Directions to Solve
Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used to competition.In the past they sold whatever ...(1)... produced at whatever prices they chose. But ...(2)... increasing competition, customers began to ...(3)... and choose. Imports suddenly became ...(4)... available and that too at cheaper ...(5)...
1. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. it B. he C. they D. we

Answer: Option C
2. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. with B. by C. after D. from

Answer: Option A
3. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. buy B. take C. pick D. want

Answer: Option C
4. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. hardly B. easily C. frequently D. conveniently

Answer: Option B
5. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. costs B. returns C. dividend D. prices

Answer: Option D

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In the olden days, students used to stay in the teacher’s house and learn. At a young age, boys were sent to the teacher’s house. This system of education was called ‘Gurukula’.
Prabhakaran was a boy of twelve. He was staying in his teacher’s house to learn Sanskrit. Prabhakaran was a good student and his teacher liked him. But the teacher didn’t show his affection towards the boy. Rather, he was stricter towards him. One day Prabhakaran was not very attentive in the class. This made the teacher angry. He beat him severely. Prabhakaran wept for some time. Then he wanted to wreak his vengeance on the teacher. In his rage he decided to kill the teacher. He chalked out a plan for this; Prabhakaran would climb up to the roof of his teacher’s bedroom with heavy granite stone and drop it on the teacher’s head when he was asleep. So after taking the dinner, Prabhakaran went out, picked up a heavy stone and climbed to the roof of the room. After some time his teacher and his wife retired to bed. Before sleeping they talked for some time. During the talk Prabhakaran heard his name being mentioned. He listened to their conversation attentively. The teacher’s wife was equally fond of Prabhakaran. She was telling the teacher, ‘this morning you were very harsh on Prabhakaran. You beat him umpteen times, mercilessly. Is he not the best boy in your class? If you behave in this manner he will run away from here and you will lose a good student.’
The teacher replied, ‘you are right, I should not have been so cruel to him. But you know he was not attentive in the class. I was taking an important lesson and he was talking to another boy. When I saw it I lost my temper. Prabhakaran should not miss important lessons. So I beat him in such a way that the punishment may deter him from such indifference in future.’
On hearing this, Prabhakaran became very sad. It was with good intention that the teacher punished him. He was overwhelmed with remorse. The whole night he sat on the roof. The next morning after lessons, he approached his teacher when he was alone and confessed to him everything.
1. Why did the student decide to remain on the roof whole night?

A. He felt so guilty that he did not have courage to come down. B. He waited for the teacher to sleep C. He waited to hear the conversation in the teacher’s room D. He did not know the way to come down E. None of these

Answer: Option E
2. What was the plan of the student to take revenge?

A. To create a situation so that the teacher becomes helpless. B. To kill the wife of the teacher C. To peep into his bedroom from the roof top D. To crush the teacher’s head with a stone at night E. None of these

Answer: Option D
3. In which system of education was Prabhakaran studying?

A. The system of read and recite B. The system of day and night school C. Staying in teacher’s house and work for him D. The Gurukula system of learning Sanskrit E. None of these

Answer: Option D
4. Why did the teacher not show affection to Prabhakaran?

A. He developed hatred towards him B. He knew that Prabhakaran was a potential killer C. Prabhakaran did not have sympathy towards teacher’s wife D. The teacher had seen him talking with other boys E. None of these

Answer: Option E
5. The purpose of the teacher to punish the boy was –

A. to reform him as he was bad in studies B. to teach him as he was not paying attention C. to send message to the class to improve their behavior D. to make the boy vindictive E. None of these

Answer: Option B
6. Which behavior irritated the teacher most?

A. Going to roof top with granite stone B. Listening to the bedroom conversation C. Indulging into the conversation with other boys during class D. The weeping of Prabhakaran E. None of these

Answer: Option C
7. In the opinion of teacher’s wife, Prabhakaran was …..

A. most dishonest, insincere boy B. the best student in the class C. a short tempered sensitive boy D. a student who deserved much more punishment E. a sycophant who used to praise the teacher for no reason

Answer: Option B
8. What was the Prabhakaran’s reaction on hearing the conversation in his teacher’s bedroom?

