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PNB SO Reasoning

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PNB SO Reasoning

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PNB SO Online Test, will comprise of Objective Tests for 200 marks consisting of 4 Sections as follows. A composite time of 120 minutes will be given for answering the questions. The below sections gives the detailed information about PNB SO Reasoning Section.

shape Pattern

Sr.No. Name of Tests No. of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
1 Reasoning 50 50 120 mins
2 English Language 50 25
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50
4 Professional Knowledge (Relevant to the Post) 50 75
Total 200 200

The PNB SO Online Test Reasoning section, has a total of 50 questions with a maximum of 50 marks. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the section of PNB SO Reasoning.

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Alphabet Test
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the meaningfull word “EMPLOYMENT” each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
    A. none B. two C. three D. one E. more than three

Answer: Option (B)
2. What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following series? CX DW EV FU GT ?
    A. HS B. KM C. IR D. IJ E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is M. If no such word can be formed, your answer is N.
    A. I B. L C. A D. M E. N

Answer: Option (B)
4. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ABTI using all the letters, and each letter only once in each word?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. None E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Alpha Numeric Sequence Puzzle
Directions (1-5): Read the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given beside.
O 8 F # 4 @ M 2 E Q % R T & 6 Z * N S $ 7 A
Step 1: If a symbol is immediately preceded and followed by a letter then write it between 6 and Z.
Step 2: If a number is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter then write it between M and 2.
Note: Step 2 is performed after completion of step 1.
1. With respect to the sequence after step 2, four of the following five are alike in some way and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
    A. ERM B. ZS6 C. 4M8 D. QT7 E. 6*T

Answer: Option (E)
2. How many symbols are to the the left of second vowel from right end in the sequence obtained after step 1?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Answer: Option (C)
3. How many elements are between the second composite number from left end and first prime number from right end in the sequence obtained after step 2?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer: Option (D)
4. How many numbers are there which is/are immediately preceded by a letter if all the vowels are dropped from the sequence after step 1?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. None E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
5. With respect to the sequence after step 2, how many letters are there which is/are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Four E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Analogy
1. Complete analogous pair: Moon : Satellite : : Earth : ?
    A. Sun B. Planet C. Solar System D. Asteroid

Answer: Option (B)
2. Complete analogous pair: Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?
    A. Present B. Atone C. Past D. Sins

Answer: Option (C)
3. Complete analogous pair: Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ?
    A. Bacillus B. Parasite C. Protozoa D. Bacteria

Answer: Option (D)
4. Complete analogous pair: Fear : Threat : : Anger : ?
    A. Compulsion B. Panic C. Provocation D. Force

Answer: Option (C)
5. Complete analogous pair: Melt : Liquid : : Freeze : ?
    A. Ice B. Condense C. Solid D. Crystal

Answer: Option (C)
Arithmetical Reasoning
1. The sum of the ages of 3 people A, B and C is 90 years. What would be the total of their ages 4 years back?
    A. 74 years B. 78 years C. 86 years D. 80 years

Answer: Option (B)
2. Two bus tickets from city Amb to Sunhet and three tickets from city Amb to Dehra cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from city Amb to Sunhet and two tickets from city Amb to Dehra cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities Sunhet
    A. Rs. 4, Rs. 23 B. Rs. 13, Rs. 17 C. Rs. 15, Rs. 14 D. Rs. 17, Rs. 13

Answer: Option (B)
3. Bulls Eye a premier institute organized a sports meet for its students where 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated. What was the total fraction of the students who had actually taken part?
    A. 2/13 B. 1/40 C. 13/40 D. Data inadequate

Answer: Option (D)
4. Some friends planned on a leisure trip where they had planned Rs.96 on eatables. 4 of them did not come. So the rest of them had to pay Rs. 4 each extra. The number of people who turned up on the trip was
    A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24

