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APPSC FBO General Studies

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APPSC FBO General Studies

shape Introduction

Scheme of Screening Test for recruitment to the post of Forest Beat Officer & Assistant Beat Officer in a.p. Forest subordinate service is as follows.

  • The screening test consist of 2 parts i.e., Part A and Part B.

  • Both the parts consists of 75 Questions each with 75 Marks respectively.

  • This test would be of 150 Minutes duration.

  • All Papers will be of OBJECTIVE TYPE.

  • Screening Test will be conducted in Offline Mode.

shape Pattern

Subject No. of Questions Duration (Minutes) Maximum Marks
Part A General Studies & Mental Ability 75 150 75
Part B General Science & General Mathematics (SSC standard) 75 75
Total 150

Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the APPSC FBO/ABO General Studies & Mental Ability subject.

shape Syllabus

[Click Here] for APPSC FBO/ABO General Studies Syllabus

shape Samples

General Science
1. What is the first step in photosynthesis:
    A. Generation of ATP B. Formation of NADPH C. Through light, the excitement of an electron of chlorophyll pigment. D. Formation of Glucose

Answer: Option (C)
2. Due to which reaction PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde in photosynthesis process?
    A. Oxidation B. Reduction C. Electrolysis D. Hydrolysis

Answer: Option (B)
3. What will be the ratio of oxygen produced to that of consumed in daylight hours when the rate of respiration is less than that of photosynthesis?
    A. 1: 1 B. 10: 1 C. 50: 1 D. 5: 1

Answer: Option (B)
4. In Photosynthesis process, how many molecules of NADPH and ATP are required to reduce six molecules of carbon dioxide to glucose?
    A. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH B. 6 ATP and 6 NADPH C. 12 ATP and 18 NADPH D. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

Answer: Option (D)
5. Mention the internal factors that influence photosynthesis?
    A. Size, position, and structure of stomata B. Maintenance of the turgidity of the leaf cells C. Relative proportion and distribution of chloroplasts in the mesophyll D. All of the above

Answer: Option (D)
Current Affairs
1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the One District, One Product Regional Summit in __________.
    A. Ghaziabad B. Kanpur C. Ahmedabad D. Varanasi

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Varanasi and Ghazipur in Uttar Pradesh for one day. He attended the One District, One Product Regional Summit at Deendayal Hastakala Sankul in Varanasi. Here he laid the foundation stone for 14new development projects worth around 98 crores. Also, in the event, loans worth Rs. 2000 crore was disbursed.
2. Who among the following took the command of the Indian Army's Gajraj Corps on 30 December 2018?
    A. Lt Gen Gurpal Singh Sangha B. Lt Gen Manoj Pande C. Lt Gen Ranbir Singh D. Lt Gen Manoj Mukund Naravane

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The Gajraj Corps (IV Corps) is a military field formation of the Indian Army, created in 1961. Lt Gen Manoj Pande took the command of the Indian Army's Gajraj Corps on 30 December 2018. He replaced Lt Gen Gurpal Singh Sangha. Prior to this, he was the Chief of Staff in Headquarters Southern Command.
3. Name of the Portuguese airline which introduced single-use plastic free flight on 29 December 2018.
    A. White Airways B. Orbest C. Hi Fly D. Euro Atlantic

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Portuguese airline 'Hi Fly' introduced single-use plastic free flight on 29 December 2018. The flight took off from Lisbon to Natale, Brazil, without a single piece of single-use plastic on board. There were no plastic cups, plastic silverware, plastic cocktail stirrer, and plastic food containers.
4. An exhibition titled 'Dandi Yatra' was inaugurated in __________.
    A. Surat B. Patna C. Kolkata D. New Delhi

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: An exhibition titled 'Dandi Yatra' was inaugurated in New Delhi on 29 December 2018. It was organized by the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). The exhibition is part of the celebration of the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. The exhibition showcases the unseen drawings of artist Chhaganlal Jadav and also the masterworks of NGMA's collection of contemporaneous artists.
5. Name the Indian player who became the 1st ever player to take 20 catches in a Test series.
    A. Sadiq Kirmani B. Syed Kimani C. Naren Tamhane D. Rishabh Pant