A. should wait for the couple to sleep and kill them both B. how wrong am I to kill such a nice teacher C. I should jump onto the bed of the couple from roof top D. Alas! I should not have heard the conversation E. None of these

Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. The Gurukula system of education was forced on Prabhakaran B. The teacher assaulted the student mercilessly C. The teacher’s wife was astonished at the behavior of Prabhakaran D. Prabhakaran did not have guilt feeling even after hearing the conversation E. Prabhakaran had no plan to kill the teacher

Answer: Option B
10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. In old days boys at young age were sent to teacher’s house B. But for bedroom conversation, Prabhakaran would not have killed the teacher C. Prabhakaran was the best student in the class D. The teacher’s wife was of the view that Prabhakaran might run away E. The teacher was teaching an important lesson

Answer: Option A
Directions (11-12): Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage?
11. Remorse

A. greed B. satisfaction C. morse D. guilt E. accuracy

Answer: Option B
12. Severely

A. harshly B. calmly C. lightly D. happily E. accidentally

Answer: Option C
Directions (13-15): Which of the following words is the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage:
13. Retired

A. tired B. exhausted C. fell D. went E. reclined

Answer: Option D
14. Umpteen

A. twenty B. nineteen C. many D. regular E. rarely

Answer: Option C
15. Deter

A. abstain B. encourage C. deploy D. pull E. stop

Answer: Option E

Directions to Solve: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
1. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly B. on the eve of the examination C. that I found it very easy to work it out. D. No error.

Answer: Option A
2. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. An Indian ship B. laden with merchandise C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean. D. No error.

Answer: Option C
3. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. I could not put up in a hotel B. because the boarding and lodging charges C. were exorbitant. D. No error.

Answer: Option A
4. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. the Indian radio B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers C. is free now from the narrow vested interests. D. No error.

Answer: Option C
5. (Solve as per the direction given above)

A. If I had known B. this yesterday C. I will have helped him. D. No error.

Answer: Option C

Directions to Solve: In questions given below, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
1. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them. A. hell bent on getting B. hell bent for getting C. hell bent upon getting D. No improvement Answer: Option C
2. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

A. into crushing B. in crushing C. without crushing D. No improvement

Answer: Option B
3. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.

A. If the room was brighter B. If the room are brighter C. Had the room been brighter D. No improvement

Answer: Option C
4. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge. then Viceroy of India, shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.

A. improved B. broken C. bettered D. No improvement

Answer: Option B
5. His powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire B. His desire for power C. His fatal desire D. No improvement

Answer: Option B

Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. 1) Despite posting healthy profits, Volkswagen shares trade at a discount to peers due to bad reputation among investors. 2) A disastrous capital hike, an expensive foray into truck business and uncertainty about the reason for a share buyback have in recent years left investors bewildered. 3) The main problem with Volkswagen is the past. 4) Many investors have been disappointed and frightened away. 5) Volkswagen shares trade at about nine times the 2002 estimated earnings, compared to BMW's 19 and are the second cheapest in the sector.

A. 52134 B. 13425 C. 32451 D. 13524

Answer: Option B
2. 1) Ignorance is the opposite of knowledge, i.e., want of knowledge. 2) To deal with uncertainty and ignorance economists have recognized the entrepreneur as possessing this non-rational form of knowledge. 3) Like some ancient priest-king, the entrepreneur ‘knows’ the future and leads his people. 4) Entrepreneurial knowledge is essentially intuitive. 5) It involves seeing and realizing a vision of future markets, products and/or other opportunities.

A. 32145 B. 43125 C. 12453 D. 45123

Answer: Option D
3. 1) The impetus for change in cargo handling, after years of operational inefficiency has come from new private sector facilitators. 2) Other ports, both major and minor, have spurred into action. 3) And the government agrees this is having a cascading effect on the functioning of other ports. 4) In terms of cargo handling efficiency, some of India's ports have lately undergone a sea change.

A. 1324 B. 4132 C. 4213 D. 4312

Answer: Option B

Directions: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. The teacher ordered Kamal to leave the room and ______ him to return.

A. stopped B. refused C. forbade D. Challenged

Answer: Option C
2. There are ______ views on the issue of giving bonus to the employees. A. independent B. divergent C. modest D. adverse Answer: Option B
3. They have decided to meet the Prime Minister in order to have their _____ heard. A. agony B. apathy C. woes D. sufferings Answer: Option D
4. _______ by people’s perception it seems that democracy has succeeded in India. A. Following B. Going C. Making D. Planned Answer: Option B
5. Few professions can ______ the sheer variety and constant ______ of being a doctor. A. like, struggle B. share, enthusiast C. match, challenge D. draw, work-load Answer: Option C

Directions: four alternatives a, b, c and d given under each sentence, you are required to select most suitable alternative to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful.
1. The punch made the boxer __________ with pain.

A. wince B. gap C. grumble D. fumble

Answer: Option A
2. Only __________ People are __________ after death.

A. vicious; condemned B. virile; forgotten C. virtuous; remembered D. virulent; glorified

Answer: Option C
3. The shepherd was looking after the __________ Of sheep.

A. crew B. gang C. fleet D. flock

Answer: Option D
4. His __________ directions misled us; we did not know which road to take.

