Write an essay on any one of the topics given below in about 1000 words.
A. Protection of Environment – Existence of Human beings.
B. Advantages and disadvantages of Internet.
C. Tourist places of Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
C. Tourist places of Andhra Pradesh:
Andhra Pradesh is a well-known Indian state for its beautiful culture and heritage where one can experience the natural beauty of landscapes, architecture, art and culture. Because of such beautiful experiences, Andhra Pradesh has enhanced image not only at the national level but also at the global level. Andhra Pradesh is the fifth-largest state in India and this state is surrounded by Karnataka in the west, Tamil Nadu in the south, Maharashtra in north and Odisha and Madhya Pradesh on north-east. This Indian state is famous for glorious past and you will explore the amazing ancient temples, palaces, monuments, forts and rich culture at this destination.
Andhra Pradesh tourism is one of famous place located in south India with many tourist places which make people joy and wonderful by seeing them. Now going into deep about Andhra Pradesh tourism main tourist places are Vizag beach, Vijayawada Durga temple and Nagarjuna Sagar, Charminar and many other.
1. AHOBILAM: it is located in district Kurnool and know as the capital of demon king hiranyakashipu father of bhakta Prahalad, a devotee of Sri Bhagwan Vishnu appeared here as Narashima and killed hiranya kashipu.it is only here Nava Narasimha is worshipped.
2. AMARAVATI: it is located in district Guntur, famous for Buddhist monuments on river Krishna. Acharya Nagarjuna constructed here the largest stupa 2000years back.
3. ANNAVARAM: it is located in district east Godavari and famous for Sri Satyanarayana Swamy temple.
4. Tirupati: it is located in district Chittoor and famous for Sri Venkateswara Swamy Temple

1. What is the total number of states in our country?

A. 22 B. 25 C. 29 D. 30

Answer: Option C
2. Name the state having longest coast in our country.

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Karnataka D. Tamilnadu

Answer: Option B
3. What is our state tree?

A. Mango tree B. Teak tree C. Coconut tree D. Neem tree

Answer: Option D
4. Which city has the highest population in our state?

A. Visakahapatnam B. Vijayawada C. Warangal D. Tirupati

Answer: Option A
5. Who among the following is not a part of the five-member GoM set up by the government for Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh?

A. Smriti Irani B. Ravi Shankar Prasad C. Jitendra Singh D. Thawar Chand Gehlot

Answer: Option A
6. Where is Kakateya university located?

A. Vijayanagaram B. Warangal C. Hyderabad D. Kurnool

Answer: Option B
7. Who is the first chief minister of Andhra Pradesh state ?

A. Neelam sanjeeva reddy B. Marri chenna reddy C. Damodarm Sanjeeviah D. Kasu Brahmananda reddy

Answer: Option A
8. Who is the present Governor of our state?

A. Sri. K. Rosiah B. Sri.N.D.Tiwari C. Sri. E.S.L. Narasimhan D. Biswabhusan Harichandan

Answer: Option D
9. When was Osmania University started?

A. 1918 B. 1926 C. 1954 D. 1826

Answer: Option A
10. When did the First World War start?

A. 1939 B. 1914 C. 1918 D. 1845

Answer: Option B
11. Where is international court established?

A. Geneva B. Washington C. San Francisco D. Rome

Answer: Option C
12. What is the first full length talkie movie of our country?

A. Alam Aara B. Lava Kusa C. Mogal- e- Azam D. Bobby

Answer: Option A
13. When was the first television center started in India?

A. 15 August 1947 B. 26 January 1950 C. 15 August 1958 D. 15 September 1959

Answer: Option D
14. When was the first nationalization of banks done in our country?

A. 1959 B. 1969 C. 1879 D. 1989.

Answer: Option B
15. The 2010 commonwealth games are held at?

A. Mumbai B. London C. Delhi D. Australia .

Answer: Option C
16. Which is the biggest state in our country?

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Madhya pradesh C. Uttar pradesh D. Rajasthan .

Answer: Option D
17. Who is the first president of our country?

A. Dr. Sarvepalli Radha Krishna B. Sri.V.V.Giri C. Smt. Prathiba Singh Patil D. Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad .

Answer: Option D
18. Who is the present lok sabha speaker?

A. Smt. Meera kumari B. Sri. Somnath Chaterjee C. Om Birla D. Sri.Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Answer: Option C
19. Who is the chief justice of the Supreme court of India ?

A. sri.K.G.Bala Krishnan B. Sri. R.C. Lahoti C. Sri.V.N. Khare D. Ranjan Gogoi

Answer: Option D
20. Which five year plan is under implementation now?

A. 5th five year plan B. 11th five year plan C. 12th five year plan D. 13th five year plan.

Answer: Option D
21. Which state is having highest literacy in our country?

A. Chandighar B. Kerala C. Maharastra D. West Bengal

Answer: Option B
22. Since when we started implementing our constitution?

A. 15 August 1947 B. 26 January 1950 C. 15 August 1958 D. 15 August 1959.

Answer: Option B
23. Name the biggest lake in the world.

A. Caspian lake B. Kolleru lake C. Chilka lake D. Victoria lake.

Answer: Option A
24. Name the biggest island.

A. Sumatra B. Green land C. Madagaskar D. Borneo.

Answer: Option B
25. How many languages are added to VIII schedule of Indian Constitution so far?

A. 12 B. 22 C. 16 D. 20.

Answer: Option B
26. Union Government established the National Green Tribunal on 19th October 2010 under the chairmanship of ………….?

A. Sri Jai Ram Ramesh B. Sri Prabha sridevan C. Sri. A. N. Tewari D. Sri Lokeswar Singh Panta.

Answer: Option D
27. In which district of Andhra Pradesh, the forest cover is maximum?

A. Anantapur B. Chittoor C. Cuddapah D. East Godavari

Answer: Option A
28. Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of PMLA Appellate Tribunal?

A. Vijay Kumar Bist B. Sanjay Karol C. Sunil Gaur D. Ajay Kumar Mittal

Answer: Option B
29. What is the district headquarter of Krishna district?

A. Vijayawada B. Eluru C. Machilipatnam D. Gudivada

Answer: Option A
30. Where did the first university for women was established in India?

A. Delhi B. Pune C. Mumbai D. Chennai.

Answer: Option C
31. Who is the first speaker of Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh?

A. Sri Suresh Reddy B. Sri Sripada rao C. sri Ayya Devara Kaleswara Rao D. Smt. Prathiba Bharati.

Answer: Option C
32. Who is the Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh High Court?

