1. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the ''MIDDLE'' among the five letter groups?
A. LACK
B. MEET
C. ROAD
D. DEAF
Answer: C
Explanation:
Given words are: MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
The letters of each word in alphabetical order are:
MEET --- EEMT
DEAF --- ADEF
ROAD --- ADOR
CODE --- CDEO
LACK --- ACKL
Now, groups of letters so formed, are rearranged as in a dictionary:
ACKL ----> ADEF ---> ADOR ---> CDEO ---> EEMT
Here, the latter group would have its group of letters in the ''MIDDLE'' (i.e., ADOR) is "ROAD"
2. If the letters of the word 'PROTECTION' which are at an odd-numbered position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X and so on, beginning from the left which letter will get substituted by X?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Given word: P R O T E C T I O N
Position of these letters in the English alphabet : P -- 16, R -- 18, O -- 15, T -- 20, E -- 5, C -- 3, T -- 20, I -- 9, O -- 15, N -- 14
Letters at odd-numbered position = O, E, C, I, O
Letters at an odd-numbered position in alphabetical order = C E I O O
If they are now substituted by Z, Y, X, W, V, the letter "I" will get substituted by X.
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, fifth, eighth and the eleventh letters (when counted from left-hand side) of the word 'DEVELOPMENT', which would be the second letter of the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Given word: D E V E L O P M E N T
Positions : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
2nd, 5th, 8th, 11th letters are: E L M T
Only one meaningful word which can be formed with the letters "ELMT" is "MELT"
In the word "MELT", the second letter from the left = E
4. If in a certain Code BOOKLET is written as DSUSVQH , then how ANSWER written in that code ?
A. AQYFBP
B. CRYEOD
C. DERSDY
D. BPZFPC
Answer: B
Explanation:
BOOKLET =>D (+2) S (+4) U (+6) S (+8) V (+10) Q (+12) H (+14)
=> CRYEOD
5. If the consonants in the word 'DROVE' are first arranged alphabetically and the vowels are put in between two pairs of consonants in the alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Given the word: 'DROVE'
In the given word, the consonants (in alphabetical order) are : D R V
and the vowels (in alphabetical order) are: E O
After putting vowels in between two pairs of consonants, the new arrangement is: D E R O V
Here, the fourth letter from the right end = "E"
6. In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
ENCOURAGING
A. GRAIN
B. RAGING
C. GAUGE
D. ENCOURAGE
Answer: D
Explanation:
‘ENCOURAGE’; there is no double ‘E’ in the given word.
7. In a row of cars, red car is 14th from left and 23rd from right. How many cars are there in the row?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Total cars in the row = 14 + 23 –1 = 36
8. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Answer: A
9. Pointing to a woman, a girl says,” She is the mother of the only child of my father-in-law.” How is the woman related to the girl?
A. Mother-in-law
B. Granddaughter
C. Mother
D. Cousin
Answer: A
10. Navjot starts moving towards the west. After covering some distance, he turns left and then takes a right. Which direction is he facing now?
A.South
B.North
C.West
D.East
Answer: C
Explanation:
He is facing towards the west.
11. Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4, what will be the total of their present ages?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let present age of P and Q be [latex] 3x and 4x [/latex]respectively
Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age
[latex]\Rightarrow (3x - 10) = \frac {1}{2} (4x - 10)[/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow 6x - 20 = 4x - 10[/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow 2x = 10[/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow x = 5[/latex]
Total of their present ages
=[latex]3x + 4x = 7x = 7 \times 5 = 35[/latex]
12. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
A. 8.5 km/hr
B. 10 km/hr.
C. 12.5 km/hr
D. 9 km/hr
Answer: B
Explanation:
Man's speed with the current = 15 km/hr
=> speed of the man + speed of the current = 15 km/hr
speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr
Hence, speed of the man = 15 - 2.5 = 12.5 km/hr
man's speed against the current = speed of the man - speed of the current
= 12.5 - 2.5 = 10 km/hr
13. The average age of a class of 22 students is 21 years. The average increased by 1 when the teacher's age also included. What is the age of the teacher?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total age of all students = [latex]22 \times 21[/latex]
Total age of all students + Age of the teacher = [latex]23 \times 22[/latex]
Age of the teacher
[latex]23 \times 22[/latex] - [latex]22 \times 21[/latex]
= 22 (23 - 21) = [latex]22 \times 2[/latex] = 44
14. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, what was the son's age five years back?
