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RRB NTPC General Awareness Second Stage

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RRB NTPC General Awareness Second Stage

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RRB NTPC (Non-Technical Popular Categories) 2019 – Second Stage Computer Based Test (CBT), conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 90 minutes [120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe], consists of 3 sections, namely – General Awareness, Mathematics and General Intelligence & Reasoning. The total number of questions are 120. The 3 sections are not separately timed. There is a Negative marking in RRB NTPC Second Stage CBT and 1/3rd marks are deducted for each wrong answer. The below sections gives the detailed information about RRB NTPC General Awareness in the Second Stage CBT.

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Exam Duration in Minutes No. of Questions (each of 1 mark) from Total No. of Questions
General Awareness Mathematics General Intelligence and Reasoning
90 50 35 35 120

The RRB NTPC General Awareness section in the Second Stage CBT, has the 50 objective questions. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Second Stage CBT of RRB NTPC General Awareness Section.

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[Click Here] for RRB NTPC Second Stage CBT Syllabus

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Current Events of National and International Importance
1. As per the report of CISCO, what is the position of India in General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) Index?
    A. 8th B. 6th C. 12th D. 5th

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: As per the report released by CISCO on 2019 Data Privacy Benchmark Study ranked India in 6th position in the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) readiness index. As per the report, 65% of India organization is better prepared for GDPR making India the 6th best-prepared nation to deal with the new data privacy regulation which all organizations operating within the European Union and European Economic Area are mandated to comply with.
2. What will be the position of India in Consumer Market By 2030?
    A. 5th B. 3rd C. 8th D. 12th

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: A report by the World Economic Forum stated that India is set to become the world's third largest consumer market behind only the USA and China by 2030. The report was titled as 'Future of Consumption in Fast-Growth Consumer Market - India'. As per the report, consumer spending in India is expected to grow from 1.5 trillion US dollar at present to six trillion US dollar by 2030. With the annual GDP growth rate of 7.5 percent, India is currently the world's sixth largest economy.
3. The Lok Sabha passed the 'DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019' on __________.
    A. 6 January 2019 B. 7 January 2019 C. 8 January 2019 D. 9 January 2019

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The Lok Sabha passed the 'DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2019' on 8 January 2019. It seeks to provide regulation for the use and application of DNA technology for the purpose of establishing the identity of a certain category of persons. The bill also seeks to establish a 'National DNA Data Bank' and 'Regional DNA Data Banks'.
4. The Central Government has given nod for Centre for Classical Language in which city of Kerala?
    A. Aluva B. Guruvayur C. Munnar D. Tirur

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The Union Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) has recently approved the establishment of a Centre for Classical Language at the Thunchath Ezhuthachan Malayalam University in Tirur, Kerala. The Ministry has communicated the decision to the Central Institute of Indian Languages, Mysuru. In view of this, the State government would be required to prepare a detailed project report and sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Ministry. The aim of the proposed centre is to study and research and other aspects of Malayalam language & will prove beneficial in implementing various projects for Malayalam language development. The centre would also assist the Malayalam University in its various initiatives.
5. Which of the following amendment bill will allow individuals to offer voluntarily biometric ID for opening a bank account and getting a mobile phone connection?
    A. Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2016 B. Aadhaar card (Amendment) 2019 C. Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2017 D. Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2018

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The Lok Sabha passed a Bill to amend the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2018. The amendment will allow individuals to offer voluntarily biometric ID as a means of identity verification for obtaining services such as opening a bank account and getting a mobile phone connection. The Bill also gives a minor the option to opt out of the 12-digit identity scheme on attaining the age of 18. It provides for stiff penalties for violation of norms set for the use of Aadhaar and bans service providers from storing core biometric information and Aadhaar number of individuals who voluntarily offer it as a means of authentication.
Games and Sports
1. Laksha Sen recently was in news. He is associated with which of the following sports?
    A. Football B. Cricket C. Squash D. Badminton

