generally be referred to as massive. The answer is not (choice b) because even though rubber is solid, its most noticeable characteristic is its elasticity. Choice d is incorrect because the rubber has flexibility.
Completion of Number
1. In following question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33,
    A. 44 B. 45 C. 46 D. 47

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The pattern is + 5, + 7, + 9, + 11,... .'. Missing number = 33 + 13 = 46.
2. In the following question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56,
    A. 42 B. 51 C. 81 D. 91

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + 20,.... .'. Missing Number = 56 + 25 = 81.
3. In the following question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, x, 17
    A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Clearly, the given series consists of prime numbers starting from 2. The prime number after 11 is 13. So, 13 is the missing number.
4. In the following question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 3, 9, 27, 81,
    A. 324 B. 243 C. 210 D. 162

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Each term of the given series is obtained by multiplying its preceding term by 3. .'. Missin number = 81 * 3 = 243.
5. In the following question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces. 2, 5, 9, , 20, 27
    A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 24

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The pattern is + 3, + 4,.... .'. Missing number = 9 + 5 = 14.
Alphabetical Series
1. SAB, ?, QCD, PDD, OEF, NFF
    A. CBT B. ABR C. BCT D. RBB

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The first letter in every group is in reverse alphabetical order i.e. SRQPON. The middle letter is in alphabetical order i.e ABCDEF and the last letter has pairs, BB, DD & FF.
2. _ yz _ zx _ xyx _ z _ zxzxy
    A. xyzyy B. yyyzz C. yxzyx D. xyyzz

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The series is xyz/yzx/zxy /xyz/yzx/zxy. So, the letters change places in a cyclic manner.
3. x_ p _ y _ _ pzy _ _ pzy
    A. xyyyzz B. xyzyzy C. yxzyxy D. yzxyxy

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The series is xypzy/ xypzy/ xypzy. Thus, the pattern ' xypzy' is repeated.
4. BAZ, DBY, FCX,?
    A. FXW B. EFX C. FEY D. HDW

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The third, sixth and ninth letters are in the reverse order of the alphabet i.e.Z, Y, X, W. Ist fourth and seventh letters are going up with a gap of one letter and II, V and VIIIth have moved ahead one letter.
5. _ x _ y _ xyxx _ yxy _ xyyx
    A. xxxyy B. xyxyy C. yxyxy D. yxyyx

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The series is yxx/yyx/ yxx/yyx/ yxx/yyx. Thus, the pattern yxx/yyx is repeated.
Coding and Decoding
1. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language?
    A. MFEDJJOE B. EOJDEJFM C. MFEJDJOE D. EOJDJEFM

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: There are 8 letters in the word. The code word can be obtained by taking the immediately following letters of the word, expect the first and the last letters of the given word but in the reverse order. That means, in the coded form the first and the last letters have been interchanged while the remaining letters are coded by taking their immediate next letters in the reverse order.
2. In a certain code language, '134' means 'good and tasty'; '478' means 'see good pictures' and '729' means 'pictures are faint'. Which of the following digits stands for 'see'?
    A. 9 B. 2 C. 1 D. 8

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: In the first and second statements, the common code digit is '4' and the common word is 'good'. So, '4' stands for 'good'. In the second and third statements, the common code digit is '7' and the common word is 'pictures'. So, '7' means 'pictures'. Thus, in the second statements, '8' means 'see'.
3. In a certain code, MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in that code?
    A. SHFDQ B. HFDSQ C. RSAFD D. QDFHS

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The letter of the word is written in reverse order and then each letter is moved one step backward to obtain the code.
4. If a FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code?
    A. EDRIRL B. DCQHQK C. ESJFME D. DEQJQM

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The first, second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth letters of the word are respectively moved two, three, four, five, six and seven steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
5. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to
    A. 39 B. 41 C. 44 D. 46

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: In the given code, A = 2, B = 4, C = 6,.... , Z = 52. So, ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48 and BAT = 4 + 2 + 40 = 46.
Mathematical Operations
1. Select the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation? 5 0 3 5 = 20
    A. x, x, x B. -, +, x C. x, +, x D. +, -, x

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Clearly 5 - 0 + 3 X 5 = 20.
2. If Q means 'add to', J means 'multiply by', T means 'subtracted from' and K means 'divide by' then 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 =?
    A. 18 B. 28 C. 31 D. 103