A. 20years
B. 18years
C. 14years
D. 22years
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let son's present age be [latex] x [/latex]
[latex](38 - x) = x [/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow 2x = 38 [/latex]
[latex]\Rightarrow x = \frac {38}{2} = 19 [/latex]
Son's age 5 years back = 19 - 5 = 14
15. Ayisha's age is [latex] \frac {1}{{6}^{th}}[/latex] of her father's age. Ayisha's father's age will be twice Shankar's age after 10 years. If Shankar's eight birthdays was celebrated two years before, then what is Ayisha's present age.
A. 10 years
B. 12 years
C. 8 years
D. 5 years
Answer:
Explanation:
Shankar's present age = 8 + 2 = 10
Ayisha's father's age after 10 years = 2 (10 + 10) = 40
Ayisha's father's present age = 40 - 10 = 30
Ayisha's present age = [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] × 30 = 5
Direction(16 - 20): Percentage of students enrolled in different activities in a School
Total no of students 4000
Percentage of no of boys involved in these activities out of total no of boys(2800)
16. What is the approximate % of Girls in the School ?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 34%
D. 27%
Answer: B
Explanation:
% = 4000 - [latex]\frac{2800}{4000}[/latex] × 100
= 1200 × [latex]\frac{100}{4000}[/latex] = 30%
17. What is the ratio of the number of boys enrolled in singing to that of girls enrolled in Singing. If % of boys enrolled in Singing is 4% less than the no of boys enrolled in Craft ?
A. 7:18
B. 3:17
C. 14:11
D. 21:4
Answer: C
Explanation:
No of students enrolled in singing = [latex]20 \times \frac {4000}{100} = 800[/latex]
No of boys in singing = [latex]16 \times \frac {2800}{100} = 448[/latex]
No of girls in singing = 800 – 448 = 352
448 : 352 = 56 : 44 = 14 : 11
18. How many boys are enrolled in dancing and singing together, if the % of boys students enrolled in dancing is twice the % of total no of students enrolled in dancing?
A. 1400
B. 1278
C. 1370
D. 1460
Answer: A
Explanation:
No of boys in dancing = [latex] 34 \times \frac {2800}{100} [/latex] = 952
No of boys in singing = 448
Total = 952 + 448 = 1400
19. What is the difference between the total no students enrolled in swimming to the no of girls enrolled in swimming, if the no of students enrolled in swimming is 10% more than the no of students enrolled in drawing ?
A. 432
B. 378
C. 624
D. 336
Answer: D
Explanation:
No of students in swimming = 24 % = [latex]24 \times \frac {4000}{100} [/latex] = 960
No of girls in swimming = 960 – [latex] [2800 \times \frac {12}{100}] [/latex] = 960-336 = 624
Diff = 960 - 624 = 336
20. What is the total number of girls enrolled in drawing and craft together, If % of total no of students enrolled in Craft is twice the % of students enrolled in Drawing ?
A. 616
B. 345
C. 564
D. 712
Answer: A
Explanation:
Girls in drawing & Craft = 560 - 504 + 1120 – 560 = 56 + 560 = 616
21. Two men on either side of a temple 75 m high observe the angles of elevation of the top of the temple to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two men.
A. 160 m
B. 140 m
C. 180 m
D. 210 m
Answer: C
Explanation:
Suppose height of the tower CD = x m
Let A and B be the points of observations.