Answer: Option (D)
2. The award given for outstanding performance in sports is -
    A. Bharat Ratna B. Padma Shri Award C. Arjuna Award D. Dronacharya Award

Answer: Option (C)
3. In the 17th Asian Games, India secured 8th position in the Medal table and won the following number of total Medals -
    A. 55 Medals B. 53 Medals C. 59 Medals D. 57 Medals

Answer: Option (D)
Note: India ended the 17th Asian Games in Incheon with a total of 57 medals, including 11 gold, 10 silver, and 36 Bronze.
4. Hockey India League started in the year -
    A. 2010 B. 2011 C. 2012 D. 2013

Answer: Option (D)
5. Prabhash Joshi Award is given by Madhya Pradesh Government for which of the following Indian traditional sport?
    A. Kabaddi B. Mallakhamb C. Kho-Kho D. Atya-Patya

Answer: Option (B)
Art and Culture of India
1. Sattriya dance, which is one of the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions is from which of the following states?
    A. West Bengal B. Manipur C. Mizoram D. Assam

Answer: Option (D)
2. Which of the following temple in India was called as “The Black Pagoda” by the Europeans?
    A. Tirumala Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh B. Kamakhya Temple -Assam C. Konark Sun Temple, Orissa D. Jagannath Temple, Orissa

Answer: Option (C)
3. Monolithic human figures carved from a rock called Moai Statues, which are also counted under seven forgotten wonders of the medieval world are located in which country?
    A. Peru B. Brazil C. Argentina D. Chile

Answer: Option (D)
4. In which of the following states of India, a festival called Chapchar Kut is celebrated in March?
    A. Assam B. Mizoram C. Karnataka D. Sikkim

Answer: Option (B)
5. Which among the following is not located in Rajasthan?
    A. Karni Mata temple. B. Eklingji C. Junagarh Fort D. Narwar Fort

Answer: Option (D)
Indian Literature
1. Which Indian writer is also a member of the US President's Committee on the Arts and Humanities, appointed by U.S. President Barack Obama
    A. Arundhati Roy B. V.S. Naipaul C. Jhumpa Lahiri D. Salman Rushdie

Answer: Option (C)
2. In 2011 who wins the Pulitzer Prize for the book 'The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer'
    A. Siddhartha Mukherjee B. Geeta Anand C. Jhumpa Lahiri D. Gobind Behari Lal

Answer: Option (A)
3. Jhumpa Lahiri wins the Pulitzer Prize in the section of
    A. Public Service B. Fiction C. Poetry D. Drama

Answer: Option (B)
4. Who is the author of the book 'Hajar Churashir Maa'
    A. Aparna Sen B. Taslima Nasrin C. Ashapoorna Devi D. Mahasweta Devi

Answer: Option (D)
5. Who was the first elected fellow of Sahitya Akademi Fellowship?
    A. C. Rajagopalachari B. D. R. Bendre C. Dr. S Radhakrishnan D. Gopinath Kaviraj

Answer: Option (C)
Monuments and Places of India
1. Where Ellora caves are situated?
    A. Madhya Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. Andhra Pradesh D. Rajasthan