A. Sri Ranganath Mishra B. Sri Narasimhan C. Justice Radhakrishnan sworn D. Sri. Nissar Ahmad Khukru.

Answer: Option C
33. Who is nominated as court musician of Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanam?

A. Mrs. Lata Mangeskar B. Dr. Mangalam Palli Bala Murali Krishna C. Sri. Hari Prasad Charasia D. Shoba Raj .

Answer: Option B
34. Which is the largest university?

A. Osmania University B. India Gandhi National Unversity C. Jawahar Lal Nehru University D. Kakateya University

Answer: Option B
35. When did the Second World War start?

A. 1936 B. 1937 C. 1938 D. 1939

Answer: Option D
36. Where is the International Monitory Fund Head Quarters situated?

A. Hegue B. Washington D.C C. Rome D. Geneva

Answer: Option B
37. What is the position in medal tally for India in the 19th commonwealth games?

A. First B. second C. Third D. Fourth

Answer: Option C
38. Which animal was declared as National Heritage animal by the Central Government?

A. Tiger B. Elephant C. Wild buffalo D. Horse

Answer: Option B
39. Prime minister Dr. Manmohan Singh launched “Aadhar” project in ……

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh C. Maharastra D. Bihar

Answer: Option C
40. Name of the committee appointed recently by Government on State –Center relations.

A. Sarkaria B. Mandal C. M. N. Poonchi D. None of these.

Answer: Option C
41. National Rural Employment Guarantee scheme is renamed as Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee scheme from:

A. 2009 November 21 B. 2009 January 26 C. 2009 August 15 D. 2009 October 2.

Answer: Option D
42. 2016 Olympics will be held at?

A. Chicago B. Rio-de-Janeiro C. Madrid D. Tokyo .

Answer: Option B
43. Rajeev Gandhi’s scheme for empowerment of adolescent girls:

A. Abala B. Kranti C. Sabala D. None of these

Answer: Option C
44. Name the chairman for the National Human Rights Commission.

A. Sri Ahmadi B. K.G. Bala Krishnan C. H. L. Dattu D. None of these

Answer: Option C
45. Recently Union Government declared one of the following as the national aquatic animal.

A. Crocodile B. Dolphin C. Deer D. None of these

Answer: Option B
46. Who is the chairman of the 13th Finance Commission?

A. Sri. Ranga Rajan B. Dr. Vijaya Kelkhar C. Sri. K.C. Panth D. Sri Neyogi

Answer: Option B
47. The world environment day is observed on?

A. August 15 B. June 5 C. July 20 D. December 10.

Answer: Option B
48. An Indian Astronaut who traveled in Colombia space ship.

A. Kalpana chawla B. Arundhati roy C. Sucheta kriplani D. None of these.

Answer: Option A
49. As an answer to Google Earth, the Indian Space Research Organization launched “Bhuvan” web site with effect from:

A. January 2009 B. March 2009 C. February 2009 D. December 2009

Answer: Option B
50. Which city will host the 14th session of the Conference of the Parties of UNCCD?

A. New Delhi B. Tokyo C. Beijing D. Kuala Lumpur

Answer: Option A
Direction(51-55): Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
51. FUNGI : MYCOLOGY : : TISSUE : ?

A. Haematology B. Cytology C. Histology D. Bacteriology

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Study of tissue is called Histology.
52. BDFH : YWUS : : JLNP : ?

A. QOMK B. ACEF C. ZXUT D. UVWX

Answer: Option A
Explanation: JLNP → QOMK (opposite lettes)
53. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

A. 78 B. 64 C. 66 D. 68

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Sol. (18 × 2) – 6 = 30 (36 × 2) – 6 = 66
54. RM : XG : : ER : ?

A.PK B.LK C.KL D.PL

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Alternate letters follows +6, -6
55. 97 : 63 : : 67 : ?

A. 38 B. 56 C. 42 D. 45

Answer: Option C
Explanation: 9 × 7 = 63 => 6 × 7 = 42
Direction (56-59): For the following questions. Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
56.

A. High-Up B. Past-Present C. Often-Seldom D. Fresh-Stale

Answer: Option A
Explanation: High-up is different from others
57.

A. AEIM B. BFJN C. CGKO D. FDKN

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Except in F D K N all others are in sequence of + 4
58.

A.636 B.749 C.864 D.989

Answer: Option D
Explanation: 62 = 36 72 = 49 82 = 64 92 = 81
59.

A.Daman and Diu B.Puducherry C.Delhi D.Chennai

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Chennai is a city all other are union territories.
60. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are brothers. ‘B’ is the daughter of ‘A’. ‘A’ is the wife of ‘Y’. What is the relation of ‘B’ to ‘X’ ?

A. Daughter B. Sister C. Sister-in-law D. Niece

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Y is the father of B So, B is the niece of X.
61. If 27th December 2009 was a Thursday, then what day of the week was it on 1st March 2010?

A. Thursday B. Friday C. Sunday D. Monday

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 27th Dec. 2009 – Thursday 1st March 2010 → ? No. of Days between them = 4 + 31 + 28 + 1 = 64 Dividing it by 7 we get remainder = 1 Thursday + 1 Day = Friday
62. Which set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? p_rt_rr_p_rt

A. rptr B. rrtp C. ptrr D. tprt

Answer: Option A
Explanation: prrt/prrt/prrt
63. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. TP, UQ, WS, ZV, ?

A. EY B. DZ C. CY D. CZ

Answer: Option B
Explanation: First letters of each set follows +1, +2, +3, ---- Second letters of each set follows +1, +2, +3, ----
64. ? , Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil

A. Glass B. Asphalt C. Petrol D. Wax

Answer: Option c
Explanation: On fractional distillation of petroleum following products are obtained on increasing temperature.
65. -1, 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

A.24 B.27 C.26 D.36

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Prime number series 16 + 11 = 27
66. If “A” denotes “added to”, “B” denotes “divided by”, “C” denotes “multiplied by” and “D” denotes “subtracted from”, then 116 B 29 C 6 A 24 D 45 = ?

A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 116 ÷ 29 × 6 + 24 – 45 = 3
67. Jupiter, ? , Uranus, Neptune

A. Saturn B. Earth C. Pluto D. Mercury

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The sequence of the planets is :Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
68. C-3, E-5, G-7, I-9, ___?, ____?

A. K-11, M-13 B. L-12, M-14 C. L-12, N-14 D. K-12, M-14

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The letters in the series are alternate and the numbers indicate their position in the alphabet series.
69.Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. i. Fabric ii. Face iii. Failure iv. Faculty

A. iv, ii, i, iii B. iii, iv, ii, i C. iv, iii, i, ii D. i, ii, iv, iii

Answer: Option D
Explanation: fabric face faculty failure
70. If 1st January 2013 was Tuesday, then what day of the week will be 31st December 2013?