Answer: Option (A)
5. Akbar, Birbal, Chaitanya, David & Ehasaan play a game of coins. Akbar says to Birbal, "If you give me 30 coins, you will have as many as Ehsaan has and if I give you 30 coins, you will have as many as David has." Akbar and Birbal together have 100 coins more than what David and Ehsan together have. If Birbal has 20 coins more than what Chaitanya has and the total number of coins that they have is 1330, how many coins does Birbal have?
    A. 220 B. 230 C. 250 D. 350

Answer: Option (C)
Classification
Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related.
1.
    A. Car : Road B. Ship : Sea C. Rocket : Space D. Aeroplane : Pilot

Answer: Option (D)
2.
    A. Beautician : Parlour B. Chemist : Medicine C. Lawyer : Court D. Engineer : Site

Answer: Option (B)
3.
    A. Saw : Wood B. Pen : Paper C. Author : Book D. Chalk : Blackboard

Answer: Option (C)
4.
    A. Water : Thirst B. Talent : Education C. Food: Hunger D. Air : Suffocation

Answer: Option (B)
5.
    A. Apple : Jam B. Lemon : Citrus C. Orange : Squash D. Tomato : Pury

Answer: Option (B)
Clocks & Calendars
1. If 8th April, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 8th April, 2004?
    A. Sunday B. Monday C. Thrusday D. Saturday

Answer: Option (A)
2. On what dates of May, 2001 did Thursday fall?
    A. 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th B. 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th C. 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th, 31st D. 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th

Answer: Option (C)
3. How many days are there in y weeks y days?
    A. 7[latex]y^2[/latex] B. 8y C. 14y D. 7

Answer: Option (B)
4. An accurate clock shows 2 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 9 o’clock in the evening?
    A. [latex]144^0[/latex] B. [latex]210^0[/latex] C. [latex]168^0[/latex] D. [latex]570^0[/latex]

Answer: Option (D)
5. A boy saw the clock when it is 5 a.m. The clock loses 8 minutes in half a day. What will be the true time when he sees the clock at 10 p.m. on 4th day? A. 9 pm B. 10 pm C. 11 pm D. 12 pm
Answer: Option (C)
Coding-Decoding
1. In a certain code 'MISSIONS' is written as 'MSIISNOS'. How is 'ONLINE' written in that code?
    A. OLNNIE B. ONILEN C. NOILEN D. LNOENI E. ONNLIE

Answer: Option (A)
2. In certain code 'TIGER' is written as 'QDFHS'. How is 'FISH' written in that code?
    A. GERH B. GRHE C. GREH D. GHRE E. GEHR

Answer: Option (B)
3. In certain code 'FROZEN' is written as 'OFAPSG'. Then how would 'MOLTEN' be written in that code?
    A. OFPOMN B. OFSMPN C. OFUMPN D. OFUNPM E. OFUMON

Answer: Option (C)
4. In a certain code 'ROAR' is written as 'URDU'. How is 'URDU' written in that code?
    A. V X D Q B. XUGX C. ROAR D. VSOV E. V Z C P

Answer: Option (B)
5. In a certain code 'LIMCA' is written as 'HJLDZ'. Which of the following words is written as 'IFWJBP'?
    A. MEXICO B. MERCURY C. JAPAN D. MIDNIGHT E. HONDUS