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The Ellora Caves are an important UNESCO World Heritage site and an archaeological site, ranging 29 kilometers Northwest of the city of Aurangabad. The Ellora Caves are well known for their Indian-rock cut architecture. There are about 34 rock-cut temples and caves which can be dated to about 600 to 1000 AD, are important in terms of understanding the lives of the people living in these times. The presence of Hindu, Buddhist and Jain temples and sculptures portray the tolerance which was extended towards different faiths and beliefs in Ancient Indian History. The excavated site consists of Charanandri Hills, Buddhist Hindu and Jain rock-cut temples, Viharas and Maths of 5th and 10th century.
2. Where are The Elephanta Caves situated in India?
    A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu C. Maharashtra D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: The Elephanta caves are located on an island in the Arabian City, not very far from the city of Mumbai. The chain of sculpted caves located on Elephanta Island is also known as Gharapuri. There are numerous archaeological remains which offer us a glimpse into the rich. cultural past of Indian civilization. These caves are famous for their rock-cut sculptures and carvings depicting Shiva as the Creator and the Destroyer of the Universe. The most important of all the caves here is Cave 1, where one can see the Sadashiva at the entrance of the cave, which depicts 3 sides of Shiva: as the Creator, Preserver, and Destroyer. The caves are carved in solid basalt rock and lie 10 kilometers east to the city of Mumbai.
3. Which heritage site is famous for its Chalukya style of architecture?
    A. Buland Darwaza B. Rani ki vav C. Pattadakal D. Sun temple

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Pattadakal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and an important tourist site located in Karnataka. It is famous for its Chalukya style of architecture that originated in Aihole and blended with the Nagara and Dravidian styles of architecture. It is at Pattadakal that all the Chalukya kings were coronated and was the capital of the Chalukyas as well. Notable for the numerous temples constructed by the Chalukya rulers, it includes 8 temples dedicated to Lord Shiva and Jain and Shaivite sanctuaries. The important monuments are- Virupaksha Temple, Sangameshwara Temple, Chandrashekhara Temple, MallikarjuTemple, Kashi Vishwanath Temple, Jagannath Temple, Jain Temple and many more.
4. Which of the following is not true about elephant caves?
    A. In 1987, Elephanta Caves were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site. B. Caves are made from solid rock. C. Portuguese renamed these caves as Elephanta D. These caves are excavated during the 11th century.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The Elephanta caves are located on an island in the Arabian City, not very far from the city of Mumbai. The chain of sculpted caves located on Elephanta Island is also known as Gharapuri. There are numerous archaeological remains which offer us a glimpse into the rich. cultural past of Indian civilization. These caves are famous for their rock-cut sculptures and carvings depicting Shiva as the Creator and the Destroyer of the Universe. The most important of all the caves here is Cave 1, where one can see the Sadashiva at the entrance of the cave, which depicts 3 sides of Shiva: as the Creator, Preserver, and Destroyer. The caves are carved in solid basalt rock and lie 10 kilometers east to the city of Mumbai.
5. Which was a center of learning and a Buddhist monastery from 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE?
    A. Red Ford B. Qutub Minar C. Jantar Mantar D. Nalanda

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Nalanda Archaeological Site in Bihar was a center of learning and a Buddhist monastery from 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. You can witness the remains of stupas, shrines, and viharas if you stroll around in the campus which is a manifestation of a glorious epoch. Nalanda vouched for the evolution of Buddhism as a religion and remained an abode of knowledge for 800 years. Known for its formalized Vedic learning, scholars from as far as Tibet, China, Korea, and Central Asia once attended this first residential university of the World. This is the second world heritage site recognized by UNESCO in Bihar itself, making it even more prominent on Indian Tourism Map.
General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE)
1. Which is a communicable disease?
    A. Asthma B. Scurvy C. Measles D. Diabetes

Answer: Option (C)
2. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
    A. Tuberculosis: Lungs B. Filaria: Lymph nodes C. Encephalitis: Heart D. Leukemia: Blood cells

Answer: Option (C)
3. Which of the following has the highest protein content per gram?
    A. Groundnut B. Soybean C. Apple D. Wheat

Answer: Option (B)
4. Which of the following have Alpha-keratin as protein?
    A. Blood B. Eggs C. Skin D. Wool

Answer: Option (D)
5. Mushrooms are/can be:
    A. A variety of fungus B. Fleshy, fruiting bodies of the fungus C. Grown in small sheds or plots D. All the above