A.Wednesday B.Thursday C.Tuesday D.Monday

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Number of Days between 1st January 2013 and 31st December 2013 = 364 364/7 = [reminder O] Tuesday + 0 = Tuesday
71.In a certain code language, “REMINDER” is written as “SFNJMCDQ”. How is “STANDARD” written in that code language?

A.TUBOEQZE B.CZQETUBO C.TUBOCZQC D.TUBOEBSE

Answer: Option C
Explanation: First four letters of the word follows +1 and next Four letters follows -1
72. Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. TRADITIONAL

A. RADON B. RATION C. NATIONAL D. TRAIN

Answer: Option c
Explanation: ‘NATIONAL’; There is no double ‘N’ in the given word.
73. In a certain code language, “pink” is written as “green”, “green” is written as “yellow”, “yellow” is written as “red”, “red” is written as “white” and”white” is written as “indigo”, then in the same code language what is the colour of blood?

A. white B. red C. green D. yellow

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Colour of blood is red and Red in written as white, so, white is the answer.
74. If 436 = 3, 783 = 8 and 654 = 5, then 896 = ?

A. 5 B. 8 C. 13 D. 6

Answer: Option C
Explanation: (4 + 3 + 6) - 10 = 3 Like this follows
75. If “+” means “minus”, “x” means “divided by”, “÷” means “plus” and “-” means “multiplied by”, then 300 x 10 – 5 + 36 ÷ 57 = ?

A. 150 B. 171 C. 230 D. 234

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 300 ÷ 10 × 5 – 36 + 57 = 30 × 5 – 36 + 57 = 150 – 36 + 57 = 171 Directions (76- 79): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
(i) In a family of eight persons Z,Y,X,U,V,W,T and S, there are three married couples (ii) Z is grandfather of W and father of V. (iii) Y is wife of U and mother of S. (iv) U is the brother in law of T and son of X. (v) T is the son in law of X.
76. What is U to W?

A. Grandfather B. Uncle C. Husband D. Son

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
77. How many male members are there in the family?

A.Five B.Three C.Four D.Cannot be determined

Answer: Option D
78. Which of the following is true?

A. T is son of Z B. V is daughter of X C. Z has two sons D. X has 2 grandsons

Answer: Option B
79. Who among the following is one of the couples?

A. UV B. SW C. VT D. XY

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
80. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Siddharth said, “Her mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s father.” How is the girl’s mother related to Siddharth?

A.Mother B.Sister C.Aunt D.Grandmother

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Only son of Siddharth’s mother’s father – Siddharth’s maternal uncle So, the girl’s maternal uncle is Siddharth’s maternal uncle. Thus, the girl’s mother is Siddharth’s aunt.
Directions (81-82)Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 km and stops at point Q.
81. How far is point Q with respect to point P?

A. 16 km B. 25 km C. 4 km D. 0 km

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
82. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Directions (83-85): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it: (i) Six boys sitting in two rows facing North and South are naming to P, Q, R, S, T and U. (ii) Q gets a North facing seat and is not next to S. (iii) S and U get diagonally opposite seats. (iv) R, next of U, gets a South facing seat and T gets a North facing seat.
83. Which of the following combinations get South facing seats?

A.QTS B.UPT C.URP D.Data inadequate

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
84. Whose seat is between Q and S?

A. T B. U C. R D. P

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
85. If the seat of T and P are interchanged, whose seat will be next to that of U?

A. P B. Q C. R D. T

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
86. the following questions, find the number of triangles in the given figure:-

A. 16 B. 22 C. 28 D. 32

Answer: Option C
87. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Girl, Singer, Politician

A. B. C. D.

Answer: Option: B
88. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Primary colors, Red, Black

A. B. C. D. E.

Answer: Option D
89. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. College, University, Students

A. B. C. D.

Answer: Option D
90. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. B. C. D.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
91. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. B. C. D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
92. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. B. C. D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Directions (93-97): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides.
P sits second to the right of U. U sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table. V, who does not sit at any of the corners of the table, sits second to the right of S. Only two people sit between S and Q (taken from one side.) R is not an immediate neighbour of V. W sits second to the left of Q. T is not an immediate neighbour of V and U.
93. Who sits exactly between U and P?

A. Q B. R C. T D. W

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
94. How many persons sit between P and W when counted in the anti-clockwise direction from P?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
95. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. S B. U C. P D. T

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
96. What is the position of U with respect to R?

A. Third to the left B. Immediate to the right C. Second to the right D. Immediate to the left

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
97. What will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement? PT, TW, WU, ?

A.UT B.WR C.US D.SQ

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Directions (98-100): In the following Questions, Some statements are given followed by conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.

A. If only conclusion I follows B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor II follow

98. Statements: All mobile are laptop. Some mobile are watch.
Conclusions: I. All mobile are watch. II. Some watch is the laptop.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
From the Venn diagram we can infer that conclusion I am definitely false. And as all mobile is a laptop and some mobile is watched we can say that some watches are laptop is true.
99. Statements: No gentleman is poor. All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions: I. No poor man is rich. II. No rich man is poor.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
From the Venn diagram we can see that both the conclusions I and II are not true for all the cases. Hence both I and II do not follow.
100. Statements: No magazine is cap. All caps are cameras.
Conclusions: I. No camera is magazine. II. Some cameras are magazines.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
From the Venn diagram we can see that after considering all the cases either conclusion I or II will be true.

1. The additive inverse of rational number [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex]?

A. [latex]\frac{4}{3}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{-4}{3}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{-3}{4}[/latex] D. 0

Answer: Option C
2. If a number divisible by 8 then it also divisible by

A. 2 and 4 B. 2 and 6 C. 2 and 3 D. 4 and 6

Answer: Option A
3. How many circles can pass through the non- col linear points?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Infinity

Answer: Option B
4. When no unit of measurement is specified for an angle, then unit associated with the angles is

A. degree B. radiant C. cms D. geometric measure

Answer: Option B
5. A dishonest dealer defrauds to the extent of x% in buying as well as selling his goods by using faulty weight. What will be the gain per cent on his outlay?