Answer: Option (A)
Data Sufficiency
Directions(1-5):
    A. If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. C. If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. If data given in both I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. If data in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. Who is taller among P, Q, R, S & T? I. S is shorter than Q. P is shorter than only T. II. Q is taller than only S. T is taller than P and R.
Answer: Option (C)
2. What is the distance between point P and point Q? I. Point R is 10 m west of point P and point S is 10 m north of point P. II. Point Q is 10 m south-east of point R. Point S is 20 m north-west of point Q.
Answer: Option (D)
3. How is Shubham related to Shivani? I. Shubham is brother of Meenal. Shivani is niece of Pooja. II. Neeraj is Meenal’s uncle and Preeti’s brother
Answer: Option (D)
4. How is PRODUCT written in that code language? I. In a certain code language, AIEEE is written as BJFFF. II. In a certain code language, GYPSY is written as FXORX
Answer: Option (E)
5. How is ‘face’ written in that code language? I. In a certain code language, ‘no one with face’ is coded as ‘fo to om sop’ and ‘no one has face’ is coded as ‘om sit fo sop’ II. In a certain code language, ‘face of no light’ is coded as ‘om mot fo kiz’ and ‘no one is smart’ is coded as ‘sop fo sip lik’.
Answer: Option (E)
Deriving Conclusions from Passages
Directions(1-5): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
There is more bad news on food front. It now appears certain that there will bea shortfall of about 9 million tonnes in the food production in the current kharif season, which in turn means five million tonnes less than the production achieved in the last kharif season. However, rice procurement may only be partially affected since West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh have had sufficient rainfall while Punjab, the mtyor contributor to the central pool is less dependent on rainfall. Still, the overall availability of rice may go down by more than four million tonnes. There may be worst news ahead.
1. Western countries have well equipped laboratory tests to detect rabies,
    A. Definitely false B. Data inadequate C. Probably true D. Definitely true E. Probably false

Answer: Option (B)
2. The saliva of the house dogs should be periodically tested for the detection of rabies,
    A. Probably true B. Probably false C. Definitely true D. Data inadequate E. Definitely false

Answer: Option (D)
3. The bite of rabies-infected animal to a healthy animal definitely results in spread of rabies.
    A. Definitely true B. Probably true C. Data inadequate D. Definitely false E. Probably false

Answer: Option (A)
4. Rabies can be transmitted from any animal to the other through open cuts and wounds.
    A. Data inadequate B. Probably true C. Probably false D. Definitely true E. Definitely false

Answer: Option (D)
5. In the last year, there was a deficit production of rice by five million tonnes.
    A. Probably true B. Probably false C. Definitely false D. Definitely true E. Data inadequate

Answer: Option (C)
Direction Sense Test
1. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal’s shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
    A. East B. West C. North D. South

Answer: Option (C)
2. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?
    A. North B. South C. South-East D. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
3. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?
    A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

Answer: Option (C)
4. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
    A. West B. South C. North-East D. South-West

Answer: Option (D)
5. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?
    A. South-East B. South C. North D. West

Answer: Option (D)
Eligibility Test
Directions (1-5): Study the following data deliberately to answer the questions given underneath
Following are the capabilities for a specific post in a reputed organization.
The applicant must –
(a) be an Engineering graduate with at least 50% marks;
(b) be at least 21 years and not over 25 years old as on 1.5.2006;
(c) have passed through the determination test with no less than 60% marks;
(d) be willing pay a store of Rs. 25,000, to be discounted on consummation of training.
However, if a candidate fulfills the above mentioned criteria except:
(i) At (a) above, yet has showed up for the last semester examination and has acquired a total of least 65% marks in initial seven semesters, his/her case might be referred to the V.P. of the organization;
(ii) At (d) above, however will pay a measure of at any rate Rs. 10000 and has gotten no less than 70% marks at Engineering degree, the case possibly referred to the General Manager of the organization.
In each of the accompanying questions, points of interest of the applicant are given as respects his/her candidature. You need to read the data gave and choose his/her status in view of the conditions given above and the data gave. You are not to expect something besides the data gave in each of the following questions. All these cases are given to you as on 1.5.2006
1. Sanjai is an IT engineer went out in 2003 with 48% marks. After getting the designing degree, He has done MBA with specialization in Marketing. He has cleared the determination test with 60% imprints. He can pay the store of Rs. 25000. His date of birth is fifteenth September.
    A. If the applicant is to be selected; B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager; C. If the case is to be referred to the V.P.; D. If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; E. If the applicant is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (E)
2. Harish is an understudy of Mechanical Engineering and has showed up for the last semester examination. Results of the last semester examination are normal one month from now. He is hoping to score 65% imprints in the last semester as his total rate of the initial seven semesters is 67%. He has passed through the choice test with 60% checks and has no issue in paying the measure of Rs. 10,000 as store. He is 22 years of age at present.
    A. If the applicant is to be selected; B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager; C. If the case is to be referred to the V.P.; D. If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; E. If the applicant is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (C)
3. Godwin has passed Computer Engineering degree with 68% marks in 2005 at the age of 22 years and is working with private engineering firm for last six months. He has cleared the selection test with 63% marks, He will manage to pay Rs. 25,000 as deposit.
    A. If the applicant is to be selected; B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager; C. If the case is to be referred to the V.P.; D. If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; E. If the applicant is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (A)
4. Christy, who has just completed 23 years of age, passed out degree in Civil engineering with 70% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 61% marks. He is willing to pay the amount of Rs. 10000 only and will not be able to pay Rs. 25000.
    A. If the applicant is to be selected; B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager; C. If the case is to be referred to the V.P.; D. If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; E. If the applicant is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (B)
5. Martin has appeared for the last semester examination of Mechanical Engineering and the results are awaited. He secured first class in each of the first seven semesters. He has recently completed 22 years of age. He has no problem in paying the required amount of Rs. 25,000 as deposit. He has passed the selection test with 58% marks.
    A. If the applicant is to be selected; B. If the case is to be referred to the General Manager; C. If the case is to be referred to the V.P.; D. If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; E. If the applicant is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (D)
Inserting The Missing Character
1. Insert the missing number in each of the following.

