Q1. Development expenditure of the Central government does not include

A. Defence expenditure B. Expenditure on economic services C. Expenditure on social and community services D. Grant to states

Answer: A
Q2. What is the base year to calculate the National income in India?

A. 2004-05 B. 2010-11 C. 2014-15 D. 2011-12

Answer: D
Q3. Which of the following schemes have been subsumed in the recently approved Ayushman Bharat – National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM)?

A. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) B. Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS) C. National Life Insurance Scheme D. 1 & 2

Answer: D
Q4. In which among the following years, a new “Liberalized Industrial Policy” in India was announced for the first time?

A. 1986 B. 1991 C. 1992 D. 1993

Answer: B
Q5. Which state in India is the major producer of mulberry silk?

A. Karnataka B. Kerala C. Hyderabad D. Chennai

Answer: A
Q6. Who was the first administrator-statesman to attempt planning as a means for economic development?

A. Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyyar B. M Viswesvarayya C. VT Krishnamachari D. C Rajagopalachari

Answer: B
Q7. The main objective of TRYSEM was

A. A. To train rural youth for self-employment B. To train urban youth for self-employment C. Both of the above D. None of these

Answer: A
Q8. National Income estimates in India are prepared by

A. Planning Commission B. Reserve Bank of India C. Central statistical organization D. Indian Statistical Institute

Answer: C
Q9. Which was the first bank with limited liability managed by Indians?

A. Punjab National Bank B. Oudh Commercial Bank C. State Bank of India D. Bank of Baroda

Answer: B
Q10. What is the position of India by GDP (nominal) according to International Monetary Fund list, 2012

A. Third B. Fifth C. Tenth D. Twelve

Answer: C
Q11. Who is the father of Economics?

A. Max Muller B. Adam Smith C. Karl Marx D. None of these above

Answer: B
Q12. When the productive capacity of the economic system of a State is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called

A. Seasonal unemployment B. Structural unemployment C. Disguised unemployment D. Cyclical unemployment

Answer: B
Q13. In India, planned economy is based on

A. Gandhian System B. Socialist System C. Capitalist System D. Mixed Economy Syste

Answer: B
Q14. Which country is not a member of SAARC?

A. India B. Myanmar C. Bangladesh D. Pakistan

Answer: B
Q15. Indian's economy planning CANNOT be said to be :

A. Indicative B. Imperative C. Limited D. Democratic

Answer: B
Q16. What is the base year for computation of National Income in India?

A. 1976-77 B. 1993-94 C. 1985-86 D.

Answer: B
Q17. Which of the following authority regulates insurance business in India?

A. SEBI B. RBI C. IRDA D. CII

Answer: C
Q18. The type of note issue system followed in India is :

A. Maximum fiduciary system B. Minimum reserve system C. Proportional fiduciary system D. Fixed fiduciary system

Answer: B
Q19. Aam Admi Bima Yojana was launched on:

A. November 14, 2011 B. March 5, 2009 C. March 10, 2008 D. October 2, 2007

Answer: D
Q20. Indian economy is more appropriately described as a ______economy

A. Capitalist B. Mixed C. Socialist D. Agricultural

Answer: B
Q21. Where did British first open their factories in Eastern part of India?

A. Assam B. Orissa C. Bihar D. Sikkim

Answer: B
Q22. Under Akbar, the Mir Bakshi was required to look after

A. Military affairs B. The state treasury C. The royal household D. The land revenue system

Answer: A
Q23. To perform which among the following functions, Rajukas were appointed by Asoka?

A. Revenue Functions B. Judicial Functions C. Religious Functions D. Military Functions

Answer: B
Q24. The staple food of the Vedic Aryan was

A. Barley and rice B. Milk and its products C. Rice and pulses D. Vegetables and fruits

Answer: B
Q25. Which among the following is not a correct pair?

A. Ellora Caves – Rastrakuta Rulers B. Mahabalipuram – Pallava Rulers C. Khajuraho – Chandelles D. Elephanta Caves – Mauyra Era

Answer: D
Q26. The swaraj party was formed by

A. Nehru B. Tilak C. Gandhiji D. C.R.Das

Answer: D
Q27. Which of these battles proved decisive in the Anglo-French rivalry in India?

A. Battle of Wandiwash B. Battle of Assaye C. Battle of Chillianwala D. Battle of Seringapatam

Answer: A
Q28. Which of the following is correct?