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Using Correct Symbols , We have : Given expression = 30 / 2 + 3 x 6 - 5 = 15 + 18 - 5 = 28
3. If × stands for 'addition', ÷ stands for 'subtraction', + stands for 'multiplication' and-stands for 'division', then 20 × 8 ÷ 8 - 4 + 2 = ?
    A. 80 B. 25 C. 24 D. 5

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: By the Given data , We have the expression: 20 + 8 - 8 ÷ 4 × 2 = 20 + 8 - 2 × 2 = 20 + 8 - 4 = 24.
4. Given interchanges: Signs + and-, numbers 4 and 8.
    A. 4 + 8 - 12 = 12 B. 4 - 8 + 12 = 0 C. 8 + 4 - 12 = 24 D. 8 - 4 + 12 = 8

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: On interchanging + and - and 4 and 8 in (b), we get the equation as 8 + 4 - 12 = 0 or 12 - 12 = 0 or 0 = 0, which is true.
5. In a cricket match, five batsmen P, Q, R, S, and T scored an average of 36 runs. S Scored 5 more than T; T scored 8 fewer than P; Q scored as many as S and T combined, and Q and R scored 107 between them. How many runs did T score?
    A. 20 B. 29 C. 28 D. 24

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Let the runs scored by P, Q, R, S, and T be a, b, c, d and e From given data, a + b + c + d + e = 36 x 5 = 180 b + c = 107 Let a = x e = x-8 d = x-3 now 3x - 11 + 107 = 180 3x = 84 x = 28 e's score = 28-8 = 20.
Similarities and Differences
1. Pick out the different one
    A. Dress B. Panda C. Bear D. Fox

Answer: Option (A)
2. Pick out the different one
    A. CPU B. Monitor C. Kangaroo D. Keyboard

Answer: Option (C)
3. Pick out the different one
    A. Thirty B. Fifty C. Seventy D. Camera

Answer: Option (D)
4. Pick out the different one
    A. Time B. Chain C. Bangle D. Bracelet

Answer: Option (A)
5. Pick out the different one
    A. Week B. Head C. Year D. Month

Answer: Option (B)
Relationships
1. If X is the brother of the son of Y`s son, how is X related to Y?
    A. Son B. Brother C. Cousin D. Grandson E. Uncle

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Son of Y's son -- Grandson; Brother of Y's grandson -- Y's grandson.
2. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, "His brother`s father is the only son of my grandfather.' How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
    A. Mother B. Aunt C. Sister D. Daughter E. Grandmother

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Only son of woman's grandfather -- Woman's father; Man's brother's father -- Man's father. So, the woman is a man's sister.
3. Deepak is the brother of Ravi. Rekha is the sister of Atul. Ravi is the son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha?
    A. Son B. Brother C. Nephew D. Father

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Deepak is the son of Ravi, who is the son of Rekha. Thus, Deepak is the son of Rekha.
4. A is the father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is B related to E?
    A. Daughter B. Brother-in-Law C. Husband D. Sister-in-Law

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: A is the father of C and C is the sister of D. So, A is the father of D. But D is the son of B. So, B is the mother of D and wife of A. Also, E is the brother of A. So, B is the sister-in-law of E.
5. A is the son of B. C, B`s sister has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How many nephews does F have?
    A. Nil B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Clearly, F is the maternal uncle of D means F is the brother of D's mother i.e., F.
Analytical Reasoning
1. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

    A. 16 B. 18 C. 14 D. 15

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The figure may be labeled as shown.

The simplest triangles are BFG, CGH, EFM, FMG, GMN, GHN, HNI, LMK, MNK, and KNJ i.e. 10 in number. The triangles composed of three components each are FAK and HKD i.e. 2 in number. The triangles composed of four components each are BEN, CMI, GLJ, and FHK i.e. 4 in number. The triangles composed of eight components each are BAJ and OLD i.e. 2 in number. Thus, there are 10 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 18 triangles in the given figure.
2. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

    A. 18 B. 20 C. 28 D. 34

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The figure may be labeled as shown.

