Directions to Solve
Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used to competition.In the past they sold whatever ...(1)... produced at whatever prices they chose. But ...(2)... increasing competition, customers began to ...(3)... and choose. Imports suddenly became ...(4)... available and that too at cheaper ...(5)...
1. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. it B. he C. they D. we

Answer: Option C
2. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. with B. by C. after D. from

Answer: Option A
3. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. buy B. take C. pick D. want

Answer: Option C
4. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. hardly B. easily C. frequently D. conveniently

Answer: Option B
5. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. costs B. returns C. dividend D. prices

Answer: Option D

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In the olden days, students used to stay in the teacher’s house and learn. At a young age, boys were sent to the teacher’s house. This system of education was called ‘Gurukula’.
Prabhakaran was a boy of twelve. He was staying in his teacher’s house to learn Sanskrit. Prabhakaran was a good student and his teacher liked him. But the teacher didn’t show his affection towards the boy. Rather, he was stricter towards him. One day Prabhakaran was not very attentive in the class. This made the teacher angry. He beat him severely. Prabhakaran wept for some time. Then he wanted to wreak his vengeance on the teacher. In his rage he decided to kill the teacher. He chalked out a plan for this; Prabhakaran would climb up to the roof of his teacher’s bedroom with heavy granite stone and drop it on the teacher’s head when he was asleep. So after taking the dinner, Prabhakaran went out, picked up a heavy stone and climbed to the roof of the room. After some time his teacher and his wife retired to bed. Before sleeping they talked for some time. During the talk Prabhakaran heard his name being mentioned. He listened to their conversation attentively. The teacher’s wife was equally fond of Prabhakaran. She was telling the teacher, ‘this morning you were very harsh on Prabhakaran. You beat him umpteen times, mercilessly. Is he not the best boy in your class? If you behave in this manner he will run away from here and you will lose a good student.’
The teacher replied, ‘you are right, I should not have been so cruel to him. But you know he was not attentive in the class. I was taking an important lesson and he was talking to another boy. When I saw it I lost my temper. Prabhakaran should not miss important lessons. So I beat him in such a way that the punishment may deter him from such indifference in future.’
On hearing this, Prabhakaran became very sad. It was with good intention that the teacher punished him. He was overwhelmed with remorse. The whole night he sat on the roof. The next morning after lessons, he approached his teacher when he was alone and confessed to him everything.
1. Why did the student decide to remain on the roof whole night?

A. He felt so guilty that he did not have courage to come down. B. He waited for the teacher to sleep C. He waited to hear the conversation in the teacher’s room D. He did not know the way to come down E. None of these

Answer: Option E
2. What was the plan of the student to take revenge?

A. To create a situation so that the teacher becomes helpless. B. To kill the wife of the teacher C. To peep into his bedroom from the roof top D. To crush the teacher’s head with a stone at night E. None of these

Answer: Option D
3. In which system of education was Prabhakaran studying?

A. The system of read and recite B. The system of day and night school C. Staying in teacher’s house and work for him D. The Gurukula system of learning Sanskrit E. None of these

Answer: Option D
4. Why did the teacher not show affection to Prabhakaran?

A. He developed hatred towards him B. He knew that Prabhakaran was a potential killer C. Prabhakaran did not have sympathy towards teacher’s wife D. The teacher had seen him talking with other boys E. None of these

Answer: Option E
5. The purpose of the teacher to punish the boy was –

A. to reform him as he was bad in studies B. to teach him as he was not paying attention C. to send message to the class to improve their behavior D. to make the boy vindictive E. None of these

Answer: Option B
6. Which behavior irritated the teacher most?

A. Going to roof top with granite stone B. Listening to the bedroom conversation C. Indulging into the conversation with other boys during class D. The weeping of Prabhakaran E. None of these

Answer: Option C
7. In the opinion of teacher’s wife, Prabhakaran was …..

A. most dishonest, insincere boy B. the best student in the class C. a short tempered sensitive boy D. a student who deserved much more punishment E. a sycophant who used to praise the teacher for no reason

Answer: Option B
8. What was the Prabhakaran’s reaction on hearing the conversation in his teacher’s bedroom?