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: 21 years old Indian wicket-keeper Rishabh Pant became the 1st ever player to take 20 catches in a Test series by surpassing former cricketers Naren Tamhane and Syed Kirmani who had recorded 19 catches in 1954-55 and 1979-80 respectively. Pant achieved the feat to take 20 catches in just 3 matches whereas Naren Tamhane and Syed Kimani took 19 catches in 6 and 7 matches respectively. Rishabh Pant took 11 catches 6 in first innings and 5 in second innings against Australia in the 3rd Test Match to break the record of fellow wicket-keeper Wriddhiman Saha who took 10 catches in a match.
History of India
1. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of
    A. Sutlej and Beas B. Jhelum and Chenab C. Ravi and Chenab D. Ganga and Yamuna

Answer: Option (B)
2. Under Akbar, the Mir Bakshi was required to look after
    A. military affairs B. the state treasury C. the royal household D. the land revenue system

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The head of the military was called the Mir Bakshi, appointed from among the leading nobles of the court. The Mir Bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering, and also made recommendations to the emperor for military appointments and promotions.
3. The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
    A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Dadabhai Naoroji C. R.C. Dutt D. M.K. Gandhi

Answer: Option (B)
4. The treaty of Srirangapatna was signed between Tipu Sultan and
    A. Robert Clive B. Cornwallis C. Dalhousie D. Warren Hastings

Answer: Option (B)
5. Through which one of the following, the king exercised his control over villages in the Vijayanagar Empire?
    A. Dannayaka B. Sumanta C. Nayaka D. Mahanayakacharya

Answer: Option (D)
Geography
1. Which of the following Indian States/UTs witnesses more than 50% tribal population of the total population?
    A. Andaman & Nicobar Islands B. Dadra & Nagar Haveli C. Himachal Pradesh D. Puducherry

Answer: Option (B)
2. Which of the following factor that made Dhariwal (Punjab)?
    A. Cotton textiles B. Woolen Goods C. Machine tools D. Fertilizers

Answer: Option (B)
3. Which of the following is India's oldest oil Refinery in India?
    A. Haldia B. Koyali C. Digboi D. Mathura

Answer: Option (C)
4. What makes the Ankleshwar famous?
    A. Coal mining B. Exploration of oil and natural gas C. Iron and steel industries D. Cotton textile industries

Answer: Option (B)
5. Which of the following is the highest point in India?
    A. Mt. Everest B. Dodabeta C. Kangchenjunga D. George Everest

Answer: Option (C)
Indian polity and Economy
1. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for an Election Commission in India?
    A. Article 324 B. Article 128 C. Article 256 D. Article 378

Answer: Option (A)
2. Currently, there are how many members in the Election Commission?
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: Option (B)
3. What is the tenure of office for the Chief Election Commissioner?
    A. 5 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier B. 6 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier C. 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier D. 5 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

Answer: Option (C)
4. For the Election Commission, at the district level, who acts as the district returning officer?
    A. District Magistrate B. Police Commissioner C. Tehsildars D. None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
5. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of Election Commission?
    A. Prime Minister of India B. Chief Justice of India C. President of India D. Lok Sabha speaker

Answer: Option (C)
Mental Ability
1. Statement: Children catch infections when they eat roadside food. Courses of Action: I. Parents should not allow their children to eat roadside food but rather try to prepare that type of food at home. II. The children should be taught about what is healthy food and that the type of food prepared on the road side is not healthy.
    A. if only I follow. B. if only II follows. C. if either I or II follows. D. if neither I nor II follows. E. if both I and II follow.

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: These statement does not indicate why the roadside food leads to infection. It may be because it is cooked in unhygienic conditions. In such a case, I is a proper course of action but not II. If the food itself is unhealthy, then II is a proper course of action but not I. Hence, either I or II follows.
2. Statement: More than 50% of today's working youth, who have surplus money, are addicted to drugs. The course of Action: I. Work stress should be reduced in the office. II. The salaries should be cut down.
    A. If only I follow. B. If only II follows. C. If either I or II follows. D. If neither I nor II follows. E. If both I and II follow.