Answer: Option (D)
History of India and Freedom Struggle
1. Who had founded the Independent League?
    A. Motilal Nehru B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Ras Behari Bose D. Lala Lajpat Rai E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
2. During India’s struggle for independence who was the first to start “Satyagraha”?
    A. Sardar Patel B. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Vinoba Bhave D. Mahatma Gandhi E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
3. Sabarmati Ashram, established by Mahatma Gandhi during the course of India’s Independence movement is located on the outskirt of?
    A. Gandhinagar B. Ahmedabad C. Rajkot D. Wardha E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
4. Who of the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attended freedom?
    A. C. Rajagopalachari B. Acharya B. Kripalani C. Mahatma Gandhi D. Jai Prakash Narayan E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
5. Gandhiji took up Dandi March as the Civil Disobedience Movement on?
    A. 31st Dec 1929 B. 26th Jan 1930 C. 12th Mar 1930 D. 6th April 1930 E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World
1. Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?
    A. India and Pakistan B. India and China C. India and Bangladesh D. India and Nepal

Answer: Option (A)
2. Which of the following countries are divided by the Durand Line?
    A. Afghanistan and Pakistan B. India and Pakistan C. India and China D. India and Burma

Answer: Option (A)
3. Where is India's permanent research station Dakshin Gangotri?
    A. The great Himalayas B. Indian Ocean C. Antarctica D. Arabian Sea

Answer: Option (C)
4. Which of the following Indian state touches the boundaries of the maximum number of other States?
    A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar C. Madhya Pradesh D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: Option (D)
5. Consider the following statement (s) related to the Eastern Himalayas
I. Lie to the east of 88 degrees east longitude between the Tista and the Brahmaputra River II. Large tracks are covered with dense evergreen forests Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Answer: Option (C)
Indian Polity and Governance - constitution and political system
1. Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?
    A. Universal Adult Franchise B. Secret Voting C. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes D. Communal Electorate

Answer: Option (D)
2. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by.....
    A. President B. Prime Minister C. Governor D. Election Commission of India

Answer: Option (D)
3. Members of Election Commission are appointed by........
    A. President of India B. Prime Minister of India C. Elected by the people D. Chief Justice of India

Answer: Option (A)
4. Which article of Indian constitution says that will be an election commission in India?
    A. Article 124 B. Article 342 C. Article 324 D. Article 115

Answer: Option (C)
5. The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok Sabha is:
    A. 59 B. 79 C. 89 D. 99

Answer: Option (B)
General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India
1. In which rays Mesons are found?
    A. Beta rays B. Gamma rays C. Cosmic rays D. Laser rays

Answer: Option (D)
2. Thermonuclear bomb works on the principle of:
    A. Fission B. Fusion C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
3. What are isotopes?
    A. Elements having an equal number of protons but different neutrons. B. Elements having an equal number of neutrons but different protons. C. Elements having an equal number of protons and neutrons. D. Elements having an equal number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Answer: Option (A)
4. During an atomic explosion, the energy released is due to:
    A. Conversion of protons into neutrons. B. Conversion of chemical energy into heat energy. C. Conversion of mechanical energy into nuclear energy. D. Conversion of mass into energy.

Answer: Option (D)
5. Who demonstrated that the mass of an atom is located in the nucleus?
    A. Bohr B. Thomson C. Rutherford D. Geiger-Marsden

Answer: Option (C)
UN and Other important World Organizations
1. Which government accepted a UN proposed peace agreement to end civil war?
    A. Syria B. Colombia C. Yemen D. None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 1. The Yemeni government has accepted a UN-proposed peace agreement to end the civil war in the country. 2. The precondition is Houthi rebels and ex-President Saleh needs to sign the deal by Aug 7. 3. Deal abolishes supreme political council set up by them and nullifies all its decisions. 4. Yemen has been torn by conflict since 2014 when Houthi rebels allied with groups loyal to Saleh stormed the capital Sanaa and forced the government into exile.
2. CAG India is currently in which city to attend the 70th Regular Session of the UN Board of Auditors?
    A. New York B. New Jersey C. Washington D. Paris