A. 2x% B. ([latex]\frac{10}{x+x²}[/latex])% C. ([[latex]\frac{2x + x²}{100}[/latex])% D. ([latex]\frac{x + x²}{100}[/latex])%

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Total profit = x + x + [latex]\frac{x²}{100}[/latex] =([latex]\frac{2x + x²}{100}[/latex])%
6. The ratio of cost price and selling price of an article is 20: 21. The gain per cent on it is

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10

Answer: Option B
Explanation: [latex]\frac{CP}{SP[}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{20}{21}[/latex] Profit = 21 – 20 = 1 Profit % = [latex]\frac{1}{20}[/latex] × 100 = 5%
7. The ratio of cost price and selling price 25: 26. The per cent of the profit will be

A. 26% B. 25% C. 1% D. 4%

Answer: Option D
Explanation: [latex]\frac{CP}{SP}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{25}{26}[/latex] Profit = 26 – 25 = 1 Profit % = 1/25 × 100 = 4%
8. A shopkeeper buys a product of Rs. 150 per kg. 15% of the product was damaged. At what price (per kg) should he sell the remaining so as to earn a profit of 20%?

A. Rs. 218 ([latex]\frac{13}{187}[/latex]) B. Rs. 207 ([latex]\frac{13}{17}[/latex]) C. Rs. 225 ([latex]\frac{13}{1 7}[/latex]) D. Rs. 211 ([latex]\frac{13}{17}[/latex])

Answer: Option D
Explanation: 15% ? [latex]\frac{3}{20}[/latex] Let total quantity = 20 kg C.P = 150 × 20 = 3000 Rs. Money he will get at 20% Profit = 3000 × [latex]\frac{120}{100}[/latex] = 3600 Rs. S.P of = [latex]\frac{3600}{(20 – 3)}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3600}{17}[/latex] = 211[latex]\frac{13}{17}[/latex] Rs.
9. Mr Kapur purchased two toy cycles for Rs. 750 each. He sold these cycles, gaining 6% on one and losing 4% on the other. The gain or loss per cent in the whole transaction is

A. 1% loss B. 1% gain C. 1.5% loss D. 1.5% gain

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Total S.P. = [latex]\frac{(750 ×106)}{100}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{(750 × 96)}{100}[/latex] = 795 + 720 = 1515 Profit = 1515 – 1500 = 15 Rs. Overall Profit = [latex]\frac{15}{500}[/latex] × 100 = 1%
10. The third proportional of 12 and 18 is

A. 3 B. 6 C. 27 D. 144

Answer: Option C
Explanation: 18 × [latex]\frac{18}{12}[/latex]
11. Ram got twice as many marks in English as in Science. His total marks in English, Science and Maths are 180. If the ratio of his marks in English and Maths is 2 : 3, what are his marks in Science?

A. 30 B. 60 C. 72 D. 90

Answer: Option A
Explanation: marks in English = 2x marks Maths = 3x marks Science = x x + 2x + 3x = 180 6x = 180 x= 30
12. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3: 4. If the sum of their squares is 1856, then the numbers are

A. 8, 12 and 16 B. 16, 24 and 32 C. 12, 18 and 24 D. None of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation: (x )[latex]^{2}[/latex]+ (2x)[latex]^{2}[/latex] + (3x )[latex]^{2}[/latex] = 1856 29x[latex]^{2}[/latex] = 1856 x = 8
13. If runs are scored by A, y runs by B and z runs by C, then x : y = y : z = 3 : 2. If total number of runs scored by A, B and C is 342, the runs scored by each would be respectively

A. 144 , 96,64 B. 162 , 108,72 C. 180 , 120 , 80 D. 189,126,84

Answer: Option B
Explanation: x : y = 3 : 2 y : z = 3 : 2 x : y : z = 9 : 6 : 4 9a + 6a + 4a = 342 a = 18 A = 162 B = 108 C = 72
14. If the average of 6 consecutive even numbers is 25, the difference between the largest and the smallest number is

A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Nubers = x, x + 2, ------ , x + 10 Req diff = x + 10 - x = 10
15. A train goes from Ballygunge to Sealdah at an average speed of 20 km/hour and comes back at an average speed of 30 km/hour. The average speed of the train for the whole journey is

A. 27 km/hr B. 26 km/hr C. 25 km/hr D. 24 km/hr

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Req avg speed = 2 × 30 × [latex]\frac{20}{30}[/latex] + 20 =24kmph
16. The arithmetic mean of 100 observations is 24.6 is added to each of the observations and, then each of them is multiplied by 2.5. Find the new arithmetic mean.

A. 30 B. 75 C. 35 D. 60

Answer: Option B
Explanation: on adding arithmetic mean = 24 + 6 = 30 on multiplying by 2.5 arithmetic mean = 30 × 2.5 = 75
17. There are five bells which start ringing together at intervals of 3, 6, 9, 12 and 15 seconds respectively. In 36 minutes, how many times will the bells ring simultaneously?

A. 13 B. 12 C. 6 D. 5

Answer: Option A
Explanation: lcm of 9, 12, 15 = 180 sec req = 36 × [latex]\frac{60}{180}[/latex] + 1 = 13
18. n is a whole number which when divided by 4 gives the remainder 3. The remainder when 2n is divided by 4 is

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0

Answer: Option B
Explanation: take n = 7 because 4 × 1 + 3 = 7 so, 2n = 14 the remainder will be 2
19. Two buses travel to a place at 45 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. If the second bus takes 5½ hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is:

A. 900 km B. 945 km C. 990 km D. 1350 km

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Speed ratio = 45 : 60 = 3 : 4 Time ratio = 4 : 3 [S = 1/time when distance is same] (4 – 3) ratio = [latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex] hours 1 ratio = [latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex] hours time taken by bus travelling at 45 km/hr = 4 × [latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex] = 22 hours Distance = 45 × 22= 990 km
20. At an average of 80 km/hr, Shatabdi Express reaches Ranchi from Kolkata in 7 hrs. Then the distance between Kolkata and Ranchi is

A. 560 km B. 506 km C. 560 m D. 650 m

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Distance = 80 × 7 = 560 m
21. Two donkeys are standing 400 metres apart. The first donkey can run at a speed of 3 m/sec and the second can run at 2 m/sec. If two donkeys run towards each other after how much time (in a sec) will they bump into each other?

A. 60 B. 80 C. 400 D. 40

Answer: Option B
Explanation: time = [latex]\frac{400}{5}[/latex] = 80 seconds
22.A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs 600. An alone can do it in 6 days while B alone can do it in 8 days. With the help of C, they can finish it in 3 days, Find the share of C?

