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Canara Bank PO Practice Test

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Canara Bank PO Practice Test

Canara Bank PO Practice Test - Practice & Mock Test

shape Introduction

Online Test is important to qualify for the further rounds i.e. Group Discussion and Personal Interview. Canara Bank PO Practice Test & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

Canara Bank PO Online Test contains four sections in Objective test i.e. Reasoning, Quantitative, English Language and General Awareness with time duration of 02 hours.
Subject Medium of examination No. of Questions Marks Time
Reasoning English & Hindi 50 50 Composite time of 2 hours
Quantitative Aptitude English & Hindi 50 50
English Language English 50 50
General Awareness English & Hindi 50 50
Total (Total Weighted Score) 200 200

shape Syllabus

Objective Test (Online)
Reasoing Quantitative Aptitude English Language General Awareness
✦ Arrangements & Pattern ✦ Coding Decoding ✦ Classification ✦ Inequalities ✦ Syllogism ✦ Machine Input Output ✦ Data Sufficiency ✦ Blood Relations ✦ Decision Making & Verbal Reasoning ✦ Linear Seating Arrangements ✦ Circular Seating Arrangements ✦ Scheduling ✦ Double Line Up ✦ Order & Ranking ✦ Simplification ✦ Number Series ✦ Algebra ✦ Data Interpretation ✦ Data Sufficiency ✦ Average ✦ Percentage ✦ Ratio & Proportion ✦ Mensuration ✦ Interest ✦ Profit & Loss ✦ Speed Distance & Time ✦ Probability ✦ Mixture Allegations ✦ Time & Work ✦ Reading Comprehension ✦ Phrase Replacement ✦ Para Jumbles ✦ Cloze Test ✦ Error Spotting ✦ Fill in the Blanks ✦ Phase Idiom Meaning ✦ One Word Substitution ✦ Financial/ Banking Awareness ✦ Current Affairs ✦ Static GK ✦ Economy

shape Samples

1. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
    A. rye B. sourdough C. pumpernickel D. loaf
Answer: Option (A)
2. In a certain code '13' means 'stop smoking' and '59' means 'injurious habit'. What is the meaning of '9' and '5' respectively in that code ? I. '157' means 'stop bad habit'. II. '839' means 'smoking is injurious'.
    A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient answer the question C. If the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question D. If the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
Answer: Option (C)
3. Directions: In each of the questions below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give your answer as
    A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if either I or II is implicit D. if neither I nor II is implicit E. if both I and II are implicit