A. complex B. obscure C. mingled D. Vague

Answer: Option D
5. Even a __________ glance will reveal the mystery.

A. crude B. cursory C. critical D. curious

Answer: Option B

1. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the center. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?

A. A B. X C. S D. Z

Answer: Option B
2. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting?

A. Between B and D B. Between B and C C. Between E and D D. Between C and E

Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve: Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
3. Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta?

A. Bindu B. Rani C. Mary D. Seema

Answer: Option C
4. Who is in the middle of the photograph?

A. Bindu B. Rani C. Reeta D. Seema

Answer: Option B
5. Who is second from the right?

A. Mary B. Rani C. Reeta D. Bindu

Answer: Option C

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information and answer the following questions: M, N, O, P, Q, R and T seven friends working in different companies – HCL, Ranbaxy, Wipro, DLF, Reliance, Tata and Samsung. Each of them has a different car viz Wagonr, Brio, Santro, Alto, Indica, Etios and Swift, but not necessarily in the same order. R works in Wipro and drives santro car. T drives swift car and does not works in Samsung. M works in Tata and does not drive either wagonr or Brio. O drives Alto car and does not work either in Reliance or Ranbaxy. P drives Indica car and works in DLF. Q does not work in Ranbaxy. N does not drive Etios. One who drives Wagnor works in Reliance.
1. Which of the following car does Q drives?

A. Etios B. Brio C. Wagonr D. Swift E. None of these

Answer: Option C
2. In which company does O works?

A. Reliance B. Ranbaxy C. Samsung D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option C
3. In which company does N works?

A. DLF B. Ranbaxy C. Samsung D. HCL E. None of these

Answer: Option B
4. Who drives Brio car?

A. M B. Q C. T D. N E. P

Answer: Option D
5. Which of the following combination is true?

A. T – Swift – Samsung B. N – Wagonr – Reliance C. N – Wagonr – Ranbaxy D. O – Alto – Samsung E. None of these

Answer: Option D

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of these questions, relationships between two elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statement and give answer:
1. Statement: P = Q, M< N, P< N, J≤ M Conclusions: I. P> M II. N> J

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option B
2. Statement: C≥ Q, L = T, D< C, L≤ Q Conclusions: I. Q> L II. U> S

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D
3. Statements: U<V, S≥C, U≥F, F> C Conclusions: I. V> C II. U> S

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option A
4. Statements: T> R, I≤ E, T≥ E, I=L Conclusions: I. E = R II. R> L

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D
5. Statements: L≤ M, N> J, X≥ M, L= N Conclusions: I. N< M II. N≥ M

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option D

Directions to Solve: In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

A. If only (I) conclusion follows B. If sonly (II) conclusion follows C. If either (I) or (II) follows D. If neither (I) nor (II) follows and E. If both (I) and (II) follow.

1. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions: I. Some actors are dancers. II. No singer is actor.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option A
2. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes. Conclusions: I. All the flutes are instruments. II. All the harmoniums are flutes.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option B
3. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes. Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are green. II. Tixo is a yellow.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option D
4. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples. Conclusions: I. All the apples are parrots. II. Some ants are apples.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option B
5. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens. Conclusions: I. Some pens are pencils. II. Some pens are papers.

A. Only (I) conclusion follows B. Only (II) conclusion follows C. Either (I) or (II) follows D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows E. Both (I) and (II) follow

Answer: Option E

Directions (1-5): Study the given information and answer the questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement. Input: 19 ear 24 an 18 nose 25 our 32 mind 9 box Step I: 10 19 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind box an Step II: box 10 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind an 20 Step III: 26 box 10 24 18 nose our 32 mind an 20 ear Step IV: mind 26 box 10 24 nose our 32 an 20 ear 17 Step V: 23 mind 26 box 10 our 32 an 20 ear 17 nose Step VI: our 23 mind 26 box 10 an 20 ear 17 nose 31 And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 17 and 32 on 12 never 29 time 7 put 4 fix
1. In which step the elements ‘32 12 time’ found in the same order?

A. Step I B. Step II C. Step III D. Step IV E. Step VI

Answer: Option D
2. In step III, which of the following element would be at 2nd to the left of 5th from the right end?

A. 12 B. time C. put D. 4 E. and

Answer: Option A
3. How many step required completing the above arrangement?

A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Seven E. None of these.

Answer: Option E
4. Which of the following would be the step V after arrangement?

A. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time 18 and never 3 put B. on 11 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put C. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never put 3 D. 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put E. None of these

Answer: Option D
5. In step VI, ‘time’ is related to ‘on’ and ‘never’ is related to ‘put’. In the same way ‘fix’ is related to?