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: 1. Shri Shashi Kant Sharma, CAG India is currently attending the 70th regular session of the UN Board of Auditors at the New York Headquarters. 2. Along with Auditor Generals of Tanzania and the UK, Sharma signed 11 UN Audit reports approved by the Board. 3. The reports will be presented to UNGA and UNICEF, UNHCR, UNDP, etc.
3. CUNPK commenced the first UNPCAP-01. What does CUNPK stand for?
    A. Centre for United Nations Peacekeepers B. Centre for United National Peacekeeping C. Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping D. None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: 1. Centre for United Peacekeeping in India (CUNPK) commenced the first United Nations Peacekeeping Course for African Partners. 2. The course commenced for three weeks from July 25 in New Delhi. 3. It is being conducted jointly with the US. 4. Indian Army has acquired decades of experience through participation in UN Peace Keeping Operations.
4. UN cultural agency on 14th July 2016 indicated how many work heritage sites in Libya to be under threat from armed terrorists and militia in the region?
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: 1. UN’s cultural agency on 14th July 2016 added the five World Heritage sites to the danger list indicating armed militias pose a grave danger to archaeological treasures. 2. Sites named by UNESCO include the Old City of Ghadames referred to as the pearl of the desert and Hellenic archaeological site Cyrene. 3. Rock art sites of Tadrart Acacus on the border with Algeria also features thousands of cave paintings dating back to 12000 BC to 100 AD. 4. The other two are the coastal archaeological sites of Leptis Magna and Sabbath. 5. Since the 2011 led NATO military inflation, Libya has been in grips of conflict killing thousands of militia.
5. Which country has nominated UN climate chief Christiana Figueres to be the next UN Secretary General? She is the ___, such candidate, to enter the race.
    A. 12th B. 13th C. 14th D. 15th

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: 1. Costa Rica nominated former United Nations climate chief Christiana Figueres to be the next UN Secretary General. 2. This makes her the 12th candidate to enter the race ahead of the first Security Council secret ballot. 3. UN and the world need a Secretary General who is a bridge builder and Figueres figures in the list.
Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large
1. Which part of the Himalayas are covered with dense forest?
    A. Southern B. Northern C. Eastern D. Western

Answer: Option (C)
2. A very large ecosystem on land having a distinct type of vegetation and wildlife is called?
    A. Ecology B. Biome C. Biodiversity D. Biosphere reserve

Answer: Option (B)
3. Which of the following country has the highest biodiversity?
    A. India B. Brazil C. Russia D. South Africa

Answer: Option (B)
4. In which of the following areas we will find pitcher plant?
    A. Sunderban Deltas B. Thar desert C. Western Ghats D. Rain forests of North-East India

Answer: Option (D)
5. Which of the following features is not related to the Biodiversity hot spots?
    A. A large number of species B. The abundance of endemic species C. A large number of exotic species D. Destruction of habitat

Answer: Option (D)
Basics of Computers and Computer Applications
1. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets?
    A. Java B. Cobal C. Domain name D. Net E. COBOL

Answer: Option (A)
2: ……………… are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
    A. Control words B. Control structures C. Reserved words D. Reserved keys E. None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
3: C ++ language developed by?
    A. Dennis Ritchie B. Charles Babbage C. Niklaus Wirth D. Bjarne Stroustrup E. John McCarthy

Answer: Option (D)
4: In programming, repeating some statements are usually called
    A. looping B. control structure C. compiling D. structure E. None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
5: F O R T R A N stands for
    A. Formal Translation B. Formative Translation C. Formal Transaction D. Formal Translation E. Formula Translation

Answer: Option (E)
Common Abbreviations
1. What is the full form of "UNI"?
    A. United Nation of India B. United News of India C. Universal Nutrition India D. United Nation Information

Answer: Option (B)
2. What is the full form of "UPSC"?
    A. United Public Service Commission B. United Public School Committee C. Union Public Service Commission D. Union Public Service Council