    A. 185 B. 126 C. 239 D. 145

Answer: Option (A)
2. Insert the missing number in each of the following.

    A. 5 B. 6 C. 14 D. 8

Answer: Option (C)
3. Insert the missing number in each of the following.

    A. 19 B. 28 C. 32 D. 34

Answer: Option (B)
4. Insert the missing number in each of the following.

    A. 350 B.320 C.500 D.600

Answer: Option (D)
5. Insert the missing number in each of the following.

    A. M B. Z C. Q D. S

Answer: Option (B)
Logical Sequence of Words
Directions(1-5): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question ;
1. 1. Site 2. Plan 3. Rent 4. Money 5. Building 6. Construction
    A. 1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4 B. 2, 3, 6, 5, 1, 4 C. 3, 4, 2, 6, 5, 1 D. 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3

Answer: Option (D)
2. 1. Sentence 2. Chapter 3. Letter 4. Book 5. Word 6. Paragraph
    A. 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3 B. 4, 2, 6, 1, 5, 3 C. 4, 6, 1, 2, 3, 5 D. 4, 6, 2, 5, 1, 3

Answer: Option (B)
3. 1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime 4. Justice 5. Judgement
    A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: Option (C)
4. 1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito 4. Tiger 5. Whale
    A. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 B. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 C. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 D. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: Option (C)
5. 1. Book 2. Pulp 3. Timber 4. Jungle 5. Paper
    A. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 B. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

Answer: Option (C)
Logical Venn Diagrams
1. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group, none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?
    A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24

Answer: Option (C)
2. In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian Express and 127 read Times of India, 20 read Hindu and Times of India and 29 read Hindu and Indian Express and 35 read Times of India and Indian express . 50 read no news paper . Then how many read only one paper?
    A. 123 B. 231 C. 312 D. 321

Answer: Option (D)
3. Out of 120 students in aschool, 5% can play all the three games Cricket, Chess and Carroms. If so happens that the number of players who can play any and only two games is 30. The number of students who can play the Cricket alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play Chess alone or Carroms alone?
    A. 45 B. 44 C. 46 D. 24

Answer: Option (B)
4. Main street high school has 10 members on its football team and 14 members on its science club. 5 members at the school belong to both the football and science teams. How many students belong to only science club team or football team?
    A. 9 B. 14 C. 24 D. 21

Answer: Option (A)
5. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Walrus, Aquatic and Manatees?