A. time B. 11 C. on D. and E. None of these

Answer: Option D

Directions (1 - 5) : In each of the following questions, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Read both the statements and answer accordingly.
1. How is G related to Q?
Statement I: A is son of F. H is brother of A. R is daughter of G. Q is son of B who is married to A
Statement II: C who is married to H, is mother of P. R is sister of H

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option D
2. Six people – A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a square table with 4 people at four corners and remaining 2 at two of the four sides. The ones sitting at corner are facing inside and those at sides are facing outside. E is facing which direction?
Statement I: D is sitting to the immediate left of A.F is sitting second to the right of C. B is sitting third to the right of D. B and D are facing opposite directions.
Statement II: E is sitting second to the left of B. There are two people sitting between D and B. A and C are facing same direction. D is sitting second to the left of C.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option A
3. Point G is in which direction with respect to point D?
Statement I: Point C is 3 m north of point D. Point E is 2 m north of point F. Point E is 8 m east of point D. Point K is 2m north of point I. Point G is 3 m north of point H. Point B is 6 m west of point C. Point H is 4 m east of point I.
Statement II: A person starts from point K in south direction. He walks for 5 m and takes a left turn. Next he walks for 3 m before turning to his right. Now he walks for 2 m and turns to his left. Next he walks for 6 m and again turns to his left. After walking some distance he reaches point F.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option E
4. On which day does Megha celebrate her birthday?
Statement I: Megha’s brother’s birthday is on 6th December and her mother’s is after 22 days of her borther.
Statement II: Megha celebrates her birthday 5 days after her father celebrates his birthday. Her father celebrates his birthday on 22nd December which is 6 days before her mother’s birthday.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Answer: Option B
5. What can be the code of WONDER?
Statement I: If FAVOUR is codded as ATVSTP Statement II: If REPORT is codded as PSUQFS

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: Option B

1. Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, “Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother.” How is the woman related to Abhijit?

A. Sister B. Grandmother C. Mother-in-law D. Mother

Answer: Option D
Directions (2 - 3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below P $ Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’
P @ Q means ‘Q is the wife of P’
P # Q means ‘P is the father of Q’
P % Q means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

2. How is U related to T in the following expression? U @ H $ J # T

A. Paternal Grandmother B. Paternal Grandfather C. Maternal Grandfather D. Maternal Grandmother E. Data Inadequate

Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following expression indicates S is the sister of V?

A. Only I and II follows B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. None follows E. All follows

Answer: Option C
4. K married to S. P is a brother of B. S is a mother of N, who is a brother of B. How is B related to K?

A. Son B. Daughter C. Either son or daughter D. Data Inadequate E. None of these

Answer: Option C
5. Pointing to a girl, Mala said, ‘She is the granddaughter of my grandfather’s only son’. How is the girl related to Mala?

A. Niece B. Sister C. Daughter D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option D

1. Sam ranked ninth from the top and thirty-eighth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

A. 45 B. 46 C. 47 D. 48 E. 49

Answer: Option B
2. A class of boys stands in a single line. One boy is nineteenth in order from both the ends. How many boys are there in the class?

A. 27 B. 37 C. 38 D. 39 E. 28

Answer: Option B
3. Ajay ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty-ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class?

A. 40 B. 44 C. 50 D. 55 E. 58

Answer: Option D
4. If Atul finds that the he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line?

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 20 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
5. In a row of boys, Jeevan is seventh from the start and eleventh from the end. In another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from the start and twelfth from the end. How many boys are there in both the rows together?

A. 36 B. 37 C. 39 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option E

Directions (1 - 5): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow. L F 3 # R N 8 A @ Y 4 M © W P 6 H U 9 I K 2 E
1. Which of the following is sixth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

A. Y B. M C. 4 D. @ E. None of these

Answer: Option C
2. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?

A. Two B. One C. More than three D. Three E. None of these

Answer: Option A

3. If all numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?

A. I B. P C. W D. U E. None of these

Answer: Option D
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. None of these Answer: Option B
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the fifth, sixth, eighth, twelfth, twentieth and twenty-third letter of the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourth letter from the left?

A. E B. I C. N D. R E. Cannot be determined

Answer: Option E

1. Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following information: Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.
If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U?

A. P B. Q C. R D. T

Answer: Option C
2. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?

A. 15 m West B. 30 m East C. 30 m West D. 45 m East

Answer: Option D
3. A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially?

A. 1 km B. 2 km C. 3 km D. 5 km

Answer: Option B
4. Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which directions is now Jayant from X?