A. Rs 50 B. Rs 75 C. Rs.100 D. Rs.150

Answer: Option B
Explanation: C’s one day’s work=([latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex])-([latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{1}{8}[/latex]) = [latex]\frac{1}{24}[/latex] Therefore, A:B:C= Ratio of their one day’s work = [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] : [latex]\frac{1}{8}[/latex]) : [latex]\frac{1}{24}[/latex] = 4 : 3 : 1 A’s share=Rs (600 × [latex]\frac{4}{8}[/latex]) =3 00 B’s share= Rs (600 × [latex]\frac{3}{8}[/latex]) = 225 C’s share=Rs [600 - (300 + 225)] = Rs 75
23.P, Q and R are three typists who working simultaneously can type 216 pages in 4 hours In one hour, R can type as many pages more than Q as Q can type more than P. During a period of five hours, R can type as many pages as P can during seven hours. How many pages does each of them type per hour?

A. x=15,y=18, and z=21 B. x=15,y=21, and z=21 C. x=18,y=18, and z=21 D. x=15,y=18, and z=15

Answer: Option B=A
Explanation: Let the number of pages typed in one hour by P, Q and R be x,y and z respectively Then x + y + z = [latex]\frac{216}{4}[/latex] = 54 —————1 z - y = y - x => 2y = x + z ———–2 5z = 7x => x = [latex]\frac{5x}{7}[/latex] —————3 Solving 1,2 and 3 we get x = 15,y = 18, and z = 21
24.Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?

A. 6 hours B. 8 hours C. 10 hours D. 12 hours

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Number of pages typed by Ronald in one hour = [latex]\frac{32}{6}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{16}{3}[/latex] Number of pages typed by Elan in one hour = [latex]\frac{40}{5}[/latex] = 8 Number of pages typed by both in one hour = (([latex]\frac{16}{3}[/latex]) + 8) = [latex]\frac{40}{3}[/latex] Time taken by both to type 110 pages = 110 × [latex]\frac{3}{40}[/latex] = 8 hours.
25.A can do certain work at the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in how many days?

A. 80 days B. 50 days C. 25 days D. 12 days

Answer: Option C
Explanation: (A+B)’s one day’s work = [latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex]; C’s one day’s work = [latex]\frac{1}{50}[/latex] (A+B+C)’s one day’s work = ([latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{1}{50}[/latex]) = [latex]\frac{6}{50}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{25}[/latex] Also, A’s one day’s work = (B+C)’s one day’s work From i and ii ,we get :2 × (A’s one day’s work) = [latex]\frac{3}{25}[/latex] => A’s one day’s work =3/50 B’s one day’s work=([latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex] - [latex]\frac{3}{50}[/latex]) = [latex]\frac{2}{50}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{25}[/latex] B alone could complete the work in 25 days.
26. The profit percentage on the three articles A, B and C is 10%, 20% and 25% and the ratio of the cost prices is 1 : 2: 4. Also the ratio of the number of articles sold of A, B and C is 2: 5: 2 then the overall profit percentage is-

A. 21% B. 43% C. 25% D. 12%

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Ratio of CP = 1 : 2 : 4 Ratio of No. of articles sold = 2 : 5 : 2 2 : 10 : 8 Ratio of % profit = 10% : 20% : 25% SP = 1 × 1.1 : 5 × 1.2 : 4 × 1.25 Total SP = 1.1 : 6 : 5 = 12.1 So, Net % profit = [latex]\frac{(12.1- 10)}{10}[/latex] × 100 = 21%
27. Three friends A, B and C started a business by investing the amount in the ratio of 5: 7: 6 respectively. After a period of six months, C withdrew half of the amount invested by him. If the amount invested by A is Rs. 40,000 and the total profit earned at the end of one year is Rs. 33,000, what is C’s share in the profit?

A. 8000 B. 7200 C. 9000 D. 8800

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Given that:- Invested ratio of A : B : C = 5 : 7 : 6 After 6 months:- Invested ratio of A : B : C = 60 : 84 : 54 Now, ratio = 40000 × 12 : 56000 × 12 : (48000 × 6 + 24000 × 6) Profit ratio = 10: 14 : 9 Share of profit of C = [latex]\frac{9}{33}[/latex] × 33000 = Rs. 9000
28. Sohan starts a business by investing Rs. 25,000. 6 months later Aditya joins him by investing Rs. 15,000. After another 6 months, Aditya invests an additional amount of Rs. 15,000. At the end of 3 years they earn a profit of Rs. 2,47,000. What is Aditya’s share in the profit?

A. 2, 27, 500 B. 1, 12, 000 C. 1, 17, 000 D. 1, 12, 250

Answer: Option C
Explanation: According to question:- Sohan = 25000 × (36 months) = Rs. 900000 Aditya = [15000 × 30 + 15000 × 24] = Rs. 810000 Profit share of Aditya = [latex]\frac{Sohan}{(Sohan+Mohan)}[/latex] × 247000 = [latex]\frac{9}{19}[/latex] × 247000 = 1,17,000
29. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?

A. 3 hours 15 min B. 3 hours 45 min C. 3 hours 40 min D. 3 hours 50 min

Answer: Option B
Explanation: A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled i.e. after 3 hrs. Three more similar taps are opened i.e. no. of taps to fill remaining half tank = 4 taps when 1 tap is used = (3 hrs/1 tap) when 4 taps are used = (3 hrs/4 taps) = 45min total= 3hrs + 45min
30. An electric pump can fill a tank in 3 hours. Because of a leak in , the tank it took 3([latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]) hours to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how much time will the leak take to empty it?

A. 28 hours B. 25 hours C. 21 hours D. 20 hours

Answer: Option D
Explanation: work done by the leak in 1 hour=([latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex])-([latex]\frac{2}{7}[/latex]) = ([latex]\frac{1}{21}[/latex]). The leak will empty .the tank in 21 hours.
31. A T.V was sold at a profit of 5%. If it had been sold at a profit of 10% the profit would have been Rs. 1000 more. What is its cost price?