A. should wait for the couple to sleep and kill them both B. how wrong am I to kill such a nice teacher C. I should jump onto the bed of the couple from roof top D. Alas! I should not have heard the conversation E. None of these

Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. The Gurukula system of education was forced on Prabhakaran B. The teacher assaulted the student mercilessly C. The teacher’s wife was astonished at the behavior of Prabhakaran D. Prabhakaran did not have guilt feeling even after hearing the conversation E. Prabhakaran had no plan to kill the teacher

Answer: Option B
10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. In old days boys at young age were sent to teacher’s house B. But for bedroom conversation, Prabhakaran would not have killed the teacher C. Prabhakaran was the best student in the class D. The teacher’s wife was of the view that Prabhakaran might run away E. The teacher was teaching an important lesson

Answer: Option A
Directions (11-12): Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage?
11. Remorse

A. greed B. satisfaction C. morse D. guilt E. accuracy

Answer: Option B
12. Severely

A. harshly B. calmly C. lightly D. happily E. accidentally

Answer: Option C
Directions (13-15): Which of the following words is the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage:
13. Retired

A. tired B. exhausted C. fell D. went E. reclined

Answer: Option D
14. Umpteen

A. twenty B. nineteen C. many D. regular E. rarely

Answer: Option C
15. Deter

A. abstain B. encourage C. deploy D. pull E. stop

Answer: Option E

Directions to Solve: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
1. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly B. on the eve of the examination C. that I found it very easy to work it out. D. No error.

Answer: Option A
2. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. An Indian ship B. laden with merchandise C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean. D. No error.

Answer: Option C
3. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. I could not put up in a hotel B. because the boarding and lodging charges C. were exorbitant. D. No error.

Answer: Option A
4. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. the Indian radio B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers C. is free now from the narrow vested interests. D. No error.

Answer: Option C
5. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. If I had known B. this yesterday C. I will have helped him. D. No error.

Answer: Option C

Directions to Solve: In questions given below, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
1. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them. A. hell bent on getting B. hell bent for getting C. hell bent upon getting D. No improvement Answer: Option C
2. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

A. into crushing B. in crushing C. without crushing D. No improvement

Answer: Option B
3. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.

A. If the room was brighter B. If the room are brighter C. Had the room been brighter D. No improvement

Answer: Option C
4. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge. then Viceroy of India, shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.

A. improved B. broken C. bettered D. No improvement

Answer: Option B
5. His powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire B. His desire for power C. His fatal desire D. No improvement

Answer: Option B

Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. 1) Despite posting healthy profits, Volkswagen shares trade at a discount to peers due to bad reputation among investors. 2) A disastrous capital hike, an expensive foray into truck business and uncertainty about the reason for a share buyback have in recent years left investors bewildered. 3) The main problem with Volkswagen is the past. 4) Many investors have been disappointed and frightened away. 5) Volkswagen shares trade at about nine times the 2002 estimated earnings, compared to BMW's 19 and are the second cheapest in the sector.

A. 52134 B. 13425 C. 32451 D. 13524

Answer: Option B
2. 1) Ignorance is the opposite of knowledge, i.e., want of knowledge. 2) To deal with uncertainty and ignorance economists have recognized the entrepreneur as possessing this non-rational form of knowledge. 3) Like some ancient priest-king, the entrepreneur ‘knows’ the future and leads his people. 4) Entrepreneurial knowledge is essentially intuitive. 5) It involves seeing and realizing a vision of future markets, products and/or other opportunities.

A. 32145 B. 43125 C. 12453 D. 45123

Answer: Option D
3. 1) The impetus for change in cargo handling, after years of operational inefficiency has come from new private sector facilitators. 2) Other ports, both major and minor, have spurred into action. 3) And the government agrees this is having a cascading effect on the functioning of other ports. 4) In terms of cargo handling efficiency, some of India's ports have lately undergone a sea change.

A. 1324 B. 4132 C. 4213 D. 4312

Answer: Option B

Directions: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. The teacher ordered Kamal to leave the room and ______ him to return.

A. stopped B. refused C. forbade D. Challenged

Answer: Option C
2. There are ______ views on the issue of giving bonus to the employees. A. independent B. divergent C. modest D. adverse Answer: Option B
3. They have decided to meet the Prime Minister in order to have their _____ heard. A. agony B. apathy C. woes D. sufferings Answer: Option D
4. _______ by people’s perception it seems that democracy has succeeded in India. A. Following B. Going C. Making D. Planned Answer: Option B
5. Few professions can ______ the sheer variety and constant ______ of being a doctor. A. like, struggle B. share, enthusiast C. match, challenge D. draw, work-load Answer: Option C

Directions: four alternatives a, b, c and d given under each sentence, you are required to select most suitable alternative to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful.
1. The punch made the boxer __________ with pain.

A. wince B. gap C. grumble D. fumble

Answer: Option A
2. Only __________ People are __________ after death.

A. vicious; condemned B. virile; forgotten C. virtuous; remembered D. virulent; glorified

Answer: Option C
3. The shepherd was looking after the __________ Of sheep.

A. crew B. gang C. fleet D. flock

Answer: Option D
4. His __________ directions misled us; we did not know which road to take.