The simplest triangles are AEI, AIH, BEJ, BJF, CFK, CKG, DGL, DLH, EOJ, FOJ, FOG, LOG, HOL and HOE i.e. 14 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are EAH, FBE, BEO, EOF, BFO, FCG, GDH, HOD, HOG and GOD i.e. 10 in number. The triangles composed of three components each are EFH, EHG, FGH and EFG i.e. 4 in number. Thus, there are 14 + 10 + 4 = 28 triangles in the given figure.
3. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

    A. 20 B. 24 C. 28 D. 32

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The figure may be labeled as shown.

The simplest triangles are ABG, BIG, BIC, CIH, GIH, CDH, HED, GHJ, HJE, FEJ, GFJ and AGF i.e. 12 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are ABF, CDE, GBC, BCH, GHG, BHG, GHF, GHE, HEF and GEF i.e. 10 in number. The triangles composed of three components each are ABH, AFH, CDG and GDE i.e. 4 in number. The triangles composed of four components each are BHF and CGE i.e. 2 in number. Total number of triangles in the figure = 12 + 10 + 4 + 2 = 28.
4. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

    A. 11 B. 14 C. 16 D. 17

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The figure may be labeled as shown.

The horizontal lines are AK, BJ, CI, DH and EG i.e. 5 in number. The vertical lines are AE, LF, and KG i.e. 3 in number. The slanting lines are LC, CF, FI, LI, EK and AG i.e. 6 in number. Thus, there are 5 + 3 + 6 = 14 straight lines in the figure.
5. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

    A. 28 B. 32 C. 36 D. 40

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The figure may be labeled as shown.

The simplest triangles are AML, LRK, KWD, DWJ, JXI, IYC, CYH, HTG, GOB, BOF, FNE, and EMA i.e. 12 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are AEL, KDJ, HIC and FBG i.e. 4 in number. The triangles composed of three components each are APF, EQB, BQH, GVC, CVJ, IUD, DUL and KPA i.e. 8 in number. The triangles composed of six components each are ASB, BSC, CSD, DSA, AKF, EBH, CGJ, and IDL i.e. 8 in number. The triangles composed of twelve components each are ADB, ABC, BCD and CDA i.e. 4 in number. Total number of triangles in the figure = 12 + 4 + 8 + 8 + 4 = 36.
Syllogism
Direction (1 - 5): In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
    A. If only (1) conclusion follows B. If only (2) conclusion follows C. If either (1) or (2) follows D. If neither (1) nor (2) follows and E. If both (1) and (2) follow.

1. Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.
Conclusions: I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some cats are dogs.

    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation:

2. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.
Conclusions: I. All the trucks are scooters. II. Some scooters are trucks.

    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation:

3. Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee.
Conclusions: I. No building is toffee II. All chalks are buildings.

    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation:

4. Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.

    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation:

5. Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants.
Conclusions: I. Some cows are elephants. II. All crows are elephants.

    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation:

Jumbling
Direction(1 - 5): A, B, C, D, and E are five towns out of which two are hill stations and the rest are in plain. Two towns, which are in plain, are harbors. Four towns out of five are capitals and two are industrial towns. The population of two towns is less than 5 lacs. It is 20 lacs of one town and more than 50lacs of two towns. Two towns are on the same latitudes and the other two are on the same longitudes. Latitudes and longitudes of both harbors are different and out of these one is an industrial town. The population of both industrial towns is more than 50 lacs. The longitudes of one hill station and one of the industrial towns are the same. The latitudes and longitudes of the other hill station and other harbor are different. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. None of the hill stations is an industrial town. The hill station of which longitudes of A and E are same. E is a harbor. The latitudes of D and C are the same and the population of D is 20 lacs. Both the harbors are capitals and one of them is an industrial town.
1. Which of the following two towns are those whose population is less than 5 lacs?
    A. D and A B. B and C C. A and B D. A and C E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: We analyze the given information as follows : Two are hill station. Three are plains of which two are harbors. Four towns are capitals. Two towns are industrial. Two towns have a population less than 5 lacs. One town has a population of 20 lacs. Two towns have a population of more than 50 lacs. Two towns are on same latitudes. B is a hill station. E is a harbor. Clearly, A which has the same longitude as E, cannot be a harbor and clearly, D having population 20 lacs cannot be an industrial town. So, it is a harbor. Thus, E and D are harbored. Clearly, one harbor is an industrial town but D is not. So, E is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, longitudes of a hill station and industrial town are the same. So, A having the same longitude as E is a hill station. Latitudes of D and C are same and D is a harbor. So, C cannot be a hill station. So, B is the other hill station. Thus, three plains are C, D, E. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. So, C is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, both harbors are capitals. So, E and D are capitals. The hill station A, having the same longitude as a harbor, is also a capital. The population of D is 20 lacs. So, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs. Clearly, only one hill station is the capital. So, C is the other capital. Clearly, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs.
2. Which of the following towns is not a capital?
    A. A B. C C. D D. E E. B