And distance BC = y
tan A = [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex], tan B = [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex]
Now in right angle ∆BCD
tan B = [latex]\frac{CD}{BC}[/latex] ⇒ [latex]\frac{x}{y}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] --- (i)
Again in right angle ∆ ACD
tan A = [latex]\frac{CD}{AC}[/latex] ⇒ [latex]\frac{CD}{AB + BC}[/latex]
⇒ [latex]\frac{x}{192 + y}[/latex] + y = [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex] ---(ii)
Dividing (i) and (ii) we get,
[latex]\frac{x}{y}[/latex] × 192 + [latex]\frac{y}{x}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] × [latex]\frac{12}{5}[/latex]
⇒ [latex]\frac{192 + y}{y}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{9}{5}[/latex] ⇒ 9y = 5(192 + y)
9y - 5y = 960 ⇒ 5y = 960
y= 240
Putting the value of y in (i) we get
[latex]\frac{x}{240}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] ⇒ 4x = 720
x = 180
Hence height of the tower = 180m
22. If [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] of a number is 7 more than [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] of the number then [latex]\frac{5}{3}[/latex] of the number is?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the number be x
⇒ According to the question,
⇒ [latex]\frac{3x}{4}[/latex] - [latex]\frac{x}{6}[/latex] = 7
⇒ [latex]\frac{(9x – 2x)}{12}[/latex] = 7
⇒ 7x = 7 × 12
⇒ x = 12
⇒ Then [latex]\frac{5}{3}[/latex] of the number will be
= [latex]\frac{(x × 5)}{3}[/latex] ⇒ [latex]\frac{(12 × 5)}{3}[/latex] = 20
23. If x = [latex]\frac{1}{(√2 + 1)}[/latex] then (x + 1) equal to?
A. √2+1
B. √2-1
C. √2
D. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
x=1/(√2+1)
Find (x + 1) = ?
⇒ x + 1 = [latex]\frac{1}{(√2 + 1)}[/latex] + 1
⇒ [latex]\frac{(√2 + 1 + 1)}{(√2 + 1)}[/latex]
⇒ [latex]\frac{(√2 + 2)}{(√2 + 1)}[/latex](√2+2)/(√2+1)
⇒ √2 [latex]\frac{(√2 + 1)}{(√2 + 1)}[/latex]
⇒ √2
24. What must be added to each term of the ratio 7 : 11, so as to make it equal to 3 : 4?
Answer: D
Explanation:
[latex]\frac{A}{B}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{7}{11}[/latex] Given
Let x be added to both A & B
⇒[latex]\frac{ (7 + x)}{(11 + x)}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex]
Cross multiply the equation
28 + 4x = 33 + 3x
x = 5
25.Sharma is 20% less efficient than Kelkar. If Kelkar can do a piece of work in 24 days. The number of days required by Sharma to complete the same work alone?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 28.8
D. Can’t be determined
Answer: B
Explanation:
Efficiency sharma : keller
80 : 100
= 4 : 5
Time = 5 : 4
4p ---- 24
1p ---- 6
5p ---- 30
Sharma will complete in 30 days
26. Under the PMFBY, farmers need to pay a uniform premium of just _____ for the more rain-dependent kharif crops.
A. 4 %
B. 3 %
C. 2 %
D. 2.5 %
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under the PMFBY, farmers need to pay a uniform premium of just 2% for the more rain-dependent kharif crops.
27. Under the PMFBY, the premium to be paid by farmers will be ______ for annual commercial and horticultural crops.
A. 4 %
B. 3 %
C. 5 %
D. 6 %
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under the PMFBY, the premium to be paid by farmers will be 5% for annual commercial and horticultural crops.
28. International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), South Asia Regional Center (ISARC) located at the campus of National Seed Research and Training Center (NSRTC) in _________
A. Hyderabad
B. Varanasi
C. Bengaluru
D. Chennai
Answer: B
Explanation:
International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), South Asia Regional Center (ISARC) located at the campus of National Seed Research and Training Center (NSRTC) in Varanasi.
29. Electrometer measures …………………
A. Electric current of high magnitude
B. Electric current of low magnitude
C. Electricity
D. electric power
Answer: C
Explanation:
An electrometer is an electrical instrument for measuring electric charge or electrical potential difference.
30. Which of the following is used to view the objects above the sea level ?
A. Stroboscope
B. Microscope
C. Telesope
D. Periscope
Answer: D
Explanation:
Periscope is used to view the objects above the sea level
31. Stereoscope used to view the …………………… pictures
A. 1 dimensional
B. 2 dimensional
C. 3 dimensional
D. All the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stereoscope is a device by which two photographs of the same object taken at slightly different angles are viewed together, creating an impression of depth and solidity.