A. "The First War of Independence: 1857" B. "The Champaran Satygrah": 1917 C. "The Quit India Movement " : 1942 D. All the above

Answer: D
Q29. Who established the Mughal Dynasty?

A. Akbar B. Babur C. Humayun D. Bahadur Shah

Answer: B
Q30. Who among the following introduced the subsidiary alliance system in India?

A. Lord Clive B. Lord Wellesley C. Lord Cunningham D. Lord Canning

Answer: B
Q31. Which of the following sites is famous for stupas, monasteries, temples and pillars?

A. Gooty B. Hatta C. Sanchi D. Amarjpura

Answer: C
Q32. Who said, “The congress is tottering to its fall, and one of my great ambitions, while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” Said by

A. Lord Dufferin B. Lord Curzon C. Aurobindo Ghosh D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: B
Q33. The word ‘Hindu” as a reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by:

A. The Greeks B. The Romans C. The Chinese D. The Arabs

Answer: D
Q34. Which Indian king did the ancient Greeks refer to as Sandrocottas?

A. Ashoka B. Chanakya C. Chandragupta Maurya D. Alexander the Great

Answer: C
Q35. The Battle of Plassey was fought in

A. 1757 B. 1782 C. 1748 D. 1764

Answer: A
Q36. Who is the founder of Haryanka Dynasty?

A. Ajatshatru B. Harshvardhan C. Bimbisar D. Ghananand

Answer: C
Q37. The real name of Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II was__:

A. Ahmed Shah Durrani B. Ali Gauhar C. Alamgir II D. Mirza Najaf Khan

Answer: B
Q38. Samundragupta period was :

A. 335 - 380 AD B. 330 - 380 AD C. 325 - 380 AD D. 315 - 380 AD

Answer: A
Q39. During the colonial rule in India, the Permanent Settlement was introduced by?

A. Lord Bentick B. Lord Cornwallis C. Lord Curzon D. Lord Wellesely

Answer: B
Q40. Who among the following, was in charge of land revenue system during the reign of Akbar?

A. Abul Fazl B. Birbal C. Man Singh D. Todar Mal

Answer: D

Q1. A and B can together do a piece of work in 6 days and A alone can do it in 9 days. The number of days B will take to do it alone is?

A. 18 days B. 24 days C. 9 days D. 12 days

Answer: A
Explanation: Efficiency of B = 3 - 2
B alone can do it = [latex]\frac {18}{1} [/latex] = 18 days.
Q2. A man can row upstream at 12 km/hr and downstream at 18 km/hr. The man’s rowing speed in still water is?

A. 15 km/hr B. 5 km/hr C. 3 km/hr D. 10 km/hr

Answer: A
Explanation: Let V = Speed of boat in still water
V = Speed of Current
V + U = 18 km/h
V - U = 12 km/h
V = 15 km/h
Q3. If 8% of a number is added to it, the result is 810 what is that number?

A. 700 B. 750 C. 722 D. 745

Answer: B
Explanation: Let the Number be x
x + [latex]\frac {8}{100} \times x[/latex] = 810
[latex] \Rightarrow [/latex] x [latex] \times \frac {108}{100} [/latex] = 810
[latex] \Rightarrow [/latex] x = [latex]\frac {810 \times 100}{108} [/latex] = 750
Q4. Which amongst the following is less than 1/5?

A. [latex]\frac {8}{35}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac {8}{37}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac {2}{11}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac {8}{39}[/latex]

Answer: C
Explanation: [latex]\frac {2}{11}[/latex]
[latex]\frac {2}{11} < \frac {1}{5}[/latex]
Q5. Profit of Rs. 960 is divided between A and B in the ratio 1/3:1/2. The difference of their profit is:-

A. Rs. 120 B. Rs. 160 C. Rs. 192 D. Rs. 240

Answer: C
Explanation:
Difference of Profit = (3 - 2) [latex]\times 192 [/latex] = RS. 192
Q6. How much time will be taken by a train 100 metres long to cross a pole at the speed of 40 km/hr.?