A. complex B. obscure C. mingled D. Vague

Answer: Option D
5. Even a __________ glance will reveal the mystery.

A. crude B. cursory C. critical D. curious

Answer: Option B

1. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the center. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?

A. A B. X C. S D. Z

Answer: Option B
2. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting?

A. Between B and D B. Between B and C C. Between E and D D. Between C and E

Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve: Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
3. Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta?

A. Bindu B. Rani C. Mary D. Seema

Answer: Option C
4. Who is in the middle of the photograph?

A. Bindu B. Rani C. Reeta D. Seema

Answer: Option B
5. Who is second from the right?

A. Mary B. Rani C. Reeta D. Bindu

Answer: Option C

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information and answer the following questions: M, N, O, P, Q, R and T seven friends working in different companies – HCL, Ranbaxy, Wipro, DLF, Reliance, Tata and Samsung. Each of them has a different car viz Wagonr, Brio, Santro, Alto, Indica, Etios and Swift, but not necessarily in the same order. R works in Wipro and drives santro car. T drives swift car and does not works in Samsung. M works in Tata and does not drive either wagonr or Brio. O drives Alto car and does not work either in Reliance or Ranbaxy. P drives Indica car and works in DLF. Q does not work in Ranbaxy. N does not drive Etios. One who drives Wagnor works in Reliance.
1. Which of the following car does Q drives?

A. Etios B. Brio C. Wagonr D. Swift E. None of these

Answer: Option C
2. In which company does O works?

A. Reliance B. Ranbaxy C. Samsung D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option C
3. In which company does N works?

A. DLF B. Ranbaxy C. Samsung D. HCL E. None of these

Answer: Option B
4. Who drives Brio car?

A. M B. Q C. T D. N E. P

Answer: Option D
5. Which of the following combination is true?

A. T – Swift – Samsung B. N – Wagonr – Reliance C. N – Wagonr – Ranbaxy D. O – Alto – Samsung E. None of these

Answer: Option D

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of these questions, relationships between two elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statement and give answer:
1. Statement: P = Q, M< N, P< N, J≤ M Conclusions: I. P> M II. N> J

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option B
2. Statement: C≥ Q, L = T, D< C, L≤ Q Conclusions: I. Q> L II. U> S

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D
3. Statements: U<V, S≥C, U≥F, F> C Conclusions: I. V> C II. U> S

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option A
4. Statements: T> R, I≤ E, T≥ E, I=L Conclusions: I. E = R II. R> L

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D
5. Statements: L≤ M, N> J, X≥ M, L= N Conclusions: I. N< M II. N≥ M

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D

Directions to Solve: In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

A. If only (I) conclusion follows B. If sonly (II) conclusion follows C. If either (I) or (II) follows D. If neither (I) nor (II) follows and E. If both (I) and (II) follow.

1. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions: I. Some actors are dancers. II. No singer is actor.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option A
2. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes. Conclusions: I. All the flutes are instruments. II. All the harmoniums are flutes.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option B
3. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes. Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are green. II. Tixo is a yellow.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option D
4. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples. Conclusions: I. All the apples are parrots. II. Some ants are apples.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option B
5. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens. Conclusions: I. Some pens are pencils. II. Some pens are papers.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option E

Directions (1-5): Study the given information and answer the questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement. Input: 19 ear 24 an 18 nose 25 our 32 mind 9 box Step I: 10 19 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind box an Step II: box 10 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind an 20 Step III: 26 box 10 24 18 nose our 32 mind an 20 ear Step IV: mind 26 box 10 24 nose our 32 an 20 ear 17 Step V: 23 mind 26 box 10 our 32 an 20 ear 17 nose Step VI: our 23 mind 26 box 10 an 20 ear 17 nose 31 And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 17 and 32 on 12 never 29 time 7 put 4 fix
1. In which step the elements ‘32 12 time’ found in the same order?

A. Step I B. Step II C. Step III D. Step IV E. Step VI

Answer: Option D
2. In step III, which of the following element would be at 2nd to the left of 5th from the right end?

A. 12 B. time C. put D. 4 E. and

Answer: Option A
3. How many step required completing the above arrangement?

A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Seven E. None of these.

Answer: Option E
4. Which of the following would be the step V after arrangement?

A. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time 18 and never 3 put B. on 11 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put C. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never put 3 D. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put E. None of these

Answer: Option D
5. In step VI, ‘time’ is related to ‘on’ and ‘never’ is related to ‘put’. In the same way ‘fix’ is related to?