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: We analyze the given information as follows : Two are hill station. Three are plains of which two are harbors. Four towns are capitals. Two towns are industrial. Two towns have a population less than 5 lacs. One town has a population of 20 lacs. Two towns have a population more than 50 lacs. Two towns are on same latitudes. B is a hill station. E is a harbor. Clearly, A which has the same longitude as E, cannot be a harbor and clearly, D having population 20 lacs cannot be an industrial town. So, it is a harbor. Thus, E and D are harbored. Clearly, one harbor is an industrial town but D is not. So, E is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, longitudes of a hill station and industrial town are the same. So, A having the same longitude as E is a hill station. Latitudes of D and C are same and D is the harbor. So, C cannot be a hill station. So, B is the other hill station. Thus, three plains are C, D, E. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. So, C is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, both harbors are capitals. So, E and D are capitals. The hill station A, having the same longitude as a harbor, is also a capital. The population of D is 20 lacs. So, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs. Clearly, only one hill station is the capital. So, C is the other capital. Clearly, B is not a capital.
3. Which of the following is the harbor, capital, and industrial town?
    A. A B. B C. C D. E E. D

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: We analyze the given information as follows : Two are hill station. Three are plains of which two are harbors. Four towns are capitals. Two towns are industrial. Two towns have a population less than 5 lacs. One town has a population of 20 lacs. Two towns have a population more than 50 lacs. Two towns are on same latitudes. B is a hill station. E is a harbor. Clearly, A which has the same longitude as E, cannot be a harbor and clearly, D having population 20 lacs cannot be an industrial town. So, it is a harbor. Thus, E and D are harbored. Clearly, one harbor is an industrial town but D is not. So, E is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, longitudes of a hill station and industrial town are the same. So, A having the same longitude as E is a hill station. Latitudes of D and C are same and D is the harbor. So, C cannot be a hill station. So, B is the other hill station. Thus, three plains are C, D, E. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. So, C is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, both harbors are capitals. So, E and D are capitals. The hill station A, having the same longitude as a harbor, is also a capital. The population of D is 20 lacs. So, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs. Clearly, only one hill station is the capital. So, C is the other capital. Harbors are E and D, capitals are A, C, D, and E and industrial towns are C and E. So, E is the harbor, capital, and industrial town.
4. Which of the following towns have a population more than 50 lacs?
    A. A and D B. B and E C. C and E D. C and D E. A and C

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: We analyze the given information as follows : Two are hill station. Three are plains of which two are harbors. Four towns are capitals. Two towns are industrial. Two towns have a population less than 5 lacs. One town has a population of 20 lacs. Two towns have a population of more than 50 lacs. Two towns are on same latitudes. B is a hill station. E is a harbor. Clearly, A which has the same longitude as E, cannot be a harbor and clearly, D having population 20 lacs cannot be an industrial town. So, it is a harbor. Thus, E and D are harbored. Clearly, one harbor is an industrial town but D is not. So, E is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, longitudes of a hill station and industrial town are the same. So, A having the same longitude as E is a hill station. Latitudes of D and C are same and D is the harbor. So, C cannot be a hill station. So, B is the other hill station. Thus, three plains are C, D, E. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. So, C is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, both harbors are capitals. So, E and D are capitals. The hill station A, having the same longitude as a harbor, is also a capital. The population of D is 20 lacs. So, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs. Clearly, only one hill station is the capital. So, C is the other capital. Clearly, the industrial towns C and E have a population of more than 50 lacs.
5. Which one of the following towns is hill station as well as capital?
    A. B B. C C. E D. D E. A