A. 9 sec B. 10 sec C. 9 [latex]\frac {2}{3}[/latex] D. 9 [latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex]

Answer: A
Explanation: Time = [latex]\frac {Distance}{Speed}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac {100 m}{40 \times \frac {5}{18} m / sec}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac {100 \times 18} {40 \times 5} [/latex] = 9 sec
Q7. chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre of the circle is:

A. 8 cm B. 6 cm C. 4 cm D. 12 cm

Answer: B
Explanation: [latex]{10}^{2} = {8}^{2} + {x}^{2}[/latex]
x = 6 cm
Q8. If in ∆ABC, DE||BC, AB = 7.5cm, BD = 6cm and DE = 2cm, then the length of BC in cm is:

A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 10 . 5

Answer: C
Explanation: [latex]\triangle ABC \approx \triangle ADE[/latex]
[latex]\frac {AB}{AD} = \frac {BC}{DE}[/latex]
[latex]\frac {7.5}{1.5} = \frac {BC}{2}[/latex]
BC = 10 cm
Q9. [latex]\sqrt {4410} + 350 \times \frac {2}{5}[/latex]

A. 200 B. 450 C. 250 D. 350

Answer: D
Explanation: [latex]\sqrt {4410} + 350 \times \frac {2}{5}[/latex]
= 210 + 70 [latex]\times 2[/latex] = 350
Q10. In a city, 40% of the people are poor. If total population of city is 30,000 then find the number of rich people

A. 20000 B. 18000 C. 12000 D. 12500

Answer: B
Explanation: % of Rich people = 100 - 40 = 60 %
Number of Rich people = 60 % of 30000 = 18000
Q11. If tanA – cotA = x, then value of x is?

A. [latex]\frac {(1 + 2cos2A)}{(sinA cosA)}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac {(sinA cosA)}{(1 – 2cos2A)}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac {(sinA cosA)}{(1 + 2cos2A)}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac {(1 – 2cos2A)}{(sinA cosA)}[/latex]

Answer: D
Explanation: tan A - cot A = x
[latex]\frac {SinA}{CosA} - \frac {CosA}{SinA} [/latex] = x
[latex]\frac {{{Sin}^{2}A} - {{Cos}^{2}A}}{{SinA}{CosA}} [/latex] = x
[latex]\frac {1 - 2 {{Cos}^{2}A}} {{SinA}{CosA}}[/latex] = x
Q12. What is the equation of the line passing through the point (-1,3) and having x-intercept of 4 units?

A. 3x – 5y = 12 B. 3x + 5y = 12 C. 3x + 5y = -12 D. 3x – 5y = -12

Answer: B
Explanation: Slope = [latex]\frac {{y}_{2} - {y}_{1}} {{x}_{2} - {x}_{1}} = \frac {(0 - 3)} {(4 - (-1))} = \frac {- 3}{5}[/latex]
Equation of line [latex]\Rightarrow (y - 0) = \frac {- 3}{5} (x - 4)[/latex]
5 y = - 3 x + 12
= 3 x + 5 y = 12
Q13. 25% discount is offered on an item. By applying a promo code the customer wins 8% cash back. What is the effective discount?

A. 35.75 percent B. 35 percent C. 31 percent D. 12.5 percent

Answer: C
Explanation: Effective Discount = [latex]{D}_{1} + {D}_{2} - \frac {{D}_{1} \times {D}_{2}}{100}[/latex]
= 25 + 8 - [latex]\frac {25 \times 8}{100}[/latex]
= 31 %
Q14. Prabhat has done 1/2 of a job in 12 days. Santosh completes the rest of the job in 6 days. In how many days can they together do the job?

A. 12 days B. 4 days C. 8 days D. 16 days

Answer: C
Explanation: No. of days required to complete the work together
= [latex]\frac {24}{1 + 2}[/latex] = 8 days.
Q15. x and y are two numbers such that their mean proportion is 16 and third proportion is 128. What is the value of x and y?

A. 8 and [latex] \frac {16} {8} [/latex] B. 16 and [latex] \frac {32} {16} [/latex] C. 8 and [latex] \frac {32} {8} [/latex] D. 16 and [latex] \frac {16} {16} [/latex]

Answer: C
Explanation: ATQ
[latex]\frac {x}{y} = \frac {y}{128}[/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow {y}^{2} = 128[/latex] ----------------------1
And,
[latex]\sqrt {xy} = 16[/latex]
xy = 256 ----------------2 From 1 and 2 x = 8 and y = 32.
Q16. In the first 32 overs of a cricket match, the run rate was 7.2 runs/over. What is the required run rate in the remaining 18 overs to reach the target of 297 runs?