32. Which of the following model is a combination of the Iterative model and Waterfall model?
A. linear-sequential Model
B. Spiral Model
C. V Model
D. None of the Above
Answer: B
33. SRS stands for ________
A. Software Resolution Specification
B. Software Requirement Standards
C. Software Response Service
D. Software Requirements Specifications
Answer: A
34. Which of the following model is also referred to as a linear-sequential life cycle model?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Iterative Model
C. Spiral Model
D. V Model
Answer: A
35. Rickets is a disease caused due to deficiency of …………
A. Vitamin D
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin B
D. Both 1 and 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rickets is defective mineralization or calcification of bones before epiphyseal closure in immature mammals due to deficiency or impaired metabolism of vitamin D, phosphorus or calcium, potentially leading to fractures and deformity. Rickets is among the most frequent childhood diseases in many developing countries.
36. ………..are made up of DNA and proteins
A. Chromosomes
B. Chromophones
C. Homophones
D. Genes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chromosomes are thread-like structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells. Each chromosome is made of protein and a single molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
37. …………………… percentage of whole blood is blood plasma and is straw yellow in colour
A. 50 %
B. 45 %
C. 55 %
D. 42 %
Answer: C
Explanation:
Blood plasma is the pale yellow liquid component of blood that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension.This makes plasma the extracellular matrix of blood cells. It makes up about 55% of the body’s total blood volume.
38. Which of the following is the longest bone in the Human Body ?
A. Femur
B. Ear Oscsicle
C. Stapes
D. Both 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The femur, or thighbone, is the largest bone in your body. The head of your femur fits into your hip socket and the bottom end connects to your knee. The two bones beneath your knee that make up your shin are your tibia and fibula
39. Which of the following contains Haemoglobin ?
A. Plasma
B. Red Blood cells
C. White Blood cells
D. Platelets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells.Haemoglobin carries oxygen around the body and without enough of it your muscles and organs don’t get all the oxygen they need.
40. Which of the following disease is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 ?
A. Beriberi
B. Pellagra
C. Biotin
D. Scurvy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Beriberi, a nutritional disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamin (vitamin B 1) and characterized by impairment of the nerves and heart. General symptoms include loss of appetite and overall lassitude, digestive irregularities, and a feeling of numbness and weakness in the limbs and extremities.
41. A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called:
A. Fusion
B. Sublimation
C. Diffusion
D. Emulsion
Answer: B
42. Water at 273 K is less effective in cooling than ice at the same temperature. It is because :
A. water is difficult to handle
B. water at 273 K has less energy than ice at the same temperature
C. water at 273 K has more energy than ice at the same temperature
D. water is not a cooling agent
Answer: C
43. Which one of the following is not a colloid?
A. Milk
B. Mud
C. Butter
D. Boric acid
Answer: D
Explanation:
Crystals form pure solution while colloids don’t
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Graphite is a non-metal
B. Graphite is an allotrope of carbon
C. Graphite is a conductor of electricity
D. Graphite has a tetrahedral structure
Answer: D
Explanation:
Graphite is carbon, allotrope, non metal, 1 and 2 easily true
Conductor of electricity – reason for its widespread use
It’s hexagonal – 6th std science
45. Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness:
1. Gypsum
2. Topaz
3. Fluorite
4. Feldspar
A. 4-3-2-1
B. 1-3-4-2
C. 3-4-2-1
D. 1-4-3-2
Answer: B
46. Ojapali is famous dance of ………………
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Vihar
D. Rajasthan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ojapali is a traditional folk dance from the Assam region of India. Ojapali is believed to have evolved from puppetry and is performed in a group.
47. …………… is a famous dance of Bihar
A. Pobir
B. Panthi
C. Lagui
D. Purbi
Answer: D
Explanation:
Purbi is a dance Performed by women to invoke rain in Bihar. Faguna or Fag Performed at the time of ripening of fruit.