A. 32 m, South B. 47 m, East C. 42 m, North D. 27 m, South

Answer: Option A
5. Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following information: 1. 8-trees → mango, guava, papaya, pomegranate, lemon, banana, raspberry and apple are in two rows 4 in each facing North and South.
2. Lemon is between mango and apple but just opposite to guava.
3. Banana is at one end of a line and is just next in the right of guava or either banana tree is just after guava tree.
4. Raspberry tree which at one end of a line, is just diagonally opposite to mango tree.
Which tree is just opposite to banana tree? A. Mango B. Pomegranate C. Papaya D. Data is inadequate Answer: Option A

1. Directions: Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

A. 35 B. 38 C. 39 D. 40

Answer: Option A
2. Directions: Six dice with upper face erased are as shown The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7. If even numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?

A. 12 B. 14 C. 18 D. 24

Answer: Option C
3. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago?

A. 71 years B. 72 years C. 74 years D. 77 years

Answer: Option A
4. Which one will replace the question mark?

A. 45 B. 29 C. 39 D. 37

Answer: Option C
5. A song always has

A. Word B. Chorus C. Musician D. Tymbal

Answer: Option A

1.Which State Tourism Department launched a 'Smile Virtual Tour Guide' site for boosting tourism recently?

A. Mizoram B. Himachala Pradesh C. Meghalaya D. Kerala

Answer: Option D
2. India's first 'Justice City' was developed by this state.

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Rajasthan C. Kerala D. Haryana

Answer: Option A
3. India-Japan first joint military exercise 'Dharma Guardian-2018' began in ___________.

A. Mizoram B. Andhra Pradesh C. Jharkhand D. West Bengal

Answer: Option A
4. Which union territory falls under jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court?

A. Puducherry B. Lakshadweep C. West Bengal D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer: Option D
5. Soura Jalanidhi scheme was launched in __________.

A. Rajasthan B. Bihar C. Assam D. Odisha

Answer: Option D
6. Entrepreneurship scheme Samruddhi was launched in which state?

A. Punjab B. Tamilnadu C. Andra Pradesh D. Karnataka

Answer: Option D
7. Jharsuguda Airport was renamed as "Veer Surendra Sai Airport, Jharsugudas". It was located in which state?

A. Goa B. Odisha C. Kerala D. Gujarat

Answer: Option B
8. World's first sovereign Blue Bond launched by which country?

A. USA B. Singapore C. Cape Verde D. Republic of Seychelles

Answer: Option D
9. Dr Jitendra Singh laid foundation stone of Technology Facility Center at which state?

A. Maharashtra B. Rajasthan C. Bihar D. Assam

Answer: Option D
10. The 5th National Summit on Good and Replicable Practices and Innovations in Public Health Care Systems have started in which state?

A. Bihar B. Assam C. Rajasthan D. Odisha

Answer: Option B

1. Oxygen & Fin care Small Finance Bank signed an agreement to roll out the Branch less Banking services, using Oxygen’s flagship Point of Sale device called the Oxygen Micro ATM Super PoS. Where is the Corporate Office of Fin care Small Finance Bank?

A. Chennai B. Bengaluru C. Ahmedabad D. Jaipur E. Mumbai

Answer: Option B
2. On occasion of Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, _______________________ launched a National Level Entrepreneurship Awareness Campaign, Udyam Abhilasha in 115 Aspirational Districts in 28 States & reaching to around 15,000 youth.

A. SEBI B. IRDAI C. RBI D. NABARD E. SIDBI

Answer: Option E
3. Alibaba & Soft-bank-backed Paytm registered over 137 million UPI transactions in September, becoming the leading contributor to Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payments with over 33% of the overall market share. Soft-bank based in-

A. Japan B. Thailand C. China D. Singapore E. Nepal

Answer: Option A
4. Life insurer PNB MetLife has unveiled an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered customer service app ____________.

A. Naami B. Sohrat C. Dhana D. Khushi E. Uphaar

Answer: Option D
5. Reliance Health Insurance, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Reliance Capital, received final approval from ___________ for its new health insurance business.

A. TRAI B. SEBI C. IRDAI D. RBI E. NABARD

Answer: Option C
6. Which organisation has approved a new scheme- "AtalBimitVyaktiKalyanYojna" for Insured Persons covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act?

A. SEBI B. NABARD C. RBI D. ESIC E. IRDAI

Answer: Option D
7. As per the RBI, India's external debt declined 2.8% to USD ________________ at June-end over the previous quarter on account of a decrease in commercial borrowings, short-term debt & NRI deposits.