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: We analyze the given information as follows : Two are hill station. Three are plains of which two are harbors. Four towns are capitals. Two towns are industrial. Two towns have a population less than 5 lacs. One town has a population of 20 lacs. Two towns have a population of more than 50 lacs. Two towns are on same latitudes. B is a hill station. E is a harbor. Clearly, A which has the same longitude as E, cannot be a harbor and clearly, D having population 20 lacs cannot be an industrial town. So, it is a harbor. Thus, E and D are harbored. Clearly, one harbor is an industrial town but D is not. So, E is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, longitudes of a hill station and industrial town are the same. So, A having the same longitude as E is a hill station. Latitudes of D and C are same and D is the harbor. So, C cannot be a hill station. So, B is the other hill station. Thus, three plains are C, D, E. One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbor. So, C is an industrial town with a population of more than 50 lacs. Clearly, both harbors are capitals. So, E and D are capitals. The hill station A, having the same longitude as a harbor, is also a capital. The population of D is 20 lacs. So, the population of A and B is less than 5 lacs. Clearly, only one hill station is the capital. So, C is the other capital. The capitals are A, C, D and E. The hill stations are A and B. So, A is a hill station as well as a capital.
Venn Diagrams
1. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Rabi-Crop, Paddy and Wheat?

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Wheat and Paddy are different from each other but Wheat is the Rabi-Crop.
2. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Ass, Pet and Horse?

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Ass and Horse are different from each other but both are pet.
3. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teacher, Men, and Women?

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Men and Women are different from each other but some men may be teachers and some women may be teachers.
4. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Oil, Wick, and Lamp?

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Oil and Wick are different from each other but they both are used in the lamp.
5. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Football, Player and Field?

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Football, Players and Field all are different.
Puzzle
1. Which number replaces the question mark?

    A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The diagram contains two diamonds of 3x3 circles, arranged side by side, with the central 4 circles overlapping. Starting in the central left circle of each diamond, the numbers from 1 to 9 are written in lines, moving up and to the right. In the circles where the diamonds overlap, the values are added together to give the ones shown on the final diagram.
2. Which number replaces the question mark?

    A. 3 B. 1 C. 6 D. 14

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Add up the four outer numbers and place your answer in the centre square of the shape one place clockwise.
3. Which number replaces the question mark?

    A. 3 B. 5 C. 1 D. 7

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Split the grid in half vertically, to give two columns, 3 squares wide. Working from top to bottom, left then right, and reading each 3 square row as a whole 3 digit number, the columns follow the sequence of square numbers, from 10 to 21.
4. Which number replaces the question mark?

    A. 13 B. 2 C. 11 D. 1

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Taking any series of 3 numbers in a straight line in the diagram, their total is always 19.
5. Which number replaces the question mark?