Answer: Option (D)
Mathematical Operations
1. If V means ‘divided by, – means ‘multiplied by’, V means ‘minus and V means ‘plus’, which of the following will be the value of the expression 16+ 8- 4 + 2 x 4? (Bank P.O. 1995)
    A. 16 B. 28 C. 32 D. 44 E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
2. If + means +, – means x, + means + and x means then 36 x 12 + 4 + 6 + 2 – 3 = ?
    A. 2 B. 18 C. 42 D. 6 E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
3. If A means ‘plus’, B means ‘minus’, C means ‘divided by’ and D means ‘multiplied by’, then 18 A 12 C 6 D 2 B 5 = ? (B.S.R.B. 1996)
    A. 15 B. 25 C. 27 D. 45 E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
4. If x stands for + stands for +, + stands for + and – stands for x, which one of the following equations is correct? (S.S.C. 1999)
    A. 15 – 5 + 6 x 20 + 10 = 6 B. 8 + 10 – 3 + 5 x 6 = 8 C. 6 x 2 + 3 + 12 – 3 = 15 D. 3 + 7 – 5 x 1 0 + 3 = 10

Answer: Option (B)
5. It being given that : > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes +, – denotes =, = denotes less than’ and x denotes ‘greater than’, find which of the following is a correct statement.
    A. 3 + 2 > 4 < 9 + 3 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 2 < 4 x 8 + 4 < 2 D. 3 + 2 < 4 x 9 + 3 < 3

Answer: Option (C)
Number, Ranking & Time Sequence
1. In a class of 180, where girls are twice the number of boys, Rupesh[a boy] ranked 34th from the top. If there are 18 girls ahead of Rupesh, how many boys are after him in rank?
    A. 45 B. 44 C. 60 D. can't be determined

Answer: Option (B)
2. How many such digits are there in the number 7346285 which are as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in ascending order within the number?
    A. None B. one C. Two D. Three

Answer: Option (C)
3. In a row of boys, If A who is 10th from the left and B who is 9th from the right interchange their positions, A becomes 15th from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
    A. 23 B. 31 C. 27 D. 28

Answer: Option (A)
4. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind and Mamta is just in the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue. What position does Mamta occupy from the front?
    A. 14th B. 16th C. 18th D. 20th

Answer: Option (C)
5. If the third day of a month is Tuesday, which of the following would be the 4th day before the 27th day of that month?
    A. Tuesday B. Monday C. Wednesday D. Sunday

Answer: Option (B)
Puzzle Test
Directions(1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.
Six lectures are organized during a week, starting from Monday & ending on Sunday. Computer Science is not on Tuesday or Saturday. Psychology is exactly after the Organizational Practices. Statistics is not on Friday & there is a holiday for one day between Statistics & Research Methods. There is not any lecture before Economics (because it a holiday & Monday is not a holiday).
1. Which of the following is the last lecture organized?
    A. Statistics B. Research Methods C. Psychology D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
2. If Wednesday is the holiday, then the code will be 2 – 4. If Thursday is a holiday, then the code will be 3-3. Which of the following codes is corrects on the basis of the holiday?
    A. 2-4 B. 3-3 C. 4-2 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
3. Which lecture will be conducted on Friday?
    A. Economics B. Psychology C. Computer Science D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
4. How many lectures were organized between Economics & Psychology?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
5. On which day the Computer Science was organized?
    A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Series Completion
1. ab __ d __ aaba __ na _ badna _ b
    A. andaa B. babda C. badna D. dbanb

Answer: Option (A)
2. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
    A. 35 B. 38 C. 39 D. 40

Answer: Option (A)
3. cccbb _ aa _ cc _ bbbaa _ c
    A. aebe B. baca C. baba D. acba

Answer: Option (B)
4. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?
    A. 58965 B. 65423 C. 89654 D. 96542

Answer: Option (D)
5. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, …… what will be the 8th term ?
    A. 4370 B. 4374 C. 7443 D. 7434

Answer: Option (B)
Situation Reaction Test
Directions(1-5): To each of the following question four probable answers have been given. Select the most appropriate alternative as the answer.
1. On reaching the railway station, you find that the train you wanted to catch is just to start and there is hardly any time for purchasing the ticket. The best thing for you is to:
    A. rush to the train rather than miss it and inform the T.T.I. at the next stoppage about your inability to purchase the ticket. B. rush to the train and perform your journey quietly. C. first purchase the ticket and then catch the train if it is there. D. miss the train rather than take the risk of boarding the moving train.