Statement: It is desirable to put the child in the school at the age of 5 years or so. Assumptions: I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn. II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age. Answer: Option (A)
4. CMM, EOO, GQQ, __________, KUU
    A. GRR B. GSS C. ISS D. ITT
Answer: Option (C)
5. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
    A. dish B. soup C. spoon D. food
Answer: Option (B)
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight friends Venkat, Abdulla, Rakshan, Vikram, Prakash, Suman, John and Manoj live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1 and the topmost floor of the building is numbered 8. Each of them likes different teams of Champions trophy cricket viz, England Team, India Team, Australia Team, Bangladesh Team, New Zealand Team, Pakistan Team, South Africa Team and Sri Lanka Team but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who likes India Team lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. Only one person lives between Suman and the one who likes New Zealand Team. Only two persons live between Suman and the one who likes India Team. Neither Prakash nor Rakshan lives on the first floor. Only one person lives between Rakshan and the one who likes Australia Team. Venkat lives just above Suman. Only two persons live between Prakash and Venkat. The one who likes New Zealand Team does not live on floor number one, Abdulla lives on an evennumbered floor and just above Rakshan. The one who likes Bangladesh Team lives on an even numbered floor and lives just above the person who likes Sri Lanka Team. Rakshan does not like New Zealand Team or Sri Lanka Team. Only two persons live between the one who likes Pakistan Team and the one who likes England Team. Vikram does not like South Africa Team. The one who likes Pakistan Team does not live on an odd-numbered floor. Manoj lives just below the one who likes Sri Lanka Team.
6. Who lives on fifth floor?
    A. Abdulla B. Prakash C. The one who likes Bangladesh Team D. The one who likes New Zealand Team E. Both option b and d
Answer: Option (E)
7. John likes which of the following team?
    A. South Africa Team B. Australia Team C. Bangladesh Team D. Sri Lanka Team E. England Team
Answer: Option (A)
8. How many persons are between the one who likes Bangladesh Team and the one who stays on 4th floor?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Five
Answer: Option (C)
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
    A. Venkat B. Rakshan C. Manoj D. Abdulla E. John
Answer: Option (B)
10. Which of the following combinations is true?
    A. 1 – Vikram - South Africa Team B. 4 – Prakash - India Team C. 3 – Suman - Sri Lanka Team D. 6 – Manoj - Pakistan Team E. 7 – Rakshan - England Team
Answer: Option (D)
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Varun, Rajesh, Sunil, Jeeva, Vasanth, Parthiban and Avinash are seven persons from different States, viz Gujarat, Bihar, Maharashtra, Haryana, Punjab, Assam and Rajasthan. They go to top 4 cities in India, viz. Mumbai, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Chennai only on Friday but not necessarily in the same order. At least one Person goes to one city, but no city is visited by more than two Persons. Parthiban, who is from Maharashtra, goes alone to Bangalore. The one who is from Haryana does not go to Mumbai. Also, he never goes either with Vasanth or with Avinash. Jeeva goes to Chennai with the person who is the Person from Rajasthan. Sunil goes to Hyderabad. Avinash is not a Person from Rajasthan. The one who is from Haryana goes to the city with the person who is the Person of Gujarat. The one who is from Punjab goes to Chennai. Varun is a Person from neither Bihar nor Rajasthan. The one who is from Assam goes to Mumbai neither with Vasanth nor with Jeeva. The person who is from Bihar goes to the city with Varun.
11. Who among the following persons visit Hyderabad?
    A. Jeeva and Rajesh B. Vasanth and Sunil C. Rajesh and Sunil D. Parthiban and Rajesh E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option (C)
12. Rajesh is the person from which of the following state?
    A. Haryana B. Gujarat C. Bihar D. Rajasthan E. Either Haryana/Gujarat
Answer: Option (E)
13. Which of the following city visited by Avinash?
    A. Bangalore B. Mumbai C. Chennai D. Hyderabad E. None of these
Answer: Option (B)
14. Which of the following statements is wrong?
    A. Jeeva – Hyderabad - Punjab B. Vasanth – Chennai - Rajasthan C. Parthiban – Bangalore - Maharashtra D. Varun – Mumbai - Assam E. All statements are true
Answer: Option (A)
15. Which of the following combinations is true?
    A. Jeeva – Chennai - Bihar B. Varun – Hyderabad - Assam C. Vasanth – Chennai - Punjab D. Avinash – Mumbai - Bihar E. None of these