48. “Sound of the Underground” was the first No. 1 for which group?
A. Rednex
B. Scaffold
C. Wham
D. Girls Aloud
Answer: D
49. “Four Weddings and a Funeral” made which song a No. 1?
A. Yellow Submarine
B. Love is All-Around
C. Without You
D. Mr Blobby
Answer: B
50. The famous painter Vincent van Gogh belonged to which country?
A. Spain
B. The Netherlands
C. Italy
D. France
Answer: B
51. ‘Madhubani’ a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?
A. Bihar
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Rajasthan
Answer: A
52. How many lines does a Shakespearean sonnet have
Answer: D
53. Who is the writer of the book 'Robinson Crusoe"
A. Which one is the world's longest novel
B. A Suitable Boy
C. L'Astrée
D. Remembrance of Things Past
Answer: D
54. Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which among the following Sports?
A. Badminton
B. Hockey
C. Table Tennis
D. Golf
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual international men’s field hockey tournament held in Malaysia. It began in 1983 as a biennial contest. The tourn
55. Sachin Tendulkar hit his 100th international century against which among the following team?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Bangladesh
C. Pakistan
D. South Africa
Answer: B
56. Which of the following committee was appointed by the Central Government on Union-State relations in 1983?
A. Sarkariya commission
B. Dutt commission
C. Setalvad commission
D. Rajamannar commission
Answer: A
57. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union but are collected and appropriated by the states?
A. Stamp duties
B. Excise duties on medical and toilet materials
C. Sales tax
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
58. National Education Policy was introduced in ………
A. 1968
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. none
Answer: A
59. The low level of Literacy rate hinders the ………………… development of a country
A. Industrial
B. Agricultural
C. Economic
D. none
Answer: C
60. World Literacy Day is celebrated on ……………
A. 8th September
B. 2nd October
C. 15th July
D. none
Answer: A
61. What was India’s rank in the Ease of Doing Business Index 2019?
A. 104th
B. 96th
C. 77th
D. 59th
Answer: C
Explanation:
As per the 2019 Report, India jumped 23 places on the Ease of Doing Business Index to 77th rank, up from 100th rank last year. This year, India’s Distance to Frontier score improved to 67.23 from 60.76 in the previous year.
62. The world’s tallest statue has been built in which country?
A. India
B. Nepal
C. US
D. Japan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the ‘statue of unity’, a bronze statue of India’s first deputy prime minister, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel at Kevadia in Gujarat's Narmada district, India. The structure is double the size of the Statue of Liberty in New York City in the United States.
63. The 22nd All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) will be set up in which state, as per the Interim Budget 2019-20?
A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Telangana
D. Rajasthan
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are 21 All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) functioning currently in India. Of these 21, 14 AIIMS were set up under the present government. The 22nd AIIMS will come up in Haryana.
64. As per the Interim Budget 2019-20, Individual tax payers with taxable income of up to what amount will get full tax rebate from now on?
A. Rs 3 lakh
B. Rs 5 lakh
C. Rs 7 lakh
D. Rs 9 lakh
Answer: B
Explanation:
Individual tax payers with taxable income of up to Rs 5 lakh will get full tax rebate from now on. Those earning Rs 6.5 lakh will not have to pay tax, if they invested in specified savings such as PF, PPF, etc.
65. The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 provides what percentage of reservation quota for the economically weaker sections in the general category?
A. 7 percent
B. 8.5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019, the Act providing 10 percent reservation in government jobs and educational institutions to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of General Category, came into effect on January 14, 2019.
66. “Parliamentary Government” is also known as....
A. Cabinet Government
B. Responsible Government
C. Westminster forms of government
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Parliamentary Government is also known as cabinet government or Responsible Government responsible and Westminster forms of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan Canada, India and other countries.
67. Which of the following characteristics is not related to Parliamentary Government?
A. Resolution of the lower house
B. Collective liability
C. The leadership of the Prime Minister
D. Single Executive
Answer: D
Explanation:
Features of the parliamentary system are Dual Executive, majority party rule, collective responsibility, political homogeneity, double membership, the leadership of Prime Minister, dissolution of lower and house fusion of power.