A. Rs. 20000 B. Rs. 5000 C. Rs. 10000 D. Rs. 15000

Answer: Option A
Explanation: +10% – 5% → 1000 Rs. 5% → 1000 Rs. 1% → 200 Rs. 100% → 20,000 Rs.
35. If an article is sold at 5% gain instead of 5% loss, the man gains Rs. 5 more. Find the cost price of that article

A. Rs. 100 B. Rs. 105 C. Rs. 50 D. Rs. 110

Answer: Option C
Explanation: +5% – (–5%) ⇒ Rs. 5 10% = Rs. 5 1% = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] 100% = Rs. 50
33. By selling a table for Rs. 350 instead of Rs. 400, loss percent increases by 5%. The cost price of table is:

A. Rs. 1,050 B. Rs. 417.50 C. Rs. 435 D. Rs. 1,000

Answer: Option D
Explanation: 5% ⇒ Rs. 50 1% ⇒ Rs. 10 100% ⇒ Rs. 1000
34. The marked price of an article is Rs. 500. It is sold at successive discounts of 20% and 10%. The selling price of the article (Rs.) is:

A. Rs. 350 C. Rs. 375 C. Rs. 360 D. Rs. 400

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Single discount = –20 – 10 + 2 = –28% S.P = 500 × [latex]\frac{72}{100}[/latex] = 360 Rs.
35. The marked price of an article is 10% higher than the cost price. A discount of 10% is given on the marked price. In this kind of sale, the seller bears

A. No Loss / No Gain B.5% Loss C. 1% Gain D. 1% Loss

Answer: Option D
Explanation: P = 10 – 10 – 1 = –1% ⇒ loss → 1%
36. From a solid cylinder of height 10 cm and radius of the base 6 cm, a cone of the same height and the same base is removed. The volume of the remaining solid is:

A. 240π cu.cm B. 5280 cu.cm C. 620π cu.cm D. 360π cu.cm

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Volume of cylinder = πr²h = (6)² × 10 × π = 360 π cm³ Volume of cone = [latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex]πr²h = [latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex]× π × 36 × 10 = 120 π cm³ Volume of Remaining Solid = 360 π – 120 π = 240 π cm³
37. What part of a ditch, 48 metres long 16.5 metres broad and 4 metres deep can be filled by the sand got by digging a cylindrical tunnel of diameter 4 metres and length 56 metres?

A. [latex]\frac{1}{9}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{2}{9}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{7}{9}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{8}{9}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Volume of ditch = lbh = 48 × 16.5 × 4 = 48 × 66 Volume of sand = πr²h = [latex]\frac{22}{7}[/latex] × 4 × 56 = 22 × 4 × 8 Part of Ditch filled = [latex]\frac{(22 × 4 ×8)}{(48 × 66)}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{2}{9}[/latex]
38. The size of a rectangular piece of paper is 100 cm × 44 cm. A cylinder is formed by rolling the paper along its length. The volume of the cylinder is

A. 4400 cm³ B. 15400 cm³ C. 35000 cm³ D. 144 cm³

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 2πr = 44 2 × [latex]\frac{22}{7}[/latex] × r = 44 r = 7 cm h = 100 cm Volume of cylinder = πr²h = [latex]\frac{22}{7}[/latex] × 49 × 100 = 15400 cm³
39. A circus tent is cylindrical up to a height of 3 m and conical above it. If its diameter is 105 m and the slant height of the conical part is 63 m, then the total area of the canvas required to make the tent is

A. 11385 m² B. 10395 m² C. 9900 m² D. 990 m²

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Total area of canvas required = Surface area of cylindrical part + Surface area of conical part = 2πr₁h₁ + πr₂l₂ = π × 105 × 3 + π × [latex]\frac{105}{2}[/latex]× 63 = 11385 m²
40. If a cubic cm of cast iron weights 21 gms, then the weight of a cast-iron pipe of length 1 m with a bore of 3 cm and in which the thickness of the metal is 1 cm, is:

A. 46.2 kg B. 24.2 kg C. 26.4 kg D. 18.6 kg

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Bore = Inner radius = 3 cm outer radius = 3 + 1 = 4 cm volume of iron pipe = π(4[latex]^{2}[/latex] - 3[latex]^{2}[/latex]) × 100 = 2200 weight of iron = 2200 × 21 gm = 46200 gm = 46.2 kg
41. The value of (256) [latex]^{\frac{5}{4}}[/latex] is :

A. 512 B. 984 C. 1024 D. 1032

Answer: Option C
Explanation: From the given equation : (256) [latex]^{\frac{5}{4}}[/latex] = (4[latex]^{4}[/latex])[latex]^{\frac{5}{4}}[/latex] = 4[latex]^4 ×{\frac{5}{4}}[/latex] = 4[latex]^{5}[/latex] = 1024.
42. (2.4 × 10[latex]^{3}[/latex]) ÷ (8 × 10[latex]^{-2}[/latex]) = ?

A. 3 × 10[latex]^{-5}[/latex] B. 3 × 10[latex]^{4}[/latex] C. 3 × 10[latex]^{5}[/latex] D. 30

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Given equation = (2.4 × 103) ÷ (8 × 10[latex]^{-2}[/latex]) then, 2.4 × 10[latex]^{3}[/latex] 8 × 10[latex]^{-2}[/latex] = 24 × 10[latex]^{2}[/latex] 8 × 10[latex]\frac{}{}[/latex]– 2 = (3 × 10[latex]^{4}[/latex])
43. (1000)[latex]^{7}[/latex] ÷ 10[latex]^{18}[/latex] = ?

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 10000

Correct Option: C Given equation = (1000)[latex]^{7}[/latex] ÷ 1018 ⇒ [latex]\frac{{1000}^{7}}{{10}^{18}}[/latex] ⇒ [latex]\frac{{10}^{(3 × 7)}}{{10}^{18}}[/latex] ⇒ [latex]\frac{{10}^{21}}{{10}^{18}}[/latex] = 10[latex]^{(21 - 18)}[/latex] ⇒ 10[latex]^{3}[/latex] = 1000.
44. 49 × 49 × 49 × 49 = 7[latex]^{?}[/latex]

A. 4 B. 7 C. 8 D. 16

Answer: Option C
Explanation: From the given equation : 49 × 49 × 49 × 49 ⇒ (7[latex]^{2}[/latex]× 7[latex]^{2}[/latex] × 7[latex]^{2}[/latex] × [latex]^{2}[/latex]) ⇒ 7[latex]^{(2 + 2+ 2+ 2)}[/latex] ⇒ 7[latex]^{8}[/latex]
45. The value of (8 [latex]^{-25}[/latex] – 8 [latex]^{-26}[/latex]) is :

A. 7 × 8 8[latex]^{-25}[/latex] B. 7 × 8 8[latex]^{-26}[/latex] C. 8 × 8 8[latex]^{-26}[/latex] D. 8 × 8 8[latex]^{-25}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation: = ([latex]\frac{1}{8}^{25}[/latex] − [latex]\frac{1}{8}^{26}[/latex]) = [latex]\frac{(8 − 1)}{8}^{26}[/latex] = 7 × 8[latex]^{-26}[/latex]
46. If cot ([latex]\frac{Π}{2}[/latex] – θ ) = √3, then the value of cos θ is