Answer: Option (A)
2. While travelling in a train, you observe some college students pulling the alarm chain simply to get down at their desired point. You would:
    A. with the help of some passengers, check them from doing so B. let them pull the chain but check them from detraining. C. inform the guard of the train as soon as it stops. D. keep quiet and do nothing.

Answer: Option (A)
3. You are in a bus. The bus reaches your stop but still you have not purchased the ticket because of heavy rush. What will you do?
    A. Jump out quickly to avoid embarrassment. B. call the conductor, give him the money and get the ticket. C. Hand the money to someone sitting nearby to give it to the conductor D. Give the money to the driver.

Answer: Option (B)
4. You are passing by a river and you know swimming. Suddenly, you hear the cry o f a drowning child. You would:
    A. dive into the river to save him. B. wait to see if some other person is there to help C. look for professional divers D. console the child’s parents.

Answer: Option (A)
5. If in the examination hall, you find that the question paper is too tough to be answered satisfactorily by you, the best thing to do for you is to:
    A. tell the examiner that the questions are out of course. B. provoke the candidates to walk out of the examination hall. C. try to know something from your neighbour. D. try to solve the questions as much as you know with a cool head.

Answer: Option (D)
Statement – Arguments
Directions(1-5): It is expected to differentiate between the solid argument & the weak argument while -determining the important questions. The solid arguments are those which are important & directly related to the questions too. The weak arguments are not directly related to the question or related to the minor part of the questions & are of less or no importance.
In each of the following questions, two arguments 1 & 2 are given after the statement. You have to determine which of the argument is a strong argument & which is weak.
1. Statement: If the government should immediately close to give the subsidy on kerosene?
Argument: 1. Yes, it will help the government to reduce its heavy financial deficit. 2. No, poor people will not be able to buy the kerosene at market price for their daily needs.
    A. If only 1 is a solid argument B. If only 2 is a solid argument C. Either argument 1 or 2 is solid D. Neither argument 1 or 2 is solid E. 1 & 2 – both are solid arguments.

Answer: Option (E)
2. Statement: If the government to should increase the water tax to farmers for the irrigation to supply water in farms?
Argument: 1. No, the farmers have to bare so many other expenses to grow the crops on land. 2. Yes, the rich farmers earn so much profit, because the water tax for irrigation is nominal
    A. If only 1 is a solid argument B. If only 2 is a solid argument C. Either argument 1 or 2 is solid D. Neither argument 1 or 2 is solid E. 1 & 2 – both are solid arguments.

Answer: Option (A)
3. Statement: If the government service in the rural for two years should be compulsory for the medical graduates?
Argument: 1. Yes, it is the duty of everybody to contribute for rural development & to serve for them 2. No, it cannot be implemented to doctors only because they contribute during their internship.
    A. If only 1 is a solid argument B. If only 2 is a solid argument C. Either argument 1 or 2 is solid D. Neither argument 1 or 2 is solid E. 1 & 2 – both are solid arguments.

Answer: Option (A)
4. Statement: If it os the best way to save the less score holders form frustration by motivating the high score holders awarding them prizes?
Argument: 1. No, it is the best way to motivate the high score holders. 2. Yes, it adversely affects the low score holders when high score holders are motivated & sometimes the situation becomes very terrible.
    A. If only 1 is a solid argument B. If only 2 is a solid argument C. Either argument 1 or 2 is solid D. Neither argument 1 or 2 is solid E. 1 & 2 – both are solid arguments.