A. 4.3 B. 4.9 C. 3.1 D. 3.7

Answer: D
Explanation: Total Runs made till 32 overs = 32 [latex]\times 7.2[/latex] = 230.4 runs
Remaining runs to be made = 297 - 230.4 = 66.6 runs
therefore, Required run rate = [latex]\frac {66.6}{18}[/latex] = 3.7
Q17. Chord AB of a circle when extended meets the tangent to the circle at point P. PT is the tangent touching the circle at point T. If lengths of PT and PB are 6 cm and 4 cm respectively, what is the length of PA?

A. 12 cm B. 18 cm C. 27 cm D. 9 cm

Answer: D
Explanation: [latex]P {T}^{2} = PA \times PB[/latex]
36 = 4 [latex] \times [/latex] PA
PA = 9 cm.
Q18. A student multiplied a number by 4/5 instead of 5/4. What is the percentage error in the calculation?

A. 56.25 percent B. 18 percent C. 28.13 percent D. 36 percent

Answer: D
Explanation: Let the no. be 20 x [L. C. M of 4 and 5]
Wrong Multiplication = [latex] 20 x \times \frac {4}{5} = 16 x[/latex]
Right Multiplication = [latex] 20 x \times \frac {5}{4} = 25 x[/latex]
% Error = [latex] \frac {25 x - 16 x}{25 x} \times 100[/latex] = 36 %
Q19. Ruchir walks at 20 km/hr and Rukma cycles at 25 km/hr towards each other. What was the distance between them when they started if they meet after 48 minutes?

A. 54 km B. 45 km C. 36 km D. 27 km

Answer: C
Explanation: In 1 hour they together travel (20 + 25) kms towards each other
[latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] 60 min [latex]\rightarrow [/latex] 45 km
48 min [latex]\rightarrow \frac {45}{60} \times [/latex] 48 km
= 36 km.
Q20. A vendor buys chikoos at 15 for Rs 8 and then sells at 10 for Rs 6. What will be the result?

A. 12.5 percent loss B. 11.11 percent gain C. 12.5 percent gain D. 11.1 percent loss

Answer: C
Explanation: C.P of 30 Chikoo = RS. 16
S.P of 30 Chikoo = RS. 18
P = [latex]\frac {18 - 16}{16} \times 100[/latex] = 12.5 %
Q21. A square carpet with an area 169 m2 must have 2 meters cut-off one of its edges in order to be a perfect fit for a rectangular room. What is the area of the rectangular room?

A. 180 [latex]{m}^{2}[/latex] B. 164 [latex]{m}^{2}[/latex] C. 152 [latex]{m}^{2}[/latex] D. 143 [latex]{m}^{2}[/latex]

Answer: D
Explanation: Area = [latex] \sqrt {169}[/latex] = 13 cm
Length of one side after cutting = 13 - 2 = 12 m
Area of rectangle = 13[latex]\times 11 = 143 {m}^{2}[/latex]
Q22. A man purchases two watches at 560. He sells one at 15% profit and other at 10% loss. Then he neither gains nor loss. Find the cost price of each watch.

A. 224, 300 B. 200, 300 C. 224, 336 D. 200, 336

Answer: C
Explanation: In the whole transaction there is no loss and no gain
therefor, Amount of gain in one watch = Amount of loss in other watch
[latex]{C.P}_{1} \times \frac {15}{100} = {C.P}_{2} \times \frac {10}{100}[/latex]
[latex]{C.P}_{1} : {C.P}_{2} = 2 : 3 [/latex]
[latex]{C.P}_{1} : {C.P}_{2} = 560 [/latex]
[latex]{C.P}_{1} = 560 \times \frac {2}{5} = 224 [/latex]
[latex]{C.P}_{2} = 560 \times \frac {3}{5} = 336 [/latex]
Q23. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:

A. 4 days B. 5 days C. 6 days D. 7 days

Answer: A
Explanation: 10 [latex] \times (6M + 8B) \times 2[/latex]
60 M + 80 B = 52 M + 96 B
8 M = 16 B
M = 2 B
6M + 8B = 12B + 8B = 20B
15M + 2B = 30B + 20B = 50B
20B [latex] \times [/latex] 10 days = 50B [latex] \times x [/latex] days
x = 4 days
Q24. A train running between two stations A and B arrives at its destination 10 minutes late when its speed is 50 km/h and 50 minutes late when its speed is 30km/h. What is the distance between the stations A and B ?