68. Which of the following is not the merit of the Presidential System?
A. Permanent Government
B. Confirmation in policies
C. Limited Representation
D. Government by experts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Features of presidential system are: single executive, non-responsibility, political homogeneity may not exist, domination of president, no dissolution power of lower house and separation of powers.
69. Which of the following is a demerit of the Parliamentary System?
A. Compressed representation
B. Uncertainty of policies
C. Temporary Government
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All of the above are demerits of the Parliamentary System.
70. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. According to the 42nd and the 44th amendment, it is compulsory for the president to comply with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
B. Presidential System is based on a double executive.
C. According to Article 74, the Council of Ministers works under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
D. Article 74 and 75 provides parliamentary system in the center.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Presidential System is based on single executive.
71. Which of the following characteristics is not related to the Presidential System?
A. Governance of the Prime Minister
B. Single Executive
C. Single Membership
D. Dissolution of lower house is baned
Answer: A
Explanation:
Presidential System is the Governance of the President.
72. What is the type of Indian economy?
A. Socialist
B. communist
C. Capitalist
D. Mixed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The planners of Indian Economy adopted the concept of mixed economy. A mixed economy is consists of private and public sectors.
73. Which of the following statement is not correct about 'Bombay Plan'?
A. The Bombay Plan is also called the 'Tata Bida Plan'
B. It was started in 1944
C. Its draft was prepared by the John Mathai
D. There were 10 members in this plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
There was a total of 8 members in the Bombay plan i.e.J.R.D. Tata, Ghanshyamadas Birla, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Sir Purushottamdas Thakurdas, Sir Shriram, Sir ardishar Dalal, A.D. Shroff, and Dr. John Mathai.
74. When was 'Gandhian plan' started?
A. 1944
B. 1952
C. 1934
D. 1948
Answer: A
Explanation:
'Gandhian plan' was inspired by the economic thoughts of the Mahatma Gandhi. It was constructed by the Sri man Narayan in 1944.
75. Who was the author of the Book 'Planned Economy of India'?
A. M. Visvesvaraya
B. Dada Bhai Nairobi
C. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918. He received India's highest honor, the Bharat Ratna, in 1955. He wrote the book "Planned Economy for India" in 1934.
76. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
A. First Five Year Plan: 1951-56
B. Third Five Year Plan: 1961-66
C. Seventh Five Year Plan:1980-85
D. Tenth Five Year Plan: 2002-07
Answer: C
Explanation:
Seventh Five Year Plan was launched during the period of 1985 to 1990. This plan was started by Rajiv Gandhi government when Dr. Manmohan Singh was Deputy Chairman of the planning commission.
77. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. There is no constitutional provision in India about the Planning Commission
B. The planning commission was established in January 1951
C. National Development Council was established in August 1952
D. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first chairman of the Planning Commission
Answer:
Explanation:
National Development Council was established on 15 March 1950. In his first Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime Minister Modi announced his intention to dissolve the Planning Commission. It has since been replaced by a new institution named NITI Aayog.
78. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. The first five-year plan was launched from 1st April 1951
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first chairman of the Planning Commission of India
C. The National Development Council used to give final approval to the Five Year Plan
D. The first five-year plan was based on the Harrod- Domar model
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the planning commission, so Jawahar Lal Nehru was the first chairman of the planning commission of India.
79. Who are human rights for?
A. People
B. Animals
C. Governments
D. Other
Answer: A
80. When were human rights created?
A. Yesterday
B. 1928
C. 1948
D. 28 AD
Answer: C
81. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of /to the :
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vic
82. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for:
A. The Ordinance Making power of the President
B. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
C. Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir
D. An Election Commission to hold free and fair elections in the country.
Answer: A
83. Which of the following writs literally means ‘We Command’ ?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Quo Warranto
D. Certiorari
Answer: B
Explanation:
84. What is the share of Government of India in NABARD?
A. 50%
B. 51%
C. 75%
D. 99%
Answer: D
Explanation:
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in 1982. RBI had sold its stake and now the Government of India (GOI) has 99 percent in it. It was established to provide credit for the promotion of the agriculture, SSI and Cottage and village industry. It is an apex bank for agriculture. Its finances are available to SLDBs, SCBs (state cooperative banks), scheduled commercial banks, and RRBs. It can take loans for GOI, World Bank, and Asian development bank (ADB).