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: We do not know the reason for the addiction, so neither I nor II is a proper course of action.
3. Statement: Many deaths are occurring in Village 'X', which has experienced heavy rains in the last three monsoons, due to the outbreak of epidemics. The course of Action: I. The government should dig a side canal to pass the excess rainwater. II. Health care system in the village should be strengthened.
    A. If only I follow. B. If only II follows. C. If either I or II follows. D. If neither I nor II follows. E. If both I and II follow.

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The course of action I is a time taking process. Hence, I is not a proper course of action. Since the deaths are occurring due to epidemics, II is a proper course of action.
4. Statement: The Indian cricket team reached the finals of the previous six major tournaments but failed to win even a single tournament. The course of Action: I. The Indian cricket board should set up a committee to find out the reasons. II. The team should change its game plan.
    A. If only I follow. B. If only II follows. C. If either I or II follows. D. If neither I nor II follows. E. If both I and II follow.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: As the Indian cricket team lost continuous six finals, a proper investigation is necessary. So I follow. The statement does not give scope to ascertain the reason. So II does not follow.
5. Statement: In the road accidents, the pillion riders are receiving more head injuries than the driver. The course of Action: I. Pillion riders should also wear a helmet. II. The rule should be changed so that the helmet is made compulsory for the pillion riders but not the drivers.
    A. If only I follow. B. If only II follows. C. If either I or II follows. D. If neither I nor II follows. E. If both I and II follow.

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Here as the pillion riders are receiving more head injuries, the helmet can save them from head injuries. I is a proper course of action. II causes a new problem, i.e., injuries to the driver. So II is not a proper course of action.
Environment
1. Exchange of outgoing and incoming radiations that keeps Earth warm is known as
    A. greenhouse effect B. radiation effect C. infrared effect D. ozone layer depletion

Answer: Option (A)
2. The wavelength of infrared radiations is
    A. zero B. finite C. shorter D. longer

Answer: Option (D)
3. Number of atoms in ozone molecules are
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

Answer: Option (B)
4. Higher energy level and shorter wavelengths are features of
    A. beta radiation B. alpha radiation C. ultraviolet radiation D. infrared radiation

Answer: Option (C)
5. Chemical released by chlorofluorocarbons is
    A. nitrogen B. Sulphuric acid C. chlorine D. sodium chloride

Answer: Option (C)
Disaster Management (Source : CBSE Publications)
1. How many hectares of Indian land are prone to floods and river erosion?
    A. Around 25 million hectares B. Around 30 million hectares C. Around 35 million hectares D. Around 40 million hectares

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Over 40 million hectares which is almost 12 percent of the land is prone to floods and river erosion. These floods and river erosion cause various disasters for the life f human beings and other organisms including vegetations.
2. When did the National Disaster Management Authority formed?
    A. 2000 B. 2005 C. 2010 D. 2015

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) was established through the Disaster Management Act enacted by the Government of India in May 30, 2005. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson.
3. Under which Ministry National Disaster Management Authority comes?
    A. Ministry of Environment B. Ministry of Foreign Affairs C. Ministry of Pollution D. Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: National Disaster Management Authority is an agency of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The primary purpose of the National Disaster Management Authority is to coordinate a response to the natural or manmade disaster.
4. Who released the first Disaster Management Plan of India?
    A. H. D. Deve Gowda B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee C. Manmohan Singh D. Narendra Modi

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Narendra Modi released the first Disaster Management Plan of India on 1 June 2016. This plan seeks to provide a framework and direction to government agencies for prevention, mitigation, and management of disasters.
5. Where is National Institute of Disaster Management located?
    A. Bengaluru B. Mumbai C. New Delhi D. Kanpur

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: National Institute of Disaster management is the premier Institute for training and capacity development programs for managing natural disasters in India. It is constituted under an Act Of Parliament in 1995.
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