Answer: Option (D)
16. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?
    A. T is Q's father B. S is P's mother C. P is S's son D. Q is T's son
Answer: Option (D)
Directions (17-21): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input- 2 12 light 59 yes 73 35 beauty mobile 49 fun star
Step I: beauty 12 light 59 yes 73 35 mobile 49 fun star 2 Step II: beauty light 12 yes 73 35 mobile 49 fun star 2 59 Step III: beauty light yes 12 35 mobile 49 fun star 2 59 73 Step IV: beauty light yes star 35 mobile 49 fun 2 59 73 12 Step V: beauty light yes star fun mobile 49 2 59 73 12 35 Step IV: beauty light yes star fun mobile 2 59 73 12 35 49 And step IV is the last step of the above input, as per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input- 3 20 night 17 laptop 61 38 cow lab 75 bottle madam
17. What will be the position of ‘lab’ with respect to ‘bottle’ in the step III of the input?
    A. Immediate left B. Fourth to the right C. None of these D. Second to the left E. Fourth to the left
Answer: Option (D)
18. What will be the position of ‘madam’ in the last but one step?
    A. Seventh from the left B. Seventh from the right C. Fourth from the left D. Fifth from the left E. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option (C)
19. Which of the following will be the penultimate step?
    A. Step VI B. Step V C. Step IV D. Step III E. None of these
Answer: Option (B)
20. After how many steps no further rearrangement of words is possible?
    A. Five B. Four C. Six D. Seven E. Eight
Answer: Option (A)
21. What will be the position of ‘75’ in step IV?
    A. Sixth from right B. Seventh from right C. Seventh from left D. Both a and c E. None of these
Answer: Option (D)
22. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Nivedita becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vimla be from the right?
    A. 24th B. 25th C. 26th D. 20th E. None of these
Answer: Option (C)
Directions (1-2): In each series, look for the degree and direction of change between the numbers. In other words, do the numbers increase or decrease, and by how much
1. Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60,… What number should come next?
    A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 50
Answer: Option (A)
2. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come next?
    A. 14 B. 15 C. 21 D. 23
Answer: Option (B)
Directions (3-4): In the following questions, two equations numbered are given in variables x and y. You have to solve both the equations and find out the relationship between x and y. Then give answer accordingly:
3. I. 3[latex]x^2[/latex] – 5x – 12 = 0 II. 4[latex]y^2[/latex] – 9y – 9 = 0
    A. If x > y B. If x < y C. If x ≥ y D. If x ≤ y E. If x = y or relation cannot be established
Answer: Option (E)
4. I. 4[latex]x^2[/latex] – 9x – 9 = 0 II. 4[latex]y^2[/latex] + 13y + 10 = 0
    A. If x > y B. If x < y C. If x ≥ y D. If x ≤ y E. If x = y or relation cannot be established
Answer: Option (A)
5. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
    A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 690 C. Rs. 698 D. Rs. 700
Answer: Option (C)
6. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
    A. 8, 20, 28 B. 16, 28, 36 C. 20, 35, 45 D. None of these
Answer: Option (B)
7. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
    A. 8.5 km/hr B. 10 km/hr. C. 12.5 km/hr D. 9 km/hr
Answer: Option (B)
8. Which of the following two ratios is greater? [latex]\frac{15}{13}[/latex] and [latex]\frac{9}{11}[/latex]
    A. [latex]\frac{15}{13}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{9}{11}[/latex] C. Both are same D. Cannot determine
Answer: Option (A)
9. A’s salary is 50% more than B’s. How much percent is B’s salary less than A’s?
    A. 33(1/4)% B. 33(1/3)% C. 33(1/2)% D. 33%
Answer: Option (B)
10. Find the simple interest on Rs. 68,000 at 16(2/3)% per annum for a period of 9 months?
    A. Rs. 8500 B. Rs. 3200 C. Rs. 2100 D. Rs. 4300
Answer: Option (A)
Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
As a concept, outsourcing is no doubt gaining ground. But there are many who still keep away from it. First, there’s a perception that outsourcing could adversely impact the quality of service. “We believe that directly controlling our stores is the only way to maintain quality. If we outsource, quality would suffer and that would have a negative rub-off on our business as a whole. You can do outsourcing only if you're willing to shut your eyes to many things,” says the Managing Director of a company. Despite being the dominant partner in the relationship, the outsourcer doesn't always have all the advantages. For one, very few entrepreneurs are willing to take on a new outsource, unless it comes with a guarantee of a certain level of sales. The trade refers to it as the minimum guarantee clause, which means that if an outsourcee is unable to reach an anticipated sales level, he will be compensated for the balance amount. This invariably acts as an incentive for outsourcers to be lax in developing the business. Yet, given that there are too many outsourcers chasing too few potential outsourcers, the minimum guarantee clauses often become a crucial deciding factor in choosing an outsource. Of course, there are ways of working around this.