A. USD 514.4 billion B. USD 301.2 billion C. USD 717.8 billion D. USD 913.6 billion E. USD 101.0 billion

Answer: Option A
8. The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) is an industry standards organisation in India in the mutual funds sector. It was formed in-

A. 1992 B. 1982 C. 2001 D. 1999 E. 1995

Answer: Option E
9. Government decided to make the PradhanMantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) an open-ended scheme. FM Jaitley stated that the overdraft facility has been doubled from Rs. 5,000 to-

A. Rs. 5,000 B. Rs. 10,000 C. Rs. 20,000 D. Rs. 15,000 E. Rs. 7,000

Answer: Option B
10. Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) registered mutual funds in India of all the registered Asset Management Companies as a non-profit organisation. AMFI is the registered association under

A. TRAI B. RBI C. SEBI D. IRDAI E. ESIC

Answer: Option C

1. Yerevan is the capital of which of following countries?

A. Azerbaijan B. Bulgaria C. Armenia D. Chile

Answer: Option C
2. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states?

A. Jharkhand B. Rajasthan C. Chhatisgarh D. Odisha

Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following dam is built on the river Tapti?

A. Nagi Dam B. Ukai Dam C. Dharoi Dam D. Bhakra Nangal Dam

Answer: Option B
4. Head Quarters of Small Finance Bank is located in which of the following cities?

A. Kolkata B. Mumbai C. Bangalore D. Kochi

Answer: Option C
5. Which of the following is the constituency of Anant Geete Minister of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises?

A. Bangalore South, Karnataka B. Bathindia, Punjab C. Raigad, Maharashtra D. Purvi Champaran, Bihar

Answer: Option A
6. Yakshagan is a famous dance form of which of the following states?

A. Kerala B. Odisha C. Assam D. Karnataka

Answer: Option D
7. World Ocean Day is observed on which of the following days every year?

A. February 13th B. June 8th C. September 11th D. December 23rd

Answer: Option B
8. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank is located in which of the following states?

A. Beijing, China B. Mandaluyong, Philippines C. Hanoi, Vietnam D. Kathmandu, Nepal

Answer: Option B
9. Bandipur National Park is located in which of the following states?

A. Kerala B. Odisha C. Madhya Pradesh D. Karnataka

Answer: Option D
10. Lari is the currency of which of the following Countries?

A. Greece B. Kiribati C. Georgia D. Morocco

Answer: Option C

1. Which country uses the currency U.S. Dollar?

A. Antigua and Barbuda B. Guatemala C. Puerto Rico D. Azerbaijan

Answer: Option C
2. What is the official currency of Qatar?

A. U.S. Dollar B. East Caribbean dollar C. European euro D. Qatari riyal

Answer: Option D
3. Which country uses the currency leu?

A. Aruba B. Cape Verde C. Romania D. Democratic Republic of the Congo

Answer: Option C
4. What is the official currency of Russia?

A. Russian ruble B. European euro C. Belarusian ruble D. Kuwaiti dinar

Answer: Option A
5. Which country uses the currency franc?

A. Rwanda B. Laos C. Democratic Republic of the Congo D. Kenya

Answer: Option A
6. What is the official currency of Saint Helena?

A. European euro B. Mozambican metical C. Saint Helena pound D. Kazakhstani tenge

Answer: Option C
7. Which country uses the currency East Caribbean dollar?

A. Saint Kitts and Nevis B. Monaco C. Cambodia D. Guatemala

Answer: Option A
8. What is the official currency of Saint Lucia?

A. East Caribbean dollar B. Namibian dollar C. Thai baht D. Paanga

Answer: Option A
9. Which country uses the currency East Caribbean dollar?

A. Saint Vincent and the Grenadines B. El Salvador C. Aruba D. Tuvalu

Answer: Option A
10. What is the official currency of Samoa (Western)?

A. Nicaraguan cordoba B. Samoan tala C. Guinean franc D. Mozambican metical

Answer: Option B

1. Qutab minar is located at

A. Delhi B. Agra C. Kolkata D. Lucknow

Answer: Option A
2. Virupaksha Temple is located at

A. Srinagar B. Nasik C. Jabalpur D. Ranchi

Answer: Option A
3. Marble Rocks are situated at

A. Hampi B. Sri Kalahasti C. Puri D. Madurai

Answer: Option C
4. Central Drug Research institute is located at

A. Hyderabad B. Pune C. Indore D. Lucknow

Answer: Option D
5. Taj Mahal is located in which country?

A. Pakistan B. Canada C. India D. Nepal

Answer: Option C
6. The first 'Financial Service Park' for industry being set up at

A. Bangalore B. Guragaon C. Surat D. Pune

Answer: Option B
7. The famous Rock Garden is located in which city?

A. Jaipur B. Lucknow C. Chandigarh D. Simla

Answer: Option C
8. The world famous Ajanta caves are situated in

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Orissa C. Maharashtra D. Kerala

Answer: Option C
9. Which city is called 'White City' of Rajasthan?

