• The Computer Based Examination is Objective Type in nature consist of Multiple choice questions.


• The dates of examinations indicated below are tentative. Any change in the schedule of examinations will be informed to the candidates through the website of the Commission.

1. The Examination will consist of two Papers i.e. Paper-I (Computer Based Examination) and Paper-II (Descriptive Type). Details of these Papers are as follows:


Papers	Mode of Examination	Subject	Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks	Time Duration (For all three Parts)
Paper-I Objective Type (Date of Examination : 23rd Sep to 27th Sep 2019.)	Computer Base Examination	General Intelligence and Reasoning	50/ 50	2 Hours
		General Awareness	50/ 50
		Part-A General Engineering (Civil & Structural) or Part-B General Engineering (Electrical) or Part-C General Engineering (Mechanical)	100/ 100


2. In Paper-I and Paper-II for General Engineering, the candidate will be required to attempt only the part as per option given in the application form filled by the candidate. In other words, the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Civil), Junior Engineer (Quantity Surveying & Contracts) are required to attempt Part-A (Civil & Structural) of Paper-I and Paper II and the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Electrical) are required to attempt Part-B (Electrical) and the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer (Mechanical) are required to attempt Part-C (Mechanical) of Paper-I and Paper-II failing which their candidature will be rejected.
3. The Paper-I will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
4. There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

1. Which act will be amended by the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act 2019 that aimed to make India, a hub of domestic and global arbitration for settling commercial disputes ?

A. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1997 B. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 C. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1995 D. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1995

Answer - Option B
2. Who can chair the Arbitration Council of India (ACI) as per the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act 2019 ?

A. Judge of the Supreme Court B. Judge of a High Court C. Chief Justice of a High Court D. Any one of the above

Answer - Option D
3. Name the act that will be amended by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 to improve road safety .

A. Motor Vehicles Act, 1987 B. Motor Vehicles Act, 1989 C. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 D. Motor Vehicles Act, 1986

Answer - Option C
4. Who headed the Group of Transport Ministers (GoM), which recommends the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 ?

A. Sanjeev Ranjan B. Manoj Kumar C. V. K. Singh D. Yoonus Khan

Answer - Option D
5. How much amount is penalized for an individual for driving without license as per the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 ?

A. 2000 B. 5000 C. 7000 D. 10000

Answer - Option B
6. Who inaugurated the inter-State portability in two clusters of adjoining States of Andhra Pradesh & Telangana and Gujarat & Maharashtra, for achieving the objective of ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ ?

A. Ram Vilas Paswan B. Nitish Kumar C. Ravi Shankar Prasad D. Narendra Singh Tomar

Answer - Option A
7. 11 States/UT have implemented the intra-State portability for achieving the objective of ‘One Nation One Ration Card’, which of the following is not among the 11 States/UT ?

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Madhya Pradesh D. Haryana

Answer - Option C
8. Under which ministry National Entrepreneurship Awards (NEA) will be presented?

A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry B. Ministry of Rural Development C. Ministry of Human Resource Development D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer - Option D
9. Name the farmers financial assistance program of Jharkhand government, which was launched by the vice president of India, M.Venkaiah Naidu .

A. Mukhyamantri Swasthya Bima Yojana B. Mukhyamantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana C. Mukhyamantri Suraksha Bima Yojana D. Mukhyamantri Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana

Answer - Option B
10. How much amount is provided to farmers of Jharkhand as a financial assistance under Mukhyamantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana, who holds farmlands of two acres ?

A. 10,000 B. 5,000 C. 15,000 D. 7,000

Answer - Option A
11. Who released the report titled ‘National Digital Health Blueprint’ which proposes to form a National Digital Health Mission ?

A. Raj Kumar Singh B. Jitendra Singh C. Kiren Rijiju D. Dr. Harshavardhan

Answer - Option D
12. GST- N is in news recently, what does N stands for _______________ .

A. Normative B. Network C. Net D. Neutrality

Answer - Option B
13. Which institute has collaborated with the Ministry of Health to lead the largest pan-India Oral Health Survey 2019 ?

A. Government Medical College’s Centre for Dental Education and Research (CDER) B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences’s Centre for Dental Education and Research (CDER) C. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)’s Centre for Dental Education and Research (CDER) D. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Medical Sciences’s Centre for Dental Education and Research (CDER)

Answer - Option C
14. Which country is set to host the 44th session of the World Heritage Committee in 2020 ?

A. Fuzhou, China B. Tokyo, Japan C. Moscow, Russia D. Berlin, Germany

Answer - Option A
15. Which Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) ship carried 1000 MT of Bhutanese stone over river Brahmaputra from Dhubri river port (Assam )to Narayanganj(Bangladesh) using Indo-Bangladesh Protocol Route ?

A. MB ABB B. MC ABI C. MV AAI D. None of these

Answer - Option D
16. Name the Bollywood actor , who was conferred with an Honorary Degree, Doctor of Letters (honoris causa) from Melbourne-based La Trobe University at the 10th edition of Indian Film Festival of Melbourne (IFFM) .