85. In which year Food Safety and Standards Act was enacted in India?
A. 2004
B. 2005
C. 2006
D. 2007
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Food Safety and Standards Act was passed in 2006 but came into force in 2011.
86. Which among the following is not a correct pair?
A. Ellora Caves – Rastrakuta Rulers
B. Mahabalipuram – Pallava Rulers
C. Khajuraho – Chandellas
D. Elephanta Caves – Mauyra Era
Answer: D
87. Which among the following Kavya of Sanskrit, deal with court intrigues & access to power of Chandragupta Maurya?
A. Mrichhakatika
B. Ritusamhara
C. Kumarasambhava
D. Mudrarakshahsa
Answer: D
88. On which of the following systems of Hindu Philosophy, Shankaracharya wrote commentary in 9th century AD?
A. Sankhya
B. Vaisheshika
C. Yoga
D. Uttarmimansa
Answer: D
89. The eighth-century tripartite power struggle was among which of the following?
A. Cholas, Rastrakutas and Yadavas,
B. Chalukyas, Pallavas, and Pandyas
C. Cholas, Pandyas, and Chalukyas
D. Chalukyas, Pallavas, and Yadavas
Answer: B
90. Which among the following is not correct?
A. The capital of Pandya was Madurai
B. The capital of Cheras was Vanchi
C. Capital of the Videha Kingdom – Mithila
D. Capital of Gahadwal Dynasty – Kannauj
Answer: C
91. Which king started the organization of Kumbh fair at Allahabad?
A. Harshavardhana
B. Dhruvasena Ii
C. Narshimhvarman
D. Akabar
Answer: A
92. Upnishads are books on :
A. Politics
B. Philosophy
C. Medicine
D. Social life
Answer: B
93. Who was the first Indian ruler who had territory outside India?
A. Ashoka
B. Chandragupta Maurya
C. Kanishka
D. Huvishka
Answer: C
94. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. Sunga dynasty was founded by pushyamitra
B. Ashoka the great Mauryan king died in 332 BC
C. Ashoka invaded the Kalinga in 261 BC
D. Chandragupta Maurya earned the title of the Liberator
Answer: B
95. Who among the following was worshipped during Early Vedic Civilization?
A. Varuna
B. Indra
C. Surya
D. All the above
Answer: D
96. Where were the hymns of Rigveda composed?
A. Punjab
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: A
97. Which among the following is a place in Larkana district of Sind province in Pakistan?
A. Alamgirpur
B. Harappa
C. Rangapur
D. Mohenjo-Daro
Answer: D
98. What led to the end of Indus Valley Civilization?
A. Invasion of Aryans
B. Recurrent Floods
C. Earthquakes
D. All the above
Answer: D
99. Who was the main male God worshipped by Indus people?
A. Lord Vishnu
B. Vishnu
C. Brahma
D. Indra
Answer: A
100. Which empire lasted the longest among the following?
A. The Palas
B. The Pratiharas
C. The Rashtrakutas
D. The Senas
Answer: C
101. In which year, the Danish East India Company was formed?
A. 1614
B. 1615
C. 1616
D. 1617
Answer: C
Explanation:
In 1616 AD, the Danish East India Company was formed and they established their settlements at Tranquebar in Tamilnadu (1620) and Serampur in Bengal (1676). Though they failed to strengthen themselves in India and finally at the beginning of the [latex]{19}{th}[/latex] century, they sold all their settlements to the British and went back to their country.
102. Which among the following Viceroys was associated with the ‘Ilbert Bill Controversy’?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Lytton
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Hardinge
Answer: C
103. Subhash Chandra Bose was re-elected the President of INC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating Gandhiji’s candidate:
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. J.B.Kriplani
C. J.B.Kriplani
D. Nellie Sengupta
Answer: C
104. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences held in London:
1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
3. Tez Bahadur Sapru
4. Chittaranjan Das
A. 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. All of them
Answer: A
105. In the tenure of which Governor-General an attempt was made for the first time to codify Hindu and Muslim customary laws?