A. Udaipur B. Bihar C. Jaipur D. Jodhpur

Answer: Option A
10. Ms. Harita Kaur has the distinction of being the first Indian Women

A. Ambassador to a foreign country B. Pilot to fly an aircraft solo C. To be inducted into Indian Navy D. Doctor to create first test tube baby

Answer: Option B

1. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?

A. T.N.Kaul B. J.R.D. Tata C. Khushwant Singh D. Nani Palkhivala

Answer: Option D
2. Who is the author of the book 'Nineteen Eighty Four'?

A. Thomas Hardy B. Emile Zola C. George Orwell D. Walter Scott

Answer: Option C
3. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi Premchand?

A. Gaban B. Godan C. Guide D. Manasorovar

Answer: Option C
4. Who is the author of the book 'Forbidden Verses'?

A. Salman RushDie B. Abu Nuwas C. Ms. Taslima Nasrin D. D.H. Lawrence

Answer: Option B
5. The lead character in the film 'The Bandit Queen' has been played by

A. Rupa Ganguly B. Seema Biswas C. Pratiba Sinha D. Shabama Azmi

Answer: Option B
6. Which of the following books has been written by Vikram Seth?

A. My God Died Young B. Islamic Bomb C. Look Back in Anger D. A Suitable Boy

Answer: Option D
7. Who wrote the line: ' A thing of beauty is a joy forever'?

A. John Keats B. Robert Browing C. P.B.Shelley D. William Wordsworth

Answer: Option A
8. Who has written the book 'My Frozen Turbulence in Kashmir'?

A. Anees Jung B. Jagmohan C. M.J.Akbar D. Nissim Ezekiel

Answer: Option B
9. The book 'To Live or Not Live' was written by

A. V.S. Naipaul B. Alexandra Dumas C. George Elliot D. Nirad C. Chaudhuri

Answer: Option D
10. In India the first television programme was broadcasted in

A. 1959 B. 1965 C. 1976 D. 1957

Answer: Option A

1. This firm has been awarded the 'Marketer of the Year' award by the International Advertising Association of India (IAAI)

A. Cadbury B. Amul C. PepsiCo D. Nestle

Answer: Option B
2. Who was conferred with Odisha's highest literary award Atibadi Jagannath Das Samman for 2018?

A. Shankha Ghosh B. Ramakanta Rath C. Manoj Das D. Sitakant Mahapatra

Answer: Option B
3. How many Indians are selected for the 2018 Ramon Magsaysay Award?

A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

Answer: Option B
4. Which finance company received Nabard 2018 award recently?

A. Muthoot Finance B. Bajaj Finserv C. Repco Micro Finance Ltd D. LIC Finance Limited

Answer: Option C
5. Which team get Oxford Awards For Arsenic Poisoning Research?

A. IIT Guwahati B. IIT Bombay C. IIT Kharagpur D. IIT Madras

Answer: Option C
6. Who of the following has been conferred for the '2018 Sangita Kalanidhi award' of the Music Academy?

A. M. Balamuralikrishna B. Nithyasree Mahadevan C. Aruna Sairam D. Sudha Ragunathan

Answer: Option C
7. As per (IBBI), which country has won Global Restructuring Review's "most improved jurisdiction" award?

A. Singapore B. Malaysia C. India D. China

Answer: Option C
8. Which ministry bagged the Best performing Social Sector Ministry award recently?

A. Minister for Women and Child Development B. Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment C. Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment D. Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment

Answer: Option A
9. Which city receives great momentum title under the India Smart Cities Award 2018 recently?

A. Surat B. Coimbatore C. Bhopal D. Pune

Answer: Option A
10. Who was conferred as the International Cricketer of the Year at the CEAT Cricket Ratings awards?

A. Shubman Gill B. Harmanpreet Kaur C. Rohit Sharma D. Virat Kohli

Answer: Option D

1. The Headquarters of United Nations is at

A. New York B. Geneva C. Rome D. Tokyo

Answer: Option A
2. The Headquarters of WTO is at

A. New York B. Geneva C. Vienna D. Tokyo

Answer: Option B
3. The Headquarters of World Food Programme is at

A. Vienna B. New York C. Rome D. Geneva

Answer: Option C
4. The Headquarters of Universal Post Union is at

A. Geneva B. Rome C. Bem D. New York

Answer: Option C
5. The Headquarters of United Nations Industrial Development Organization is at

A. Rome B. New York C. Vienna D. Geneva

Answer: Option C
6. The Headquarters of United Nations Environment Programme is at