A. time B. 11 C. on D. and E. None of these

Answer: Option D

Directions (1 - 5) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Read both the statements and answer accordingly.
1. How is G related to Q?
Statement I: A is son of F. H is brother of A. R is daughter of G. Q is son of B who is married to A
Statement II: C who is married to H, is mother of P. R is sister of H

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option D
2. Six people – A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a square table with 4 people at four corners and remaining 2 at two of the four sides. The ones sitting at corner are facing inside and those at sides are facing outside. E is facing which direction?
Statement I: D is sitting to the immediate left of A.F is sitting second to the right of C. B is sitting third to the right of D. B and D are facing opposite directions.
Statement II: E is sitting second to the left of B. There are two people sitting between D and B. A and C are facing same direction. D is sitting second to the left of C.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option A
3. Point G is in which direction with respect to point D?
Statement I: Point C is 3 m north of point D. Point E is 2 m north of point F. Point E is 8 m east of point D. Point K is 2m north of point I. Point G is 3 m north of point H. Point B is 6 m west of point C. Point H is 4 m east of point I.
Statement II: A person starts from point K in south direction. He walks for 5 m and takes a left turn. Next he walks for 3 m before turning to his right. Now he walks for 2 m and turns to his left. Next he walks for 6 m and again turns to his left. After walking some distance he reaches point F.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option E
4. On which day does Megha celebrate her birthday?
Statement I: Megha’s brother’s birthday is on 6th December and her mother’s is after 22 days of her borther.
Statement II: Megha celebrates her birthday 5 days after her father celebrates his birthday. Her father celebrates his birthday on 22nd December which is 6 days before her mother’s birthday.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Answer: Option B
5. What can be the code of WONDER?
Statement I: If FAVOUR is codded as ATVSTP Statement II: If REPORT is codded as PSUQFS

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option B

1. Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, “Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother.” How is the woman related to Abhijit?

A. Sister B. Grandmother C. Mother-in-law D. Mother

Answer: Option D
Directions (2 - 3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below P $ Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’
P @ Q means ‘Q is the wife of P’
P # Q means ‘P is the father of Q’
P % Q means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

2. How is U related to T in the following expression? U @ H $ J # T

A. Paternal Grandmother B. Paternal Grandfather C. Maternal Grandfather D. Maternal Grandmother E. Data Inadequate

Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following expression indicates S is the sister of V?

A. Only I and II follows B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. None follows E. All follows

Answer: Option C
4. K married to S. P is a brother of B. S is a mother of N, who is a brother of B. How is B related to K?

A. Son B. Daughter C. Either son or daughter D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

Answer: Option C
5. Pointing to a girl, Mala said, ‘She is the granddaughter of my grandfather’s only son’. How is the girl related to Mala?

A. Niece B. Sister C. Daughter D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option D

1. Sam ranked ninth from the top and thirty-eighth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 E. 49

Answer: Option B
2. A class of boys stands in a single line. One boy is nineteenth in order from both the ends. How many boys are there in the class?

A. 27 B. 37 C. 38 D. 39 E. 28

Answer: Option B
3. Ajay ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty-ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class?

A. 40 B. 44 C. 50 D. 55 E. 58

Answer: Option D
4. If Atul finds that the he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line?

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 20 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
5. In a row of boys, Jeevan is seventh from the start and eleventh from the end. In another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from the start and twelfth from the end. How many boys are there in both the rows together?

A. 36 B. 37 C. 39 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option E

Directions (1 - 5): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow. L F 3 # R N 8 A @ Y 4 M © W P 6 H U 9 I K 2 E
1. Which of the following is sixth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

A. Y B. M C. 4 D. @ E. None of these

Answer: Option C
2. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?

A. Two B. One C. More than three D. Three E. None of these

Answer: Option A

3. If all numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?

A. I B. P C. W D. U E. None of these

Answer: Option D
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. None of these Answer: Option B
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the fifth, sixth, eighth, twelfth, twentieth and twenty-third letter of the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourth letter from the left?

A. E B. I C. N D. R E. Cannot be determined

Answer: Option E

1. Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following information: Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.
If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U?

A. P B. Q C. R D. T

Answer: Option C
2. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?

A. 15 m West B. 30 m East C. 30 m West D. 45 m East

Answer: Option D
3. A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially?

A. 1 km B. 2 km C. 3 km D. 5 km

Answer: Option B
4. Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which directions is now Jayant from X?