The Rs 14-crore-chain of personal grooming and fitness clinics tried the outsourcing route two years ago by handing over management of the outlet to its outsourcee. That agreement did not work. “Ours is a very critical service. Our business is about people’s health and well-being. If the standards are not kept up, one mistake will wipe out so many years of goodwill. And since we saw maintaining the right service levels was a problem, we decided to opt out of outsourcing,” says a managing director. To make things simpler, it set up joint ventures with interested parties and kept 65% of the stake and, therefore, management control in its hands. Its future plans of opening specialised fitness centre chains and good health eateries are also based on the current 65 : 35 model. Players with a large existing outsourced network have an incumbency problem: upgrading the quality of the outlets in line with changing customer needs. The logic may seem reasonable, but convincing an outsourcee to invest more in upgradation is seldom easy.
Bentex wants to move beyond the retail ambience it is offering to its customers. “We have grown to a fair level with our outsourced but times have changed. We need to move on,” says executive director. Won't it unsettle the 430-odd Bentex outsourcers ? “We are only setting up 25 of these shops to show our outsourced it can work. The rest we want to outsource,” affirms marketing manager. But potential outsourcers will be up against a hurdle: the stores will be allowed to stock only branded Bentex products, from earrings to bangles. This may put off consumers who seek variety. Currently, Bentex allows its outsourcers to outsource 35% of the products in the outlet. “There may be a certain sense of independence that an outsourcee gets by choosing some stock but we think it is a habit. Once he realises the convenience of sourcing from just one place, he will upgrade. But Bentex realises the psychological impact of starting its own retail stores.”
So, how does outsourcing work? “It’s like a marriage,” says general manager, marketing. The stakes are high on both sides. The outsourcer gives up his precious asset, the brand, and the outsourcee parts with his right to operate alone. In the end, implicit trust is at the cornerstone of the relationship between an outsourcee and an outsourcer.
1. Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word/phrase "dominant" as used in the passage.
    A. progressive B. weak-headed C. submissive D. laid-off E. hostile
Answer: Option (C)
2. Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word/phrase "implicit" as used in the passage.
    A. explicit B. candid C. clear D. inbuilt E. outspoken
Answer: Option (A)
3. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/phrase "players" as used in the passage.
    A. entrepreneurs B. sportsmen C. workers D. partners E. politicians
Answer: Option (A)
4. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/phrase "rub off" as used in the passage.
    A. jealousy B. rivalry C. impact D. pressure E. publicity
Answer: Option (C)
5. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/phrase "shut your eyes" as used in the passage.
    A. look over B. sleep C. avoid storm D. winking E. overlook
Answer: Option (E)
Directions(6-10): Which of the phrase/ word from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No correction required” as the answer.
6. My partner’s been away for a fortnight- I am aching of her.
    A. aching in B. aching for C. ache for D. ache by E. No Correction Required
Answer: Option (B)
7. Trains delays are getting worse and with the high fares, it all add into misery for the commuters.
    A. add for B. adds in C. add up D. adds up to E. No Correction Required
Answer: Option (D)
8. He’s been angling for an invitation, but I don’t want him to come.
    A. angling into B. angling of C. angling by D. angling upto E. No Correction Required
Answer: Option (E)
9. The teacher tried for arguing of the girl down, but she couldn’t.
    A. for argument B. to argue C. in argue D. for argue of E. No Correction Required
Answer: Option (B)