A. 0 B. [latex]\frac{1}{√2}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] D. 1

Answer: Option C
Explanation: cot ([latex]\frac{Π}{2}[/latex] – θ) = √3 ⇒ tan θ = √3 [ ∵ cot ([latex]\frac{Π}{2}[/latex] – θ) = tan θ] ∴ θ = 60° Hence, cos 60° = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]
47. If tan4θ + tan2θ = 1, then the value of cos4θ + cos2θ is

A. 8 B. 10 C. 1 D. 2

Answer: Option C
Explanation: tan4θ + tan2θ = 1 tan2θ (tan2θ + 1) ⇒ tan2θ. sec2θ = 1 {∵ sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ} ⇒ [latex]\frac{sin2θ}{cos4θ}[/latex] = 1 ⇒ 1– cos2θ = cos4 θ {∵ sin2 θ = 1 – cos2θ} ⇒ cos4 θ + cos2 θ = 1
48. The value of sin (45° + θ) – cos (45° – θ) is

A. 1 B. 0 C. 2 cos θ D. 2 sin θ

Answer: Option B
Explanation: sin(45° + θ) – cos(45° – θ) = sin{90° – (45° – θ)} – cos (45° – θ) = cos (45° – θ) – cos (45° – θ) {∵sin(90 – A) = cos A } = 0
49. If cot A + cosec A = and A is an acute angle, then the value of cos A is

A. [latex]\frac{4}{5}[/latex] B. 1 C. [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{1}{√3}[/latex]

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Here, cot A + cosec A = 3 ⇒ [latex]\frac{cosA}{sinA}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{cosA}{sinA}[/latex] = 3 ⇒ cos A + 1 = 3sin A Squaring both sides. ⇒ (cos A + 1)[latex]^{2}[/latex] = 9sin[latex]^{2}[/latex] A ⇒ cos[latex]^{2}[/latex] A + 2cos A + 1 = 9 (1 – cos[latex]^{2}[/latex] A) ⇒ 10 cos2A + 2 cos A – 8 = 0 ⇒ 5 cos2 A + cosA – 4 = 0 ⇒ (5 cos A – 4)(cos A + 1) = 0 (∵ A is an acute angle) ∴ cos A = [latex]\frac{4}{5}[/latex]
50. If tan (x + y) tan (x – y) = 1, then the value of tan x is

A. √3 B. 1 C. [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{1}{√3}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Here, tan (x + y) tan (x – y) = 1 ⇒tan (x + y) tan (x – y) = 1 ⇒ tan (x + y) = cot (x – y) = tan ([latex]\frac{Π}{2}[/latex] – x + y ) {∵ tan (90° – θ) = cotθ} ∴ x + y = [latex]\frac{Π}{2}[/latex] – x +y ⇒ x = [latex]\frac{}{}[/latex]π/4 ∴ tan x = tan [latex]\frac{Π}{4}[/latex] = 1
Directions(51-55): Study the following table chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The following table gives information about the populations of five different cities in the year 2017.

51. What is the ratio of the total number of men in the city C to the total number of women in the city E?

A. 11 : 9 B. 110 : 221 C. 110 : 217 D. 110 : 219

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The required ratio = 44% of 1500 : 36% of 3650 = 44 × 1500 : 36 × 3650 = 11 × 30: 9 × 73 = 110 : 219
52. In the year 2018, the population of children in the city A increased by 25% over the previous year and the population of children in the city B increased by 50% over the previous year, then what is the average of the population of children in the city A and B together in the year 2018?

A. 984 B. 948 C. 931 D. 924

Answer: Option B
Explanation: In the year 2017, the population of children in the city A = 20% of 4860 = [latex]\frac{20 }{100}[/latex] × 4860 = 972 The new population of children in the year 2018 = 125% of 972 = [latex]\frac{125}{100}[/latex] × 972 = [latex]\frac{5}{4}[/latex] × 972 = 1215 In the year 2017, the population of children in the city B = 10% of 4540 = [latex]\frac{10}{100}[/latex] × 4540 = 1 × 454 = 454 The new population of children in the year 2018 = 150% of 454 = [latex]\frac{150 }{100}[/latex] × 454 = [latex]\frac{3}{2}[/latex] × 454 = 681 The reqd. average = [latex]\frac{1215 + 681}{2}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1896}{2}[/latex] = 948
53. In the city C, among the children the ratio of the boys to the girls was 2 : 3 and in the city D among the children the ratio of the boys to the girls was 4: 3 , then what was the total number of girls (among children) in the city C and city D together?

A. 453 B. 395 C. 473 D. 415

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The population of children in the city C = 18% of 1500 = 270 The number of girls in the city C = [latex]\frac{3}{5}[/latex] × 270 = 162 the population of children in the city D = 14% OF 4850 = 679 The number of girls in the city D = [latex]\frac{3}{7}[/latex] × 679 = 291 the total number of girls children in the city C and city D together = 162 + 291 = 453 Hence, option A is correct.
54. The number of women in city D forms approximately what percentage of the number of men in city E? (approximately)

A. 106% B. 102% C. 110% D. 114%

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The number of women in the city D = 48% of 4850 = 2328 The number of men in the city E = 56% of 3650 = 2044 The reqd. % = [latex]\frac{2328}{2044}[/latex]2328 × 100 = 113.89% = 114%(approx)
55. If the population of all the cities are combined together then what is the sum of the total number of men and women in all the five cities together?

A. 15873 B. 19458 C. 15993 D. 16733

Answer: Option D
Explanation: If we subtract the total number of children from all the five cities together with the total population of all the five cities together then we can get the total number of men and women in all the five cities together The total population of all the five cities together = 4860 + 4540 + 1500 + 4850 + 3650 = 19400 The total population of children from all the five cities together = 20% of 4860 + 10% of 4540 + 18% of 1500 + 14% of 4850 + 8% of 3650 = 972 + 454 + 270 + 679 + 292 = 2667 The required answer = 19400 – 2667 = 16733
56. Common energy source in Indian villages is:

A. Electricity B. Coal C. Sun D. Wood and animal dung

Answer: Option D
57. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:

A. Were originally formed in marine environment B. Contain carbon C. Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation D. Represent the remains of one living organisms

Answer: Option B
58. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called:

A. Liquefaction B. Carbonation C. Catalytic conversion D. Cracking

Answer: Option A
59. Lignite, bituminous and anthracite are different ranks of:

A. Nuclear fuel B. Coal C. Natural gas D. Bio gas

Answer: Option B
60. Cruid oil is:

A. Colour less B. Odorless C. Smelly yellow to black liquid D. Odorless yellow to black liquid

Answer: Option C
61. BTU is measurement of:

A. Volume B. Area C. Heat content D. Temperature

Answer: Option C
62. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in:

A. 1920 B. 1928 C. 1925 D. 1938

Answer: Option D
63. Boiling water reactor and pressurized water reactors are:

A. Nuclear reactor B. Solar reactor C. OTEC D. Bio-gas reactor

Answer: Option A
64. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

A. Stomach B. Food Pipe C. Mouth D. Small Intestine

Answer: Option C
65. Which of the following organism have parasitic mode of nutrition?