A. 40 km B. 50 km C. 60 km D. 70 km

Answer: B
Explanation: Let distance between the two stations [latex]\rightarrow [/latex]
[latex]\frac {x}{50} - \frac {10}{60} = \frac {x}{30} - \frac {50}{60}[/latex]
[latex]\frac {5}{6} - \frac {1}{6} = \frac {x}{30} - \frac {x}{50}[/latex]
[latex]\frac {4}{6} = x \frac {(5 - 3}{150)}[/latex]
[latex]\frac {4}{6} = x \times \frac {2}{150}[/latex]
x = 50 km
Q25. The value of tan 4°.tan 43°.tan 47°.tan 86° is

A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4

Answer: C
Explanation: [latex]tan {4}^{0} . tan {43}^{0} . tan {47}^{0} tan {86}^{0}[/latex]
= tan (90 - 86) . tan (90 - 47) . [latex]tan {47}^{0} . tan {86}^{0} [/latex]
= [latex]cot {86}^{0} . cot {47}^{0} . tan {47}^{0} tan {86}^{0} [/latex]
= 1
Q26. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio 3 : 5 : 8 : 9 respectively. If the share of D is 1,872 more than the share of A, then what is the total amount of money of B & C together?

A. 4,156 B. 4,165 C. 4,056 D. 4,068

Answer: C
Explanation: A : B : C : D = 3 : 5 : 8 : 9
(D - A) = 1872 RS.
(9 - 3) r = 1872 RS.
6 r = 1872 RS.
6 r = 312 RS.
= (5 + 8) r = 13 r = 13 [latex] \times [/latex] 312 = 4056 RS.
Q27. What approximate compound interest can be obtained on an amount of 3,980 after 2 years at 8 p.c.p.a. ?

A. 650 B. 680 C. 600 D. 662

Answer: D
Explanation: Total effective rate 8 + 8 + [latex] \frac {64}{100}[/latex] = 16.64 %
Compound Interest = 3980 [latex]\times \frac {16.64}{100} \cong 662.2 [/latex]
Q28. A man walks at the speed of 5 km/hr and runs at the speed of 10 km/hr. How much time will the man require to cover the distance of 28 km, if he covers half of his journey walking and half of his journey running ?

A. 8.4 hrs B. 6 hrs C. 5 hrs D. 4.2 hrs

Answer: D
Explanation: Time = [latex] \frac {14}{5} + \frac {14}{10}[/latex]
= 2.8 + 1.4
= 4.2 hours
Q29. 10 kg of wheat priced at Rs. 8 mixed with 15 kg of wheat priced at Rs. 10. What is the average price of a whole mixture?

A. Rs. 9.5 kg 9.5 B. [latex]\frac {Rs. 9.2 kg} {9.2}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac {Rs. 7.5 kg} {7.5}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac {Rs. 8.5 kg} {8.5}

Answer: B
Explanation: Price of 10 kg wheat = [latex] 8 \times 10[/latex] = 80 RS.
Price of 15 kg wheat = [latex] 10 \times 15[/latex] = 150 RS.
Price of 25 kg wheat = 80 + 150 = 230 RS.
Average Price per kg = [latex] \frac {230}{25}[/latex] = 9.2 RS.
Q30. A sugar solution of 3 liters contains 60% sugar. One liter of water is added to this solution. Then the percentage of sugar in the new solution is:

A. 30 B. 45 C. 50 D. 60

Answer: B
Explanation: Solution [latex]\rightarrow[/latex] 3 liters
Sugar = 60 %, Water = 40 %
Sugar = 3 [latex]\times \frac {60}{100} = 1.8 [/latex] liters
Water = 3 [latex]\times \frac {40}{100} = 1.2 [/latex] liters
New 1 liter of water is added.
Quantity of Sugar in New Solution = 1.8 liters
Total Quantity of Solution = 3 + 1 = 4 liters
% of Sugar = [latex]\frac {1.8}{4} \times 100[/latex] = 45 %

Q1. If in a certain code MANGO is written as LBLIL then in the same code how MONKS is written?