A. Tokyo B. Nairobi C. New York D. Geneva

Answer: Option B
7. The UNESCO’s Headquarters is at

A. Geneva B. Austria C. Paris D. Vienna

Answer: Option C
8. The HQ of United Nations Development Programme is at

A. Geneva B. New York C. Sydney D. Vienna

Answer: Option B
9. The HQ of World Meteorological Organization is at

A. New York B. Rome C. Geneva D. Vienna

Answer: Option C
10. The Headquarters of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime is at

A. New York B. Nairobi C. Vienna D. Geneva

Answer: Option C

1. Who launched the Van Dhan Scheme of Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED in Chattisgarh recently?

A. Smt. Sushma Swaraj B. Shri Rajnath Singh C. Shri Narendra Modi D. Shri Venkaiah Naidu

Answer: Option C
2. Who launched development schemes worth Rs 1000 crore for Daman and Diu recently?

A. Narendra Modi B. Raj Nath Singh C. Ram Nath Govind D. Shusma Swaraj

Answer: Option A
3. Which scheme aims at setting up Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) units in rural areas to secure balanced region growth of the Industry ?

A. India BPO Promotion Scheme B. Rural BPO & Outsourcing Scheme C. Rural BPO Ssheme D. India BPO Promotion Acheme

Answer: Option A
4. Vatsalya – Maatri Amrit Kosh’ is a national Human Milk Band and Lactation Counselling Centre at which city?

A. Delhi B. Gurugram C. Chandigarh D. Vadodra

Answer: Option A
5. The phase I of FAME(Faster adoption and manufacturing of Electric Vehicles ) India Scheme expires on—– ?

A. 1st April 2019 B. 1st April 2018 C. 31st March 2018 D. 31st march 2019

Answer: Option C
6. What is the full form MAA Program which aims to enhance optimal breastfeeding practices in the country ?

A. Mother’s Acute Affection B. Mother’s Absolute Adorable C. Mother’s Absolute Affection D. None of the Above

Answer: Option C
7. Under National Deworming Mission which tablet is given to the children in the age of 1-19 years in order to them from Soil transmitted Helmints (STH)?

A. Piperazine B. Albendazole C. Mebendazole D. None of the Above

Answer: Option B
8. The objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojana is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women by providing conditional cash assistance of how much amount?

A. Rs 2000 B. Rs 1500 C. Rs 1600 D. Rs 1400

Answer: Option D
9. Which is a health programme launched for adolscents, which focuses on age groups 10-19 years with universal coverage?

A. Pradhan Mantri Bal Swasthya Suraksha Yojana B. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakaram (RBSK) C. Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya karkram (RKSK) D. None of the above

Answer: Option C
10.Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana ( PMJJY ), offers coverage for death due to any reason and is available to people in the age group of ………. years?

A. 18-60 Years B. 18-50 Years C. 18-70 Years D. 18-65 Years

Answer: Option B

1. The theme of 2018 World Cities Day is;

A. Promoting a better urban future B. Building Sustainable and Resilient Cities C. Inclusive Cities, Shared Development D. Innovative Governance, Open Cities

Answer: Option B
2. India observed Rashtriya Ekta Diwa on which date?

A. October 28 B. October 29 C. October 30 D. October 31

Answer: Option D
3. October 31 is observed as __________.

A. World Savings Day B. World Braille Day C. World Day of Social Justice D. World Meteorological Day

Answer: Option A
4. The Vigilance Awareness Week is observed from 29th October to 3 November to promote probity in public life. It's theme for this year is;

A. Preventive Vigilance is a Good Governance Tool B. Eradicate Corruption - Build A New India C. Public participation in promoting integrity and eradicating corruption D. Vigilance & e-Governance

Answer: Option B
5. The Theme for World Day for Audiovisual Heritage 2018 is;

A. Your Story is Moving B. Archives at risk: protecting the world's identities C. Discover, remember and share D. It's your story - don't lose it

Answer: Option A
6. The theme for 2018 Vigilance Awareness Week is;

A. Public participation to promote integrity B. My Vision-Corruption Free India C. Vision to promote Corruption Free India D. Eradicate Corruption-Build a New India

Answer: Option D
7. World Day for Audiovisual Heritage is observed on ___________.

A. 25th October B. 24th October C. 26th October D. 27th October

Answer: Option D
8. International Coral Reef Initiative has declared 2018 as __________.

A. International Year of Indigenous Languages B. International Year of the Reef C. International Year of Crystallography D. International Year of Water

Answer: Option B
9. Rotary International initiated the World Polio Day on this date?

A. 24th October B. 23rd October C. 22nd October D. 21st October

Answer: Option A
10. What is the theme of 2018 United Nations Day?

A. Freedom First B. Traditions of Peace and Non-violence C. Potential in Diversity D. Take a Stand Against Ageism

Answer: Option B