Answer: Option (C)
3. What is the full form of "VIP"?
    A. Very Immediate Person B. Very Important Person C. Very Interesting Person D. Very Inspirational Person

Answer: Option (B)
4. What is the full form of "VIRUS"?
    A. Various Information Resources Under Stage B. Vital Information Resources Under Siege C. Various Information Resource Unlimited Storage D. Vital Images Reviews Universal Studios

Answer: Option (B)
5. What is the full form of "VPI"?
    A. Virtual Path Identifier B. Various Path Identification C. Virtual Private Internet D. Various Private Institutes

Answer: Option (A)
Transport Systems in India
1. Which was the first Indian private airline to launch flights to China?
    A. Jet Airways B. Sahara Airlines C. Kingfisher Airlines D. Indigo

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: On June 15, 2008, Jet Airways became the first Indian private airline to launch flights to China opening a new service connecting Mumbai to Shanghai to San Francisco.
2. When was Pawan Hans Ltd. introduced?
    A. May 1960 B. October 1985 C. October 1986 D. April 1995

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Since October 1985 a helicopter service run by the Pawan Hans Ltd. has been introduced, with the objective of meeting the requirements of the petroleum sector, including ONGC. Pawan Han also operates services to remote areas and difficult terrains provide tourist services and undertake intra-city transportation for the carriage of passengers and mail.
3. When was International Airport Authority of India (IAAI) set up?
    A. 1960 B. 1972 C. 1985 D. 1986

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The International Airport Authority of India ( IAAI) was set up in 1972 which operates, manages, maintains, plans, and develops international airports.
4. When was the Airports Authority of India proposed?
    A. September 18, 1992 B. April 1, 1995 C. June 1, 2004 D. March 31, 2005

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: By merging quondam National Airports Authority (NAA) and International Airports Authority of India (IAAI), the Airports Authority of India was proposed on
April 1, 1995. The AAI is responsible for managing, constructing, maintaining, developing and other operational functioning at 115 airports including 23 Civil Enclaves.
5. When was Shipping Corporation of India Ltd. established?
    A. October 2, 1961 B. October 27, 1986 C. September 18, 1992 D. January 26, 1998

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The Shipping Corporation of India was established on October 2, 1961, by the integration of Eastern Shipping Corporation and Western Shipping Corporation.
Starting out as a marginal Linear shipping Company with just 19 vessels, the SCI has today germinated into the largest Indian shipping Company. Over the years, SCI has been a seam for the country in times of crisis and distress, by guaranteeing the continued and round-the-clock supply of crude oil, which drives the country’s economy.
Indian Economy
1. The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in
    A. Wells Agreement B. Bretton Woods Agreement C. Taylors Agreement D. None of the above

Answer: Option (B)
2. In the state of India, the State Financial Corporation have given assistance mainly to develop
    A. agricultural farms B. cottage industry C. large-scale industries D. medium and small-scale industries

Answer: Option (D)
3. The central co-operative banks are in direct touch with
    A. farmers B. state co-operative banks C. land development banks D. central government

Answer: Option (B)
4. The first wholly Indian Bank was set up in
    A. 1794 B. 1894 C. 1896 D. 1902

Answer: Option (B)
5. States earn maximum revenue through
    A. land revenue B. custom revenue C. commercial taxes D. excise duties on intoxicants

Answer: Option (C)
Famous Personalities of India and World
1. Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society in India and started the Home Rule League?
    A. Annie Besant B. Acharya Narendra Dev C. Lal-Bal-Pal D. None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
2. Who among the following known as Pocket Hercules?
    A. Mike Tyson B. Manohar Aich C. Manotosh Roy D. Muhammad Ali

Answer: Option (B)
3. Who was the first president of Uzbekistan?
    A. Abdulhashim Mutalov B. Oʻtkir Sultonov C. Islam Karimov D. Nigmatilla Yuldashev