A. 32 m, South B. 47 m, East C. 42 m, North D. 27 m, South

Answer: Option A
5. Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following information: 1. 8-trees → mango, guava, papaya, pomegranate, lemon, banana, raspberry and apple are in two rows 4 in each facing North and South.
2. Lemon is between mango and apple but just opposite to guava.
3. Banana is at one end of a line and is just next in the right of guava or either banana tree is just after guava tree.
4. Raspberry tree which at one end of a line, is just diagonally opposite to mango tree.
Which tree is just opposite to banana tree? A. Mango B. Pomegranate C. Papaya D. Data is inadequate Answer: Option A

1. Directions: Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ? A. 35 B. 38 C. 39 D. 40 Answer: Option A
2. Directions: Six dice with upper face erased are as shown The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7. If even numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?

A. 12 B. 14 C. 18 D. 24

Answer: Option C
3. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago?

A. 71 years B. 72 years C. 74 years D. 77 years

Answer: Option A
4. Which one will replace the question mark?

A. 45 B. 29 C. 39 D. 37

Answer: Option C
5. A song always has

A. Word B. Chorus C. Musician D. Tymbal

Answer: Option A

1. The Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment Thaawarchand Gehlot announced that the Government will set a National Sports Stadium for differently-abled in which state?

A. Haryana B. Meghalaya C. Uttar Pradesh D. Assam

Answer: Option B
2. Which state launched the flagship scheme "Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries"?

A. Meghalaya B. Manipur C. Rajasthan D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: Option A
3. Which state government signed an MoU with the British Council to strengthen educational and cultural cooperation, recently?

A. Maharashtra B. Jharkand C. Andhra Pradesh D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: Option D
4. Pashu Sanjeevni Sewa, health care services through mobile veterinary clinics was introduced in which state?

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar C. Tamil Nadu D. Haryana

Answer: Option D
5. Gogha- Dahej Ro-Pax Ferry service will be inaugurated in which of the following state?

A. Punjab B. Haryana C. Maharashtra D. Gujarat

Answer: Option D
6. TECH 2018 will organized by UNESCO MGIEP along with this state.

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Goa C. Karnataka D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: Option A
7. Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated Vishwa Shanti Ahimsa Sammelan in which of the following state?

A. Punjab B. Rajasthan C. Gujarat D. Maharashtra

Answer: Option D
8. This state government stated Man-animal conflict as a 'State Declared Disaster'.

A. Madhya Pradesh B. Karnataka C. Kerala D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: Option D
9. India's first railway station inside the tunnel will be come up in which state?

A. Jammu & Kashmir B. Himachal Pradesh C. Maharashtra D. Goa

Answer: Option B
10. Punjab Cabinet approved an extension of __________ % reservation for women to chairpersons for panchayat samiti, zila parishad.

A. 40% B. 50% C. 55% D. 60%

Answer: Option B

1. CAD has widened to a four-quarter-high at 2.4% of gross domestic product (GDP) in April-June period, as per the RBI data. What is the full form of CAD?

A. Central Account Deficit B. Current Account Decline C. Current Amount Deficit D. Common Account Deficit E. Current Account Deficit

Answer: Option E
2. Economic Affairs Secretary SC Garg announced a reduction in gross borrowing estimate for the current fiscal by ______________________ crore rupees and maintained that the government will contain fiscal deficit target at 3.3%.

A. 30,000 crore rupees B. 10,000 crore rupees C. 50,000 crore rupees D. 70,000 crore rupees E. 90,000 crore rupees

Answer: Option D
3. Which country has received $57.1 billion from International Monetary Fund (IMF), the biggest loan package ever from the global body aimed at boosting the country's struggling economy?

A. Singapore B. Russia C. Argentina D. Germany E. India

Answer: Option C
4. How much amount has approved by Finance ministry in five state-owned lenders including PNB, Corporation Bank & Andhra Bank to help them meet the regulatory capital requirement?

A. Rs 22,112 crore B. Rs 11,336 crore C. Rs 34,513 crore D. Rs 47,651 crore E. Rs 82,203 crore

Answer: Option B
5. The European Investment Bank is the European Union's nonprofit long-term lending institution established in 1958 under the Treaty of Rome. Where is the headquartered of European Investment Bank?

A. Warsaw B. Luxembourg C. Sofia D. Vienna E. Hungary

Answer: Option B
6. The Union Government, Rajasthan and the World Bank signed a _______________________ million Development Policy Loan (DPL) to support Rajasthan in improving the performance of its Electricity Distribution Sector under the State’s ‘24x7 Power for All’ program.

A. USD 400 million B. USD 250 million C. USD 500 million D. USD 725 million E. USD 1200 million

Answer: Option B
7. The Central government and the _____________________ have signed 300 million dollar loan agreements for India Energy Efficiency Scale up Programme.

A. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank B. New Development Bank C. International Monetary Fund D. Asian Development Bank E. World Bank

Answer: Option E
8. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has sanctioned an amount of Rs 335 crore under the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) to-

A. Jharkhand B. Odisha C. West Bengal D. Kerala E. Rajasthan

Answer: Option B
9. HDFC ERGO, India's third-largest non-life insurance provider in the private sector, announced the launch of 'E@Secure', a Cyber Insurance Policy for individuals. HDFC ERGO is based in-

A. Mumbai B. New Delhi C. Chennai D. Kolkata E. Bengaluru

Answer: Option B
10. The government of India has doubled the monetary limit to _________________ rupees for filing loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions.

A. 50 lakh rupees B. 60 lakh rupees C. 10 lakh rupees D. 30 lakh rupees E. 20 lakh rupees

Answer: Option B

1. Jeevan Rekha (Life line) express is

A. first hospital on wheels in the world B. first railway express C. oldest train D. None of the above

Answer: Option A
2. John F. Kennedy was

A. one the most popular Presidents of USA B. the first Roman Catholic President C. writer of Why England slept and Profile in Courage D. All the above

Answer: Option D
3. Mina is the tribe of

A. Tripura B. Sikkim C. Rajasthan D. Nagaland, Assam

Answer: Option C
4. National Institute of Occupation Health is located at

A. Bangalore B. Ahmedabad C. Pune D. Mumbai

Answer: Option B
5. National Institute of Oceanography is located at

A. Panaji (Goa) B. Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) C. Pune (Maharashtra) D. Nagpur (Maharashtra)

Answer: Option A
6. Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education is located at

A. Bhopal B. Gwalior C. Karnal D. Patiala

Answer: Option B
7. Olympic creed and oath was composed by ____ the founder of modern Olympics.

A. Rev Father Didon B. Baron Pierre de Coubertin C. Norman Pitchard D. None of the above

Answer: Option B
8. Lance Armstrong, a sportsperson of international repute, belongs to which of the following countries?

A. USA B. Ukraine C. Spain D. Brazil

Answer: Option A
9. Missile 'prithivi' aims

A. to test the performance of an indigenously built heat-shield B. to hit target without the help of the Air Forces C. to defend a large installations like oil-fields etc. against enemy attacks D. None of the above

Answer: Option B
10. The treaty which ushered in NATO, was signed by the member nations at

A. Geneva B. London C. Paris D. Washington

Answer: Option D

1. Which country uses the currency rupee?

A. Barbados B. Antigua and Barbuda C. Pakistan D. Liechtenstein

Answer: Option C
2.Which country uses the currency rupee?

A. Barbados B. Antigua and Barbuda C. Pakistan D. Liechtenstein

Answer: Option B
3. Which country uses the currency balboa?

A. Malawi B. Antigua and Barbuda C. Rwanda D. Panama

Answer: Option D
4. What is the official currency of Panama Canal Zone?

A. Russian rubleKuwaiti dinar B. Kuwaiti dinar C. U.S. Dollar D. Guatemalan quetzal

Answer: Option C
5. Which country uses the currency kina?

A. Saint Vincent and the Grenadines B. Netherlands Antilles C. Papua New Guinea D. Macedonia (Former Yug. Rep.)

Answer: Option C
6. What is the official currency of Paraguay?

A. Paraguayan guarani B. Saudi riyal C. Bahraini dinar D. Central African CFA franc

Answer: Option A
7. Which country uses the currency Peruvian nuevo sol?

A. Namibia B. Peru C. Finland D. Libya

Answer: Option B
8. What is the official currency of Philippines?

A. Bangladeshi taka B. West African CFA franc C. Philippine peso D. Bahamian dollar

Answer: Option C
9. Which country uses the currency Polish zloty?

A. Albania B. El Salvador C. Afghanistan D. Poland

Answer: Option D
10. What is the official currency of Portugal?

A. Central African CFA franc B. Thai baht C. U.S. Dollar D. European euro

Answer: Option D

1. The first Indian Satellite launched from Soviet Cosmodrome is?

A. Bhaskara B. Aryabhatta C. Bharat D. Rohini

Answer: Option B
2. Largest Mint in India is located at

A. Srinagar B. Nasik C. Jabalpur D. Ranchi

Answer: Option A
3. The industrial organization of Atomic Minerals Division, Heavy Water Board (HWB) is located at

A. Jadugude, Bihar B. Mumbai C. Hyderabad D. Kolkata

Answer: Option B
4. 'Bagh', a village in Gwalior is famous for

A. Cave Painting B. Sculptures C. Architecture D. All of the above

Answer: Option A
5. Golden Temple is situated in

A. Amritsar B. New Delhi C. Agra D. Mumbai

Answer: Option A
6. Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located in