A. LPLMP B. PLLMP C. LPMPL D. MLPAL

Answer: A
Explanation: If we observe -1, +1, -2, +2, -3 pattern follows
Now, MONKS = LPLMP.
Q2. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?

A. CPNCBX B. CPNCBZ C. CPOCBZ D. CQOCBZ

Answer: B
Explanation: Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code
Q3. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?

A. 246173 B. 214673 C. 214763 D. 216473

Answer: B
Explanation: Given ROSE = 6821
CHAIR = 73456
PREACH = 961473
Compare the letter with a similar number in that position
Then, we can code
SEARCH = 214673
Q4. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to

A. 39 B. 41 C. 44 D. 46

Answer: D
Explanation: In the given code, A = 2, B = 4, C = 6,…. , Z = 52.
So, ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48 and
BAT = 4 + 2 + 40 = 46
Q5. If a train is called the bus, a bus is called tractor, the tractor is called car, the car is called a scooter, a scooter is called bicycle, a bicycle is called moped, which is used to plow a field?

A. Train B. Bus C. Car D. Tractor

Answer: C
Explanation: A ‘tractor’ is used to plow a field.
But a ‘tractor’ is called ‘car’.
Q6. If E = 5 and READ is coded as 7, then what is the code of ‘DEAR’?

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

Answer: B
Explanation: Here E = 5 = 5/1 = 5
READ = 18 + 5 + 1 + 4 = 28 / 4 = 7
DEAR = 4 + 5 + 1 + 18 = 28 / 4 = 7
Q7. If a wall is called window, a window is called door, the door is called floor, the floor is called roof and roof is called ventilator, what will a person stand on ?

A. Roof B. Window C. Wall D. Floor

Answer: A
Explanation: A person will stand on the ‘floor’ and ‘floor’ is called ‘roof’.
So, a person will stand on the ‘roof’
Q8. If Monday falls on 5th of a month, then which day will fall three days after the 26th?

A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Thursday

Answer: D
Explanation: 5th is Monday, then 12, 19, 26th also Monday
Therefore, 3 days after is 29th, which is Thursday
Q9. If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st November will be

A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Tuesday

Answer: B
Explanation: Clearly, 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th October are Sundays.
Then, 31st October is Tuesday.
Hence, 1st November will be Wednesday.
Q10. If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month? (Month starts from Saturday)

A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23

Answer: D
Explanation: As the month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays. While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays.
Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 = 23
Q11. In a row of students, Ravi is 9th from the left and Suresh is 6th from the right. When they both interchange their positions then Ravi will be 15th from the left. What will be the position of Suresh from the right?

A. 6th B. 12th C. 13th D. 15th

Answer: B
Explanation: The position of Suresh from right
According to the given information
= (Difference of Ravi ‘s position + First position of Suresh)
= ((15 – 9) + 6) = 12th
Therefore, the position of Suresh from the right = 12th.
Q12. In a line of students, Mahesh is on the 15th position from right and Dheeraj is on the 18th position from left. When they both interchange their positions then Mahesh is on the 20th position from the right. What will be the position of Dheeraj from left?

A. 18th B. 24th C. 23rd D. 20rd

Answer: C
Explanation: The second place of Dheeraj from left
By Analyzing the given data
= [ Difference of places of Mahesh + First place of Dheeraj ]
= [ (20 – 15) + 18 ] = 23rd
Q13. If 9th of the month falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1st of the month fall?

A. Friday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Monday

Answer: A
Explanation: According to the question,
Given, 9th of the Month = Saturday (Preceding Sunday)
Well, the same day will repeat after 7 days.
Therefore, 9 – 7 = 2nd of the given month is also Saturday.
1st of the given month = Saturday – 1 day = Friday
Hence, Day 1st of the month will be Friday.
Q14. If three days before yesterday was Friday, what day will be a day after tomorrow?

A. Monday B. Sunday C. Saturday D. Wednesday

Answer: D
Explanation: Here, Three days before today was Friday.
Hence, Today is Monday.
Therefore, the day after tomorrow will be Wednesday.
Q15. If day after tomorrow is Saturday what day was 3 days before yesterday?

A. Sunday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Wednesday

Answer: A
Explanation: Today is Saturday – 2 = Thursday
Now, Yesterday – Wednesday
Wednesday – 3 days = Sunday
Hence, the required day will be on Sunday.
Q16. Choose the word which is least like the other word in a group?