Answer: Option (C)
4. Which of the following eminent personalities who was the ninth monarch of Thailand from the Chakri Dynasty as Rama IX?
    A. Sirikit Kitiyakara B. Vajiralongkorn C. Ananda Mahidol D. Bhumibol Adulyadej

Answer: Option (D)
5. Who became the first woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest, and the first woman to ascend all Seven Summits by climbing the highest peak on every continent?
    A. Junko Tabei B. Bachendri Pal C. Santosh Yadav D. Premlata Agarwal

Answer: Option (A)
Flagship Government Programs
1. Which of the following option is incorrect regarding Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
    A. It was launched in the year 2013. B. It is a financial inclusion scheme. C. It aimed at ensuring that every family has at least one bank account. D. It provides a Rupay Debit card with one lakh rupee accidental cover.

Answer: Option (A)
2. The Swavalamban Scheme was launched in the year?
    A. 2008 B. 2010 C. 2012 D. 2014

Answer: Option (B)
3. In respect of Commercial Banks which entity monitors the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme?
    A. NABARD B. SIDBI C. RBI D. SBI

Answer: Option (C)
4. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is operationalized by?
    A. State Government B. RBI C. SIDBI D. NABARD

Answer: Option (D)
5. Which of the following option is correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Beema Yojana?
    A. It is a one-year life insurance scheme. B. It is available in the age group of 18 to 50 years. C. It is renewable from year to year. D. All of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Flora and Fauna of India
1. Which is the only animal in the world to have four horns?
    A. Elk (Alces alces) B. Chausingha (Tetracerus quadricornis) C. Black Buck (Antilope cer – vicapra) D. Bharal (Pseudonis nayaur)

Answer: Option (B)
2. Name the only country in the world where both the lion (Panthera leo) and the tiger (Panthera tigris) are found in the wild:
    A. Uganda B. Zaire C. Pakistan D. India

Answer: Option (D)
3. A revolutionary but unpopular step is being taken in Namibia under the aegis of the Operation Bicornis to save the black rhino from eventual extinction from horn– poaching. What is the strategy?
    A. Tranquilizing and dehorning B. Ranching all rhinos C. Keeping all rhinos in zoos D. Electrifying the fences of rhino reserves

Answer: Option (A)
4. Name the tanker that gutted itself on Bligh Reef and spilled 11 million gallons of crude oil into Alaska’s Prince William Sound on March 24, 1989. The incident took the lives of more than 100,000 birds:
    A. Sagar Kanya B. Exxon Valdez C. Amoco Cadiz D. Hathi

Answer: Option (B)
5. Which bird constructs the largest unit nest structure in the world?
    A. Red-billed Quelea (Quelea quelea) B. Sociable Weaver (Philetairus socius) C. Mountain Drongo (Chaetorhynchus papuensis) D. Ostrich (Struthio camelus)

Answer: Option (B)
Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.
1. Which of the following subject comes under the Central Government?
    A. Banking B. Agriculture C. Prison D. Public health

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Union Government has 100 subjects under the union list which includes defense, banking, currency, atomic energy, insurance, and communication etc.
2. How many topics are currently covered in the concurrent list?
    A. 100 B. 57 C. 61 D. 52

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Currently, there are 52 subjects in the concurrent list. Originally there were 47 subjects.
3. Which subject comes under the concurrent list?
    A. Newspaper B. Fisheries C. Market D. Census

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Concurrent list comprises Population, marriage and divorce, drugs, newspaper, books and printing press.
4. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
    A. Union List: Insurance B. State list: Agriculture C. Concurrent list: Communication D. Both A and B

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Communication is covered under the centre list.
5. In which Part of the Indian constitution, Central-State relations are mentioned.
    A. Part XI B. Part X C. Part IV D. Part XII

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Central-State relations are mentioned from article 245 to 255 in Part XI of the constitution.
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