A. Bihar B. Rajasthan C. Gujarat D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: Option B
7. The Central Rice Research institute is located at

A. Cuttack B. Madras C. Rajamundry D. Cochin

Answer: Option A
8. 'Apsara' is the name of India's first

A. Ground Battle Tank B. Nuclear Reactor C. Railway Locomotive D. Helicopter

Answer: Option B
9. The first person of Indian origin to be appointed as a judge in U.S. is

A. Ridhi Desai B. P.A. Sangma C. Basava Rajeswari D. R.C. Bharadwaj

Answer: Option A
10. The first Indian University was opened in 1857 was in

A. Kolkata B. Mumbai C. Bihar D. Chennai

Answer: Option A

1. Who has written the famous book 'Mankind and Mother Earth'?

A. Arnold Toynbee B. Leo Tolstoy C. John Ruskin D. Bertrand Russel

Answer: Option A
2. Who is the author of the book 'Naked Triangle'?

A. R.K.Narayan B. Amrita Pritam C. Balwant Gargi D. Khushwant Singh

Answer: Option C
3. The book 'Gulliver's Travels' was written by

A. Alexandra Dumas B. Charles Lamb C. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Swift

Answer: Option B
4. Which of the book was written by Graham Greene?

A. O' Jerusalem B. The Power and Glory C. Crisis in India D. Of Human Bondage

Answer: Option B
5. 'Mirchchhakatika' was written by

A. Vikramaditya B. Shudraka C. Kalhana D. Banabhatta

Answer: Option B
6. The famous book 'Anandmath' was authored by

A. Sarojini Naidu B. Bankim Chandra Chottapadhya C. Sri Aurobindo D. Rabindrnath Tagore

Answer: Option B
7. Who wrote the book 'Reminiscences of the Nehru Age'?

A. C.D.Deshmukh B. Dr. P.C.Alexander C. M.O.Mathai D. S.C.Rajagopalachari

Answer: Option C
8. Aurobindo was the author of

A. Discovery of India B. Hindu view of life C. Yogashastra D. Savitri

Answer: Option D
9. 'Alice in Wonderland' the famous TV serial is based on a book written by

A. Father Discoste B. Thomas Hardy C. Charles Dickens D. Lewis Caroll

Answer: Option D
10. 'The Gathering Storm' is written by

A. Winston Churchill B. George Washington C. Voltaire D. Romain Rolland

Answer: Option A

1. This country won the Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management Award, 2018.

A. Indonesia B. Bangladesh C. Nepal D. India

Answer: Option D
2. Which of the following will be awarded with the 2018 FICCI?

A. Railways Sports Promotion Board B. Federation of Motor Sports Clubs of India C. Sports federation of india D. Athletics Federation of India

Answer: Option D
3. Which Indian organisation won the United Nations Investment Promotion Award recently?

A. Invest India B. Bajaj Capital Limited C. Kotak Private Equity Group D. River Bridge

Answer: Option A
4. Ustad Chand Khan Lifetime Achievement Award was conferred to whom?

A. T H Vinayakram B. Tarun Bhattacharya C. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt D. Hariprasad Chaurasia

Answer: Option C
5. Who won the 'Vimala V Pai Vishwa' Konkani best book award for the year 2018 recently?

A. Damodar Mauzo B. Mahabaleshwar Sail C. H M Pernal D. Pundalik Naik

Answer: Option C
6. Who of the following has been conferred for the '2018 Sangita Kalanidhi award' of the Music Academy?

A. M. Balamuralikrishna B. Nithyasree Mahadevan C. Aruna Sairam D. Sudha Ragunathan

Answer: Option C
7. Name of the musician who won the special lifetime achievement award from the Music Academy

A. Lalgudi G Jayaraman B. Kamala Lakshminarayanan C. Hariprasad Chaurasia D. Hariprasad Chaurasia

Answer: Option D
8. Which among the following won the 2018 ISSA Good Practice Award?

A. UPSC B. SSC C. EPFO D. ESIC

Answer: Option D
9. William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer clinched the 2018 Nobel Prize in __________.

A. Chemistry B. Physiology C. Medicine D. Economic Science

Answer: Option D
10. Who won the 2018 Nobel Peace Prize recently?