    A. 34 B. 12 C. 2 D. 1

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Working from the top row, add the values in adjacent boxes and put this sum in the box directly below, working towards the centre. Repeat this pattern starting at the bottom row as well.
Data Sufficiency
Direction (1 - 5): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question D. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
1. How is T related to K? Statements: I. K has two sons; one of the sons is A. II. The mother of T has only two sons - Aand B.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: From II, we know that T's mother has only two sons, A and B. This implies that T is the sister of both A and B. But, from I, A is also K's son. So, T is the daughter of K.
2. What is the shortest distance between Devipur and Durgapur? Statements: I. Durgapur is 20 kms away from Rampur. II. Devipur is 15 kms away from Rampur.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Clearly, the distance of each village from Rampur is given in I and II. But nothing about their relative positions is mentioned. So, the distance between the two villages cannot be calculated.
3. How is A related to D? Statements: I. B is the brother of A. II. B is D's son.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: From I and II, we conclude that A is either son or daughter of D.
4. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash, and Kamal are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest? Statements: I. Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal but lighter than Akash. II. Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash but heavier than Kamal.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: From I, we have: P > M, P > K, A > P. Thus, A > P > M > K or A > P > K > M. So, Akash is the heaviest. From II, we have: P > M, A > M, M > K. Thus, A > P > M > K or P > A > M > K. So, either Akash or Prabhakar is the heaviest.
5. Vinod's and Javed's salaries are in the proportion of 4 : 3 respectively. What is Vinod's salary? Statements: I. Javed's salary is 75% that of Vinod's salary. II. Javed's salary is Rs 4500.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The statement I is merely an interpretation of the information contained in the question. However, Vinod's salary can be ascertained from II as follows : Let Vinod's and Javed's salaries be 4x and 3x respectively. Then, 3x = 4500 or x = 1500. Therefore Vinod's salary = 4x = Rs. 6000.
Statement- Conclusion
Direction (1 - 5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Give answer: A. If the only conclusion I follows B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either I or II follows D. If neither I nor II follows and E. If both I and II follow.
1. He stressed the need to stop the present examination system and its replacement by other methods which would measure the real merit of the students. Conclusions: I. Examinations should be abolished. II. The present examination system does not measure the real merit of the students.
    A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The statement stresses the need to adopt a new method of examination. So, I do not follow. However, II directly follows from the given statement.
2. Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months. Conclusions: I. Fashion designers do not understand the public mind very well. II. The public, by and large, is highly susceptible to novelty.
    A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The statement asserts that people cannot stand any particular trend for long and seek change quite often. So, only II follows.
3. Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless. Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand. II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.
    A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Nothing about the relation between political freedom and democracy is mentioned in the statement. So, I do not follow. But II directly follows from the given statement.
4. Quality has a price tag. India is allocating lots of funds to education. Conclusions: I. Quality of education in India would improve soon. II. Funding alone can enhance the quality of education.
    A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: According to the statement, funding is necessary to improve quality and India is allocating funds to education. This means that the quality of education will improve in India. So, I follow. But funding alone is sufficient to enhance quality, is not true. So, II does not follow.
5. Although we have rating agencies like Crisil, ICRA, there is a demand to have a separate rating agency for IT companies to protect investors. Conclusions: I. Assessment of financial worth of IT companies calls for a separate set of skills, insight, and competencies. II. Now the investors investing in IT companies will get the protection of their investment.
    A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The need for a separate rating agency for IT companies clearly indicates that such an assessment requires a separate set of skills. So, I follow. However, the statement indicates only the need or demand and neither the future course of action nor its after-effects can be judged. So, II does not follow.
Statement- Courses of Action
Direcion (1 - 5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer A. If only I follows B. If only II follows C. If either I or II follows D. If neither I nor II follows E. If both I and II follow.
1. The Secretary lamented that the electronic media was losing its credibility and that it should try to regain it by establishing better communications with the listeners and the viewers. He also emphasized the need for training to improve functioning. Courses of Action: I. Efforts should be made to get organized feedback on the programme. II. The critical areas in which the staff requires training should be identified.
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Clearly, both the courses directly follow from the pre-requisites mentioned in the statement.
2. Courts take too long in deciding important disputes of various departments. Courses of Action: I. Courts should be ordered to speed up matters. II. Special powers should be granted to officers to settle disputes concerning their department.
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Clearly, either the work in the court needs to be speeded up or the system is reorganized so that number of problems can be resolved at the lower levels itself, to provide speedy justice to the people. So, both the courses follow.
3. Certain mining industries in Gujarat may come to a standstill because of the notification issued by the Department of Environment and Forest banning mining operations and industries alike within 25 km of National Park, the game sanctuary and reserve forest areas. Courses of Action: I. The Department should be asked to immediately withdraw the notification. II. The Government should make an effort to shift the parks, sanctuaries and reserve forests to other non-mining areas.
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Clearly, none of the courses of action follows because firstly, the notification is issued to protect the natural environment and so cannot be withdrawn and secondly, the sanctuaries etc. cannot be shifted.
4. There have been many instances of the derailment of trains due to a landslide in the hilly areas which caused loss of many lives. Courses of Action: I. The railway authority should arrange to deploy pilot engines before the movement of passenger trains in the hilly areas to alert the trains in case of any landslide. II. The railway authority should strengthen the hill slopes by putting iron meshes so that the loose boulders do not fall on the track.
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Clearly, either something should be done to alert the trains well in advance in case of a landslide or some means should be adopted to prevent blockage of tracks during landslides. Thus, either I or II follows.
5. India today is midstream in its demographic transaction. In the last 60 years, there has been an almost continuous decline in mortality; while fertility has declined over the last 20 years. The consequence is that there has been a rapid growth in population over the last 50 years. Courses of Action: I. India should immediately revitalize its family planning programme. II. The Government should immediately launch a massive education programme through mass media highlighting the implication of population growth at the present rate.
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Clearly, to face the problem of the ever-growing population, an effective family planning programme, for the people to have small families, is a must. Education shall further stress the advantages of having a lesser number of children and the disasters of the fast growth in population. Thus, both the courses follow.
Decision Making
1. Amit Khanna, born on 5th June 1973 has done his post-graduation in Marketing Management with first class. He has secured 50 % marks in the written Test. He has been working in an organization as a Marketing Officer for the last four years.
    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured at least 40 % marks in the written test. C. is not less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. E. fulfills all other criteria except at (4) above but has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing. F. fulfills all other criteria except at (3) above but has worked as Maketting Officer at least for three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: All conditions of eligibility are satisfied.
2. Rohit Verma has been working in an organization as an officer for the last ten years. His date of birth is 17th February 1964. He has secured 60% marks in the degree examination and 40% marks in the written test.
    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured at least 40 % marks in the written test. C. is not less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. E. fulfills all other criteria except at (4) above but has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing. F. fulfills all other criteria except at (3) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Condition (3) is violated but it can be waived by condition (6), which is missing.
3. Manju Sharma is a first class graduate and has done a diploma in Marketing Management. She has secured 50% marks in the written test. She was 23 years old as on 5th September 1996.
    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured at least 40 % marks in the written test. C. is not less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. E. fulfills all other criteria except at (4) above but has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing. F. fulfills all other criteria except at (3) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The candidate satisfies all conditions except (4). But he fulfills condition (5) : (4) is waived.
4. Nitin Narang was born on 25th August 1975. He has secured 60% and 50% marks in graduation and in the written test, respectively. He has been working in an organization as Officer for the last four years.
    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured at least 40 % marks in the written test. C. is not less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. E. fulfills all other criteria except at (4) above but has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing. F. fulfills all other criteria except at (3) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: The candidate satisfies condition (6) instead of condition (3).
5. Suman Malhotra is a graduate with first class and has secured 60% marks in the written test. She has been working as an Officer for the last three years. She was born on 20th May 1972.
    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured at least 40 % marks in the written test. C. is not less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. E. fulfills all other criteria except at (4) above but has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing. F. fulfills all other criteria except at (3) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: All conditions of eligibility are satisfied.
Interpretation of Graphs etc.
Direction (1 - 5): The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who qualified an examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.