Answer: Option (B)
5. Statement: If the most of the school examination parts should be of objective type?
Argument: 1. No, the students’ ability to express cannot be examined through the objective type tests. 2. yes, it is the best method to examine one’s ability & knowledge.
    A. If only 1 is a solid argument B. If only 2 is a solid argument C. Either argument 1 or 2 is solid D. Neither argument 1 or 2 is solid E. 1 & 2 – both are solid arguments.

Answer: Option (D)
Statement – Conclusions
Directions(1-5): A statement is given & then two conclusions – 1 & 2 are given. You have to consider the statement as true though it seems to be different from the actual facts. Then give your answer regarding the given statement that which of the conclusions/is/ are followed by it Properly.
1. Statement: The people with religion thoughts & afraid of God will not betray.
Conclusion: 1. Betraying people are atheists 2. The religion develops the virtues
    A. Only 1 is followed B. Only 2 is followed C. 1 & 2 – both are followed D. Neither 1 nor 2 is followed

Answer: Option (B)
2. Statement: India is multi lingual country. Hindi is the National Language of India.
Conclusion: 1. All Indians should learn multiple languages. 2. Hindi should be learnt to be an Indian.
    A. Only 1 is followed B. Only 2 is followed C. Neither 1 nor 2 is followed D. 1 & 2 – both are followed

Answer: Option (C)
3. Statement: All the philosophers are males. Socrates was a philosopher.
Conclusion: 1. Socrates was male. 2. Females cannot be the philosophers.
    A. Only 1 is correct B. Only 2 is correct C. both are not correct D. both are correct

Answer: Option (D)
4. Statement: If he is an intelligent, he will pass in the examination.
Conclusion: 1. It is required to be an intelligent to pass in the examination. 2. He will pass the examination.
    A. Only 1 is inherited B. Only 2 is inherited C. 1 & 2 – both are inherited D. None is inherited

Answer: Option (A)
5. Statement: Using the cosmetics is dangerous.
Conclusion: 1. Cosmetics effect concomitantly 2. Cosmetics are not costly
    A. Only 1 is followed B. Only 2 is followed C. 1 & 2 – both are followed D. Neither 1 nor 2 is followed

Answer: Option (A)
Theme Detection
Directions(1-5): Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
1. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a common denominator – employee work motivation. Organisational members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these personal goals.The passage best supports the statement that motivation –
    A. encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational goals. B. is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation. C. is the product of an individual’s physical and mental energy. D. is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts. E. makes organisation and society inseparable.

Answer: Option (A)
2. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made huge profits.The passage best supports the statement that
    A. smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation. B. smuggling ought to be curbed. C. authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling. D. smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.

Answer: Option (D)
3. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet fashions have come to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is now required is that strong efforts should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion from the minds of these youngsters.The passage best supports the statement that:
    A. fashion is the need of the day. B. the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one’s personality. C. the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive development. D. work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance.

Answer: Option (C)
4. One of the important humanitarian by-products of technology is the greater dignity and value that it imparts to human labour. In a highly industrialized society, there is no essential difference between Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are equally useful and hence equally valuable for in the industrial society individual productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and this fixes social status.The passage best supports the statement that:
    A. technology decides individual’s social status. B. castes and religions are man-made. C. human labour has dignity and value. D. all individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal. E. industrial society is a great leveller of men.

Answer: Option (C)
5. The future of women in India is quite bright and let us hope that they will justify their abilities by rising to the occasion. Napoleon was right when he declared that by educating the women we can educate the whole nation. Because a country can never rise without the contribution of 50% of their population.The passage best supports the statement that:
    A. India is striving hard for the emancipation of women. B. all women should be well educated. C. a nation can progress only when women are given equal rights and opportunities as men. D. women ought to be imparted full freedom to prove their worth and contribute to the progress of the nation.

Answer: Option (D)
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