A. Parrot B. Vulture C. Swan D. Sparrow

Answer: C
Explanation: Swan is the only water bird in the group.
Q17. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related?

A. Joule: Energy B. Ampere: Current C. Pascal: Pressure D. Radian: Degree

Answer: D
Explanation: n all other pairs, first is a unit to measure the second.
Q18. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related?

A. Man: Mob B. Cow: Herd C. Sheep: Flock D. Fish: Shoal

Answer: A
Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a collective group of the first.
Q19. Choose the number which is different from others in the group?

A. 137 B. 177 C. 121 D. 183

Answer: C
Explanation: 121 is the only perfect square number in the group.
Q20. Choose the number which is different from others in the group?

A. 17 B. 27 C. 29 D. 37

Answer: B
Explanation: Except 27, all given numbers are prime numbers.
Q21. Choose the number pair which is different from others?

A. 45, 27 B. 30, 18 C. 20, 10 D. 15, 12

Answer: C
Explanation: In all other pairs, the given pair numbers have 3 as the common factor.
Q22. Choose the number pair/group which is different from others?

A. 12: 96 B. 13: 117 C. 15: 120 D. 16: 128

Answer: B
Explanation: If we observe
In all other pairs, the second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 8.
Q23. Statement: Should all the unauthorized structures in the city be demolished?
Arguements:

I. No, Where will the people residing in such houses live? II. Yes, This will give a clear message to the general public and they will refrain from constructing unauthorized buildings.

A. The only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong

Answer: B
Explanation: The demolition of unauthorized buildings would teach a lesson to the unscrupulous builders and also serve as a warning for the citizens not to indulge in such activities in the future. This is essential, as unauthorized constructions impose an undue burden on the city’s infrastructure.
So, only argument II holds strong.
Q24. Statement: Should Indian scientists working abroad be called back to India?
Arguements:

I. Yes, They must serve the motherland first and forget about discoveries, honors, facilities and all. II. No, We have enough talent; let them stay where they want.

A. The only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong

Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, every person must be free to work wherever he wants and no compulsion should be made to confine one to one’s own country. So, an argument I is vague. However, talented scientists can be of great benefit to the nation and some alternatives as special incentives or better prospects may be made available to them to retain them within their motherland.
So, argument II also does not hold.
Q25. Statement: Should colleges be given the status of a university in India?
Arguements:

I. Yes, Colleges are in a better position to assess the student’s performance and therefore the degrees will be more valid. II. No, It is Utopian to think that there will not be nepotism and corruption in awarding degrees by colleges.

A. The only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong

Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, at the college level, all the students are assessed according to their performance in the University Exams and not on the basis of any criteria of more intimate dealing with the students. So, an argument I is vague. Also, at this level, the awarding of degrees is impartial and simply based on his performance.
So, argument II also does not hold.
Q26. Statement: Should internal assessment in colleges be abolished?
Arguements:

I. Yes, This will help in reducing the possibility of favoritism. II. No, teaching faculty will lose control over students.

A. The only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong

Answer: A
Explanation: Abolishing the internal assessment would surely reduce favoritism on personal grounds because the teachers would not be involved in the examination system so that they cannot extend personal benefits to anyone. So, an argument I hold strong. But it will not affect the control of teaching faculty on students because still, the teachers would be teaching them.
So, argument II is vague.
Q27. Match: Victory:: Examination:?

A. Write B. Appear C. Success D. Attempt

Answer: C
Explanation: One of the outcomes of “Match” is “Victory”.
In the same way, “Success” is one of the outcomes of “Examination”.
Q28. Error: Mistake:: Doubt:?

A. Retaliation B. Poetry C. Art D. Suspicion

Answer: D
Explanation: “Error” and `Mistake’ are synonyms to each other
As well as “Doubt” and “Suspicion” are also synonyms to each other.
Q29. Hour: Second:: Tertiary:?

A. Ordinary B. Secondary C. Primary D. Intermediary

Answer: C
Explanation: “Second” is the third position after “Hour” in time measurement.
Similarly, “Tertiary” is the third position after “Primary” in the order of ranking.
Q30. Bank: Money:: Transport:?

A. Goods B. Road C. Movement D. Traffic

Answer: A
Explanation: A “Bank” deals with the transaction of “Money”
In the same way “Transport” deals with the movement of “Goods”.