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. Warren Hastings
C. William Bentinck
D. Charles Metcalfe
Answer: B
106. Consider the following statement(s) related to Geological Structure of India.
I. Sedimentary rocks are found in the land formed by deposition of sediments from which fertile soil is made e.g., the Gangetic plain.
II. In the Jurassic period, Gondwanaland was broken up into peninsular India, Madagascar, and Australia, Antarctica, etc.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer: C
107. Which of the following is not one of the Eras of the Earth geological structure?
A. Azoic (Non-living era)
B. Paleozoic
C. Mesozoic
D. Cambrian
Answer: D
108. Which of the following is the era of the origin of the continental shelf?
A. Neozoic era
B. Paleozoic
C. Mesozoic
D. Cambrian
Answer: B
109. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Trophic levels are the energy levels within the food
B. In deep oceans, primary production is almost high
C. The primary consumers are called autotrophs are the primary consumer
D. The decomposers are called saprotrophs are decomposer
Answer: C
110. Which of the following related to the state of inactivity adopted by desert animals during the hottest and driest season?
A. Basal metabolism
B. Dormancy
C. Aestivation
D. Hibernation
Answer: C
111. Which one of the following statements is correct about biotic resources and abiotic resources?
A. They are non-renewable and all the biotic resources are renewable
B. All the abiotic resources are non-renewable but some of the biotic resources are non-renewable
C. Some of the abiotic resources are renewable but the biotic resources are renewable
D. Some of the abiotic resources are renewable and some of the biotic resources are non-renewable
Answer: B
112. Which of the following reason is famous for the endangered Ridley turtles ?
A. Gahirmatha
B. Sagarmatha
C. Lakshadweep islands
D. Andaman and Nicobar group of islands
Answer: A
113. Which of the following are the highlights of the ‘Rally for Valley’ program in India?
A. Environmental degradation
B. Biodiversity
C. Resettlement of displaced people
D. Loss of agricultural
Answer: A
Explanation:
114. Which of the following is the first research project program that focused on the El Nino-Southern Oscillation and its predictability?
A. Climate Variability and Predictability
B. Global Energy and Water Cycle- Experiment (GEWEX)
C. Global Change and Terrestrial Ecosystem (GCTE)
D. Tropical Ocean and Global Atmosphere (TOGA)
Answer: A
115. Which of the following ministry monitered the functions of the National River Conservation Directorate ?
A. Agriculture Ministry
B. Environment and Forests Ministry
C. Science and Technology Ministry
D. Water Resources Ministry
Answer: B
116. Which of the following countries are divided by the Durand Line?
A. Afghanistan and Pakistan
B. India and Pakistan
C. India and China
D. India and Burma
Answer: A
117. Which of the following countries are divided by McMohan line?
A. India and Pakistan
B. India and China
C. ndia and Bangladesh
D. Pakistan and ChinaSea
Answer: B
118. Which of the following Indian state touches the boundaries of the maximum number of other States?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
119. Which of the following cities are called the twin cities?
A. Delhi and Faridabad
B. Mumbai and Pune
C. Hyderabad and Secunderabad
D. Bangalore and Mysore
Answer: C
120. Which State is called the sugar bowl of India?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Bihar
Answer: A
121. Tumkur, where Geological Survey of India has found indications of Gold Reserves, is located in which among the following states?
A.Andhra Pradesh
B.Karnataka
C.Tamil nadu
D.Maharatsra
Answer: B
122. At which among the following places, Brahamputra takes a U-turn at the time of entering into India?
A. Kula Kangri
B. Lunpo Gangri
C. Namcha Barwa
D. Noijin Kangsang
Answer: C
123. How many states of India share its border with Bhutan?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal & Sikkim
124. Which among the following is least densely populated?
A.Maldives
B.Mauritius
C.Bhutan
D.Nepal
Answer: C
125. Which of the following country is the largest producer of Uranium?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. Russia
D. France
Answer: B