• The Computer Based Examination is Objective Type in nature consist of Multiple choice questions.


• The dates of examinations indicated below are tentative. Any change in the schedule of examinations will be informed to the candidates through the website of the Commission.

1. The Examination will consist of two Papers i.e. Paper-I (Computer Based Examination) and Paper-II (Descriptive Type). Details of these Papers are as follows:


Papers	Mode of Examination	Subject	Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks	Time Duration (For all three Parts)
Paper-I Objective Type (Date of Examination : 23rd Sep to 27th Sep 2019.)	Computer Base Examination	General Intelligence and Reasoning	50/ 50	2 Hours
		General Awareness	50/ 50
		Part-A General Engineering (Civil & Structural) or Part-B General Engineering (Electrical) or Part-C General Engineering (Mechanical)	100/ 100


2. In Paper-I and Paper-II for General Engineering, the candidate will be required to attempt only the part as per option given in the application form filled by the candidate. In other words, the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Civil), Junior Engineer (Quantity Surveying & Contracts) are required to attempt Part-A (Civil & Structural) of Paper-I and Paper II and the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Electrical) are required to attempt Part-B (Electrical) and the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Mechanical) are required to attempt Part-C (Mechanical) of Paper-I and Paper-II failing which their candidature will be rejected.
3. The Paper-I will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
4. There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

1. Gypsum: Cement :: Quartz : ?

A. Glass B. Plastic C. Radio D. Powder

Answer - Option C
Explanation - First is used to make the second
2. Massif : Mountains :: Archipelago

A. Caves B. Islands C. Forests D. Hillocks

Answer - Option B
Explanation - First is the group of second
3. Pedology : Soil :: Taxonomy : ?

A. Classification B. Farming C. Nature D. Water

Answer - Option A
Explanation - First is the study of second
Directions(4-5): In each of the questions given below, there are four sentences out of which one doesn’t match the context to which the other four are related. Find out that odd sentence and mark it as your answer.
4.(1) After two years of relatively good rains, large parts of Maharashtra (especially the Marathwada region and the adjoining districts of Jalgaon, Nashik, Ahmednagar, Sholapur, Amravati and Yavatmal), North Gujarat, Saurashtra, Kutch and North Karnataka are reeling under drought. (2) What is different this time is that it has been induced by the southwest monsoon’s failure in the second half of the season. (3) The rains were, in fact, quite good in most of these areas during June-July. (4) Sunlight and a light rain once in a while keep flowers happy, growing and fresh. Flowers love the water, and they are never as beautiful as they are after the rain.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
Explanation - ABC form a meaningful paragraph about drought in various states. D is not in line with this passage and is the odd one out.
5. (1) However, these towns have thriving marketplaces with urbanesque spaces like supermarkets, beauty parlours and gymnasiums. (2) The criticisms of JNNURM did lead the UPA government to change focus towards small towns in JNNURM-2. (3) Every small town in India has its unique story and significance but their problems are similar — lack of basic services, dilapidated infrastructure, overcrowded spaces and dwindling job opportunities. (4) They have private schools and clinics, a variety of fast-food eateries, modern tailoring shops and mobile and electronic stores.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option B
Explanation - CAD forms a meaningful paragraph about small towns in India and their problems and facilities. The statement in B is not in line with the passage and hence is the odd one out.

1. A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are shown below. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 2.

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer - Option C
Explanation - From figures (i), (ii) and (iv) We conclude that 6, 4, 3 and 1 lie adjacent to 2. Hence, 5 must lie opposite 2.
2. Three positions of a dice are given. Based on them find out which number is found opposite the number 2 in the given cube.

A. 6 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1

Answer - Option A
Explanation - From figures (i) and (ii), we conclude that the numbers 1, 4, 3 and 5 lie adjacent to the number 6. Clearly, the number 2 lies opposite 6 and conversely 6 lies opposite 2.
3. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The fig. (X) is similar to Form II. So, when a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X), then the two half-shaded faces lie opposite to each other and one. of the three blank faces appears opposite to the face bearing a dot. Clearly, each one of the four cubes shown in figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed by folding the sheet shown in fig. (X).
4. If in a certain code DOCUMENT is written as GMVNFXLW then in the same code how CLASSIC is written?