10. They auctioned out their property as they were heavily in debt.
    A. auctioned on B. auction from C. auctioned off D. auctioned into E. No Correction Required
Answer: Option (C)
Directions (11-15): The following five sentences have to be arranged in the proper sequence, so as to form a meaningful paragraph. On the basis of your sequencing, answer the questions that follow
a) As this trend continued across various school boards 100% cut-offs stopped raising eyebrows. Now cut-offs even soar ‘beyond’ 100%.
b) So when CBSE gave as many as 16 extra marks in the class XII maths exam in 2016, students with 77 may have ended up getting 93 marks. This is not only unjust to the truly distinguished students but it can hurt more average students as well, by giving them a false sense of academic worth.
c) This policy means that upon complaints that a question paper is too difficult, the board recommends extra marks for examinees.
d) In 2011, a Delhi University college sparked a major outcry when it set a 100% cut-off for a course.
e) What promises welcome relief from this unsustainably feverish trend is CBSE and other school boards’ effort to end the marks moderation policy, which has inflated board exam results without corresponding gain in learning.
f) But the university vice-chancellor explained this in the context of how the number of Central Board of Secondary Education class XII students with more than 95% marks had risen dramatically over the previous year.
11. After the rearrangement of sentences, what will be the SECOND sentence?
    A. e B. a C. b D. f E. c
Answer: Option (D)
12. After the rearrangement of sentences, what will be the FIRST sentence?
    A. a B. c C. e D. d E. b
Answer: Option (D)
13. After the rearrangement of sentences, what will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence?
    A. a B. e C. b D. c E. d
Answer: Option (C)
14. After the rearrangement of sentences, what will be the FIFTH sentence?
    A. b B. f C. e D. c E. a
Answer: Option (D)
15. After the rearrangement of sentences, what will be the THIRD sentence?
    A. e B. b C. a D. c E. f
Answer: Option (C)
Directions (16-20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
16. Apparel of different (1)/ types are worn by (2)/ people of different (3)/ parts of the country. (4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No Error
Answer: Option (B)
17. Rishabh spent a long time (1)/ searching online for advise on how to (2)/ best treat his migraine headache (3)/ using natural herbs. (4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No Error
Answer: Option (B)
18. My brother has (1)/ a good many (2)/friend who often keep (3)/ calling him at odd hours. (4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No Error
Answer: Option (C)
19. It’s hard to (1)/ imagine a (2)/ more miscasted (3)/ version of ‘Julius Caesar (4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No Error
Answer: Option (C)
20. He was (1)/ happy have been (2)/ asked to deliver (3)/ the inaugural speech. (4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. No Error
Answer: Option (B)
Directions(21-25): In each of the following questions three statements are given with a missing word in each. You have to fill the blank of first two statements with the first word of the option and the blank of the third statement with the second word of the option provided.
21. (i) The little boy forgot to deliver a newspaper to one of the houses on his ______ , so he had to go back after supper. (ii) The gas company was able to _______ the pipeline under our flower garden without having to dig up our yard at all. (iii) A quick punch to the throat will ________ most attackers.
    A. way, depress B. route, debilitate C. lay, defeat D. trail, submit
Answer: Option (B)
22. (i) For a fee, most celebrities will ______ a product by pretending to like it. (ii) The purpose of the brochure is to _____ the beauty of the small island nation. (iii) The ________ of Sherlock Holmes is one of the most recognizable figures in English literature.
    A. glorify, book B. recognize, temper C. exalt, character D. demeanor, stroke
Answer: Option (C)
23. (i) The promoters _________ the right to cancel the outdoor concert in the event of rain (ii) Australia is the site of the world’s largest underground water _______. (iii) The boss ______ him to send the report out as soon as it was completed.
    A. reserve, instructed B. holds, allowed C. stores, advised D. assigned, informed
Answer: Option (A)
24. (i) The local newspaper now runs a regular _________ on environmental issues. (ii) The swimming pool is an attractive _________ of the apartment complex. (iii) Studies show that listening to music, especially rock music, is the preferred _______ activity of North Indian adolescents.