A. Malala Yousafzai and Edward Snowden B. Kim Jong-Un & Moon Jae-In C. Denis Mukwege and Nadia Murad D. John McCain and Emmanuel Macron

Answer: Option C

1. The HQ of International Telecommunication is at

A. Vienna B. New York C. Geneva D. Mexico

Answer: Option C
2. The HQ of International Cricket Council is at

A. Mumbai B. England C. Sydney D. Dubai

Answer: Option D
3. The Headquarters of SAARC is at

A. New Delhi B. Islamabad C. Kathmandu D. Colombo

Answer: Option C
4. The Headquarters of International Council on Monuments and Sites is at

A. Munich B. Paris C. Monaco D. Geneva

Answer: Option B
5. The Headquarters of International Hockey Federation is at

A. Geneva B. Lausanne C. Vienna D. Tokyo

Answer: Option B
6. The headquarters of International Labour Organisation is at

A. Paris B. New York C. Hague D. Geneva

Answer: Option D
7. The headquarters of UNHCR is located at

A. New York B. Rome C. Geneva D. London

Answer: Option C
8. Where is the headquarters of Oil and Natural Gas Commission?

A. Dehradun B. Vadodara C. Digboi D. Mumbai

Answer: Option A
9. The HQ of International Monetary Fund (IMF) is at

A. New York B. Rome C. Geneva D. Washington DC

Answer: Option D
10. The Headquarters of Commonwealth of Nations is at

A. New York B. Nairobi C. London D. Geneva

Answer: Option C

1. Which ministry has launched Sampoorna Bima Yojana to give rural people affordable life Insurance Services ?

A. Ministry of trade & Commerce B. Ministry of Agriculture C. Ministry of Communication D. None of the Above

Answer: Option A
2. What is the full form of PMBJP ?

A. Pradhan Mantri Beej Jal PariYojana B. Pradhan Mantri Bnima Jan PariYojana C. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi PariYojana D. None of the above

Answer: Option C
3. Which was the first state to sign for Regional Connectivity Scheme(RCS) with Centre?

A. Maharashtra B. Goa C. Punjab D. Gujarat

Answer: Option A
4. Which Project was launched to showcase a Trannational Mixed Boute (including Natural and Cultural Heritage ) on the World Heritage List?

A. Project Bhoomi B. Project Sanskriti C. Project Mausam D. Project Virasat

Answer: Option C
5. Which state was chosen as a pilot State for Junior Heritage Mistri Scheme in view of its rich architectural heritage?

A. Chattisgarh B. Madhya Pradesh C. Rajasthan D. Maharashtra

Answer: Option C
6. Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) aims at achieving Open Defication Free( ODF ) nation and Swachh Bharat (Clean India) by which year?

A. 2019 B. 2020 C. 2021 D. 2022

Answer: Option A
7. What is the name of the first ever Swachh Bharat Hackathon, was organised by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation?

A. Aarogyathon 1.0 B. Shudhathon 1.0 C. Hackathon 1.0 D. Swachhathon 1.0

Answer: Option D
8. The scheme of implementing 2 crore LPG connections given under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana across how many districts?

A. 480 B. 600 C. 520 D. 620

Answer: Option B
9. For which scheme the Union Government Keeps Interest Rates Unchanged?

A. Savings Schemes B. Pradhan Mantri Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (PMSSY) C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) D. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)

Answer: Option A
10. Which scheme was carried out in order to supply the 13,872 villages to be electrified?

A. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana B. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana C. National Food Security Mission D. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)

Answer: Option D

1. October 24 was observed as the __________.

A. World Development Information Day B. Zero Discrimination Day C. World Poetry Day D. World Meteorological Day

Answer: Option A
2. World Trauma Day was observed on which day?

A. 17th October B. 20th October C. 21st October D. 23rd October

Answer: Option A
3. When is World Statistics Day observed?

A. October 23 B. October 22 C. October 21 D. October 20

Answer: Option D
4. On which date, the Police Commemoration Day is observed?

A. October 19 B. October 20 C. October 21 D. October 22

Answer: Option C
5. On which date, the National Solidarity day is celebrated?

A. October 22nd B. October 21st C. October 20th D. October 20th

Answer: Option C
6. The World Trauma Day is celebrated on

A. October 16 B. October 17 C. October 18 D. October 19

Answer: Option B
7. Coming together with those furthest behind to build an inclusive world of universal respect for human rights and dignity is the theme of which of the following?

A. International Day for the Eradication of Poverty B. World Leprosy Eradication Day C. Human Rights Day D. Legal Services Day

Answer: Option A
8. 2018 World Food Day is celebrated on 16 October with the theme of; A. The right to food B. United against hunger C. Our Actions Are Our Future D. Food prices - from crisis to stability Answer: Option C
9. What was the theme of the 2018 World Egg Day? A. Don't get angry, get cracking B. Put an Egg On It C. Protein for Life D. Protein for Good Health Answer: Option C
10. What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2018? A. Conserve and safeguard endangered birds B. Help Conserved Migratory Birds C. Stand up for conservation of Birds D. Unifying our Voices for Bird Conservation Answer: Option D