A. XRHHZOF B. XRHHXOZ C. XRHHZOX D. XRHHZXY

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Write the word in reverse order like CISSALC and now write their opposites (AZ, BY, CX, DW and so on)
5. If in a certain code CYCLE is written as MIMVO then in the same code how PUNCH will be written?

A. ZEXAM B. ZEXRM C. ZEXNR D. ZEXMR

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Add 10 to all digits P = 16, U = 21, N = 14, C = 3, H = 8 i.e. 26, 31, 24, 13, 18 so corresponding terms = ZEXMR

1. A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle's house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?

A. 80 m B. 100 m C. 140 m D. 260 m

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Required distance = AE
= [latex]\sqrt{{AG}^{2} + {EG}^{2}}[/latex]
= [latex]\sqrt{{(90 - 30)}^{2} + {(100 - 20)}^{2}}[/latex]
= [latex]\sqrt{{(60)}^{2} + {(80)}^{2}}[/latex]
= [latex]\sqrt{3600 + 6400}[/latex]
= [latex]\sqrt{10000}[/latex]
= 100 m
2. If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is to the east of B; A - B means A is to the west of B; then in P % Q + R - S, S is in which direction with respect to Q?

A. South-West B. South-East C. North-East D. North-West

Answer - Option B
Explanation - According to P % Q + R - S

S is in the South-East of Q.
3. After walking 6 km, I turned to the right and then walked 2 km. After then I turned to the left and walked 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?

A. North B. South C. East D. West

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The journey was started from the South.
Direction(4): If A$B means A is wife of B If A#B means A is son of B If A%B means A is father of B If A*B means A is sister of B
4. Which of the following expressions represents the relationship R is mother of J

A. M*J#K$R B. J*M#R$K C. R$K%M$J D. J#R#T*J

Answer - Option B
Explanation - J sister M son R wife K
5. If P $ Q means P is father of Q, P # Q means P is mother of Q , P * Q means P is sister of Q, then how is S related to T in T#R$U*S ?

A. Nephew B. Grandson C. Grand daughter D. Data inadequate

Answer - Option D
Explanation - T mother R father U sister S
S is Grand daughter or grand son

Direction(1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Seven cricket players viz. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W played in seven different matches in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Some of them are bowlers and some of them are batsman. Their Run/Wickets in the seven matches are – 50, 5, 4, 16, 8, 4 and 25. The Jersey number of all players are – 12, 54, 77, 55, 16, 4 and 13
V plays on Thursday. Two matches are played between the matches played by player V and player P. On the first day of the week, the batsman scored half century played in the match. The sum of Runs/Wickets of the player W and Q is equaled to the Runs/Wickets of S. All the bowlers should be preceded and succeeded by batsman and T is the only bowler which can not be succeeded by any one. The player who played match on Tuesday has the Jersey number, which is the square of Jersey number of Player T. P is the only batsman which is followed by another batsman. Only one match is played between the matches played by the player T and S. The score of the batsman who played the match on Thursday is the perfect square of the score of the player who played on Saturday. The match played by T is not played on the day immediately before or immediately after the day when the match of player V is played. The score of the batsman who played the match on Tuesday is the perfect square of the score of the player who played on Sunday. The match played by R is played on the day immediately before the day when the match of player W is played. Match played by S is not played after the match of player Q. The player who played match on Monday has the Jersey number which can be divided by 11. The player who has 54 as a Jersey number did not play on Friday. The player V has the consecutive Jersey number of W while the player who played match on Saturday has the consecutive Jersey number of the player who played match on Friday.
1. As per the given arrangement which of the following combination represents only the people who are bowlers?.

A. T, V B. Q, P, T C. P, T D. W, T, S

Answer - Option D
Explanation [1-5]-
2. As per the given arrangement which of the following person represent the one who was played in between the W and S?

A. U B. P C. R D. V

Answer - Option D
3. Which of the following is the Jersey Number of S?

A. 55 B. 54 C. 13 D. 12

Answer - Option D
4. Which of the following combinations is correct as per the given arrangement?

A. Monday – P B. Tuesday – W C. Wednesday – Q D. Thursday – S

Answer - Option A
5. Who amongst the following scored half century?

A. P B. V C. U D. W

Answer - Option A