1. The difference between the percentage of candidates qualified to appeared was maximum in which of the following pairs of years?
    A. 1994 and 1995 B. 1997 and 1998 C. 1998 and 1999 D. 1999 and 2000

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The differences between the percentages of candidates qualified to appear for the give pairs of years are: For 1994 and 1995 = 50 - 30 = 20. For 1998 and 1999 = 80 - 80 = 0. For 1994 and 1997 = 50 - 30 = 20. For 1997 and 1998 = 80 - 50 = 30. For 1999 and 2000 = 80 - 60 = 20. Thus, the maximum difference is between the years 1997 and 1998.
2. In which pair of years was the number of candidates qualified, the same?
    A. 1995 and 1997 B. 1995 and 2000 C. 1998 and 1999 D. Data inadequate

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The graph gives the data for the percentage of candidates qualified to appeared and unless the absolute values of a number of candidates qualified or candidates appeared are know we cannot compare the absolute values for any two years. Hence, the data is inadequate to solve this question.
3. If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what did the number of candidates appear in 1998?
    A. 32000 B. 28500 C. 26500 D. 25000>

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The number of candidates appeared in 1998 be x. Then, 80% of x = 21200 => x = [latex]\frac{21200 \times 100}{80}[/latex] = 26500 (required number).
4. If the total number of candidates appeared in 1996 and 1997 together was 47400, then the total number of candidates qualified in these two years together was?
    A. 34700 B. 32100 C. 31500 D. Data inadequate

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The total number of candidates qualified in 1996 and 1997 together, cannot be determined until we know at least, the number of candidates appeared in any one of the two years 1996 or 1997 or the percentage of candidates qualified to appear in 1996 and 1997 together. Hence, the data is inadequate.
5. The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was 33500 and the number of candidates appeared in 1999 was 26500. What was the number of candidates in 2000?
    A. 24500 B. 22000 C. 20500 D. 19000

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The number of candidates qualified in 1999 = (80% of 26500) = 21200. Therefore Number of candidates qualified in 2000 = (33500 - 21200) = 12300. Let the number of candidates appeared in 2000 be x. Then, 60% of x = 12300 => x = [latex]\frac{(12300 \times 100)}{60}[/latex]= 20500.
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