A. Penicillium B. Plasmodium C. Paramecium D. Parrot

Answer: Option B
66. Name the first enzyme that mix with food in the digestive tract?

A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Amylase D. None of the above

Answer: Option C
67. Which of the following in biology is the energy currency of cells?

A. PDP B. DTP C. ATP D. ADP

Answer: Option C
68. In the stem of a plant respiration and breathing takes place through:

A. Lenticels B. Stomata C. Root hair D. Air tubes

Answer: Option A
69. Which animal has three-chambered heart?

A. Pigeon B. Lizard C. Fish D. Lion

Answer: Option B
70. Uricotelism is found in ____________

A. Birds reptiles and insects B. Frogs and toads C. Mammals and birds D. Fishes and fresh water protozoans

Answer: Option c
71. A terrestrial animal must be able to ________

A. Excrete large amount of water B. Actively pump salts through skin C. Excrete large amount of salts in urine D. Conserve water

Answer: Option D
72. Animals which excrete urea are known as ____________

A. Aminotelism B. Ureotelism C. Uricotelism D. Ammonotelism

Answer: Option C
73. Which of the following nephridia are not found in earthworm?

A. Septal nephridia B. Macronephric nephridia C. Pharyngeal nephridia D. Integumentary nephridia

Answer: Option B
74. Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are _________

A. Urea B. Uric acid and urea C. Uric acid D. Ammonia and uric acid

Answer: Option D
75. Exchange of genetic material takes place in

A. Vegetative reproduction B. Asexual reproduction C. Sexual reproduction D. Budding

Answer: Option C
76. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be

A. Double fertilization B. Self pollination C. Cross fertilization D. No fertilization

Answer: Option C
77. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because

A. Tallness is the dominant trait B. Shortness is the dominant trait C. Tallness is the recessive trait D. Height of pea plant is not governed by gene 'T' or 't'

Answer: Option A
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. For every hormone there is a gene B. For every protein there is a gene C. For production of every enzyme there is a gene D. For every molecule of fat there is a gene

Answer: Option D
79. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY) the seeds production in F1 generation are

A. Round and yellow B. Round and green C. Wrinkled and green D. Wrinkled and yellow

Answer: Option A
80. The isomeric pair is

A. ethane and propane B. propane and butane C. ethane and ethane D. butane and 2-methyl propane

Answer: Option D 81. Which of the following is used to oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid?

A. Alkaline KMnO4 B. Conc. H2SO4 C. Acidified K2Cr2O7 D. All of above

Answer: Option D
82. Which is denatured spirit?

A. ethanol only B. ethanol and methanol (50%) C. ethanol and methanol (5%) D. methanol only

Answer: Option C
83. Tertiary butane gets oxidised with oxidising agents like alkaline KMNO4 to

A. Isobutane B. Ter-butyl alcohol C. Secondary-propyl alcohol D. All of above

Answer: Option B
84. The substance not responsible for the hardness of water is

A. Sodium nitrate B. calcium hydrogen carbonate C. calcium carbonate D. magnesium carbonate

Answer: Option A
85. The by product of soap is

A. isoprene B. glycerol C. butane D. ethylene glycol

Answer: Option B
86. Biosphere is

A. The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the Earth B. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of earth comprising of all the living things C. The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres D. All of the above

Answer: Option B
87. Which of the following conceptual sphere of the environment is having the least storage capacity for the matter?

A. Atmosphere B. Lithosphere C. Hydrosphere D. Biosphere

Answer: Option A
88. Which of the following is an example of the impact of development activities on the Hydrosphere?

A. Air pollution B. Soil pollution C. Soil erosion D. Water pollution

Answer: Option D
89. Weather occurs in the Earths:

A. Troposphere B. Mesosphere C. Ionosphere D. Thermosphere

Answer: Option A
90. Biosphere is a term used to represent the:

A. Entire atmosphere consisting of troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere B. Entire hydrosphere-representing the entire collection of water over the Earth as well as inside the Earth C. A small zone of Earth, where the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere come in contact with one another D. Entire lithosphere-representing the solid Earth and its interior

Answer: Option C
91. The period of one revolution of sun around the centre of galaxy is called:

A. Cosmic year B. Astronomical year C. Light year D. Parsec

Answer: Option A
92. Which of the following is concerned with the description and mapping of the main features of the universe?

A. Cosmology B. Cosmography C. Astronomy D. None of these

Answer: Option B
93. The same side of the moon always faces the earth because:

A. Moon and earth have gravitational force B. Moon cannot change its position C. The period of rotation of the moon on its axis and period of revolution around the earth is almost the same D. None of these

Answer: Option C
94. The light coming from stars gives the idea of their:

A. Size B. Rotational speed C. Mass D. Density

Answer: Option B
95 The constellation of stars appears at different positions in the sky at different times during night mainly:

A. Because earth rotates about its axis B. Because earth revolves around the sun C. Because of optical illusion D. Because celestial bodies are changing their position

Answer: Option A
96. The problems for criticism about large dams are that they

A. Displace large number of peasants and trebles without proper rehabilitation B. Swallow up huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits C. Contribute enormously to deforestation and the loss of biological diversity D. all of the above.

Answer: Option D
97. The following are stakeholders of forests which one of these causes the maximum damage to forest?

A. People who live in or around the forest B. The industrial C. The wildlife and native enthusiasts D. The forest department of the government.

Answer: Option B
98. The concept of ‘Biosphere Reserve’ was evolved by

A. Government of India. B. Botanical Survey of India C. UNESCO D. UNDP.

Answer: Option C
99 Chipko Andolan is concerned with

A. Conservation of natural resources B. Development of new breeds of forest plants C. Zoological survey of India D. Forest conservation.

Answer: Option A
100. Which energy of water is used to produce hydroelectricity?

A. Potential energy B. Kinetic energy C. Both A and B of these D. None of these.

Answer: Option A