    A. article, respite B. feature, leisure C. location, idle D. column, liberty
Answer: Option (B)
25. (i) A Danish proverb tells us that it is better to be a free bird than a _______ king. (ii) The steel company opened a ______ power plant to fulfill its power needs. (iii) The Prime Minister claimed the scandal was a minor affair and certainly didn’t ______ an investigative commission.
    A. caged, attract B. temporary, attend C. captive, merit D. directed, allow
Answer: Option (C)
1. The World Tsunami Awareness Day was observed across the world on which of the following day?
    A. 1st November B. 2nd November C. 3rd November D. 4th November E. 5th November
Answer: Option (E)
2. What is the theme for The World Tsunami Awareness Day 2017?
    A. 'Reduce the Number of Affected People' B. 'Reduce the fear of People' C. 'Help the Affected People' D. 'Guide the People about Tsunami' E. 'Build the safety measure'
Answer: Option (A)
3. Which of the following country recently unveiled Asia's largest artificial island-building ship?
    A. Japan B. India C. China D. South Korea E. North Korea
Answer: Option (C)
4. Indian Air Force, along with the DRDO successfully tested an indigenously developed lightweight ‘Glide’ bomb recently. Where is the headquarters of DRDO?
    A. Chennai B. Hyderabad C. Bengaluru D. Mumbai E. New Delhi
Answer: Option (E)
5. Which of the following private sector bank signed an agreement with the government to provide Rs 1,000 crore financing for food processing projects?
    A. ICICI Bank B. Axis Bank C. HDFC Bank D. Yes Bank E. South Indian Bank
Answer: Option (D)
6. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Central Board of Indirect taxes and Customs (CBIC)?
    A. Johnjoseph B. VanajaN.Sarna C. MahenderSingh D. S Ramesh
Answer: Option (D)
7. Who has been appointed as the acting Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
    A. ArvindSaxena B. SudhaJain C. KirtiKumar D. Omi Agrawal
Answer: Option (A)
8. Pappu Karki, the popular Kumaoni folk singer has passed away. He was native of which state?
    A. Jammu&Kashmir B. HimachalPradesh C. Uttarakhand D. Assam
Answer: Option (C)
9. India’s first-ever national police museum will establish in which city?
    A. Chennai B. Delhi C. Nagpur D. Kolkata
Answer: Option (B)
10. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is in news for appointing Sharad Kumar as new Vigilance Commissioner. As per which committee’s recommendations, the CVC was set up?
    A. NittoorSrinivasaRaucommiittee B. TejendraMohanBhasincommiittee C. KVChowdarycommiittee D. K Santhanam commiittee
Answer: Option (D)
11. Which country will host the 45th G7 summit 2019?
    A. Italy B. Germany C. France D. Canada
Answer: Option (C)
12. Which country’s women cricket team has clinched the Asia Cup Twenty-20 tournament 2018?
    A. SouthKorea B. Bangladesh C. India D. Pakistan
Answer: Option (B)
13. Who has won the men’s singles French Open tennis tournament 2018?
    A. NovakDjokovic B. DominicThiem C. RogerFederer D. Rafael Nadal
Answer: Option (D)
14. Which country’s football team has lifted the 2018 Intercontinental Cup football title?
    A. India B. SriLanka C. Kenya D. Argentina
Answer: Option (A)
15. Shantaram Laxman Naik, who passed away recently, was the former Congress chief of which state?
    A. Maharashtra B. Goa C. Bihar D. Karnataka
Answer: Option (B)

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For Canara Bank PO Practice/Mock Test: CLICK HERE

shape Tips

To prepare for Canara Bank PO 2018, the main subjects that a candidate need to be excellent at are Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language and General Awareness.
Candidates can crack the exam only with the right approach and correct strategy and should remember that there is a sectional cut off in Canara Bank PO Examination.
✦ Tip - 1: Identify the weak areas, for some it may be Quantitative aptitude (maths); for others it may be English. If possible take the help of extra coaching.
✦ Tip - 2: Take online mock tests to see where you stand and what your strengths. Look for reputed online coaching websites for free mock tests.
✦ Tip - 3: If you are repeatedly making the same mistakes, find out what is happening and analyze the mistakes. A reliable coach can help you in this matter.
✦ Tip - 4: Space out your learning in comfortable time slots. It is sufficient to start preparing 2 months before the exam. But allot enough time in the day to the preparation so that you have adequate time to focus on each section of the test.
✦ Tip - 5: This is the most important one. Stay Positive! There will be highs and lows in your journey to preparing for the bank exam. Whatever happens stay focused and don’t give up.