A. Akshay Kumar B. Shah Rukh Khan C. Salman Khan D. Amitabh Bachchan

Answer - Option B
17. Who was appointed as the governor of Himachal Pradesh ?

A. Jagdish Mukhi B. Mridula Sinha C. Kalraj Mishra D. Lalji Tandon

Answer - Option C
18. To which state Acharya Devvrat was appointed as governor recently ?

A. Gujarat B. Bihar C. Haryana D. Jharkhand

Answer - Option A
19. Name the India’s ambitious mission, which has been called off due to a technical snag before its scheduled launch .

A. Chandrayaan-1 B. Chandrayaan-2 C. Chandrayaan-3 D. Chandrayaan-4

Answer - Option B
20. Team of physicists from which university have taken a photo of a strong form of quantum entanglement called Bell entanglement ?

A. University of Manchester B. University of London C. University of Edinburgh D. University of Glasgow

Answer - Option D
21. After which year, the sale of only Electric Vehicles (EVs) will be permitted in India, as per the proposal given by the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog?

A. 2035 B. 2030 C. 2025 D. 2020

Answer - Option B
22. Where was the G20 (Group of 20) Ministerial Meeting on Energy Transitions and Global Environment for Sustainable Growth 2019 held ?

A. Antalya, Turkey B. Hangzhou, China C. Buenos Aires, Argentina D. Nagano, Japan

Answer - Option D
23. Who has led the Indian delegation in the G20 (Group of 20) Ministerial Meeting on Energy Transitions and Global Environment for Sustainable Growth 2019 held in Nagano, Japan.

A. RK Singh B. Shripad Naik C. Jitendra Singh D. Santosh Gangwar

Answer - Option A
24. Which framework was agreed by the G20 countries during the G20 (Group of 20) Ministerial Meeting on Energy Transitions and Global Environment for Sustainable Growth 2019 held in Nagano, Japan ?

A. Anti-Corruption Plan B. Strengthen Economic Resilience C. Marine Plastic Pollution Deal D. Convention on Climate Change

Answer - Option C
25. Which organization released a report titled “Global Trends”, stating that almost 70.8 million people are forcibly displaced in 2018, the most since World War II and doubled the number of 20 years ago?

A. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees(UNHCR) B. International Organization for Migration(IOM) C. U.S. Committee for Refugees and Immigrants D. International Rescue Committee

Answer - Option A
26. Which country’s residents became the largest displaced population in 2018 according to United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees(UNHCR)’s annual report titled “Global Trends” ?

A. Libyan(4 million) B. Venezuelans(4 million) C. Syrian(4 million) D. Ethiopians(4 million)

Answer - Option B
27. Which of the following countries have the most Internally displaced persons as per the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees(UNHCR)’s annual report titled “Global Trends” ?

A. Iraq and Ukraine B. Venezuela and Turkey C. Libya and Israel D. Syria and Colombia

Answer - Option D
28. Who headed the 8 member panel on Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on January 2019 ?

A. Sakha Ram Singh Yadav B. Ranjit Kumar C. U K Sinha D. A S Kiran Kumar

Answer - Option C
29. How much collateral-free loans for MSME’s was recommended by U K Sinha, from earlier Rs 10 lakh ?

A. Rs 20 lakh B. Rs 30 lakh C. Rs 15 lakh D. Rs 40 lakh

Answer - Option A
30. Which bank’s foundation has signed a MoU with National Health Authority (NHA) to train 15,000 state and district personnel to provide the delivery of health services under Ayushman Bharat Scheme ?

A. IDBI Bank B. ICICI Bank C. HDFC Bank D. Axis Bank

Answer - Option C
31. Under which act terror outfit, Jamaat-ul-Mujahideen Bangladesh also known as Jammat-ul-Mujahideen India or Jamaat-ul-Mujahideen Hindustan was banned recently in India ?

A. Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 1976 B. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 C. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967 D. Anti-Corruption Laws (Amendment) Act, 1967

Answer - Option C
32. Under which article, Union Cabinet has passed a resolution for the dissolution of 16th Lok Sabha for the formation of new Government ?

A. Article 53 (2) of the Indian Constitution B. Article 43 (2) of the Indian Constitution C. Article 73 (2) of the Indian Constitution D. Article 83 (2) of the Indian Constitution

Answer - Option D
33. Where was the 2nd Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Mass Media Forum held recently ?

A. Beijing, China B. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan C. New Delhi, India D. Jakarta, Indonesia

Answer - Option B
34. Which Organization, has introduced a new strategy to prevent and control snakebite envenoming ?

A. World Health Organisation (WHO) B. United Nations(UN) C. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention(CDC) D. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees(UNHCR)

Answer - Option A
35. Name the country, which is using CFC-11 or Trichlorofluoromethane, a banned Ozone-Depleting chemical against 1987 Montreal Protocol .

A. Malaysia B. Japan C. China D. Pakistan

Answer - Option C
36. LCR was in news recently, what is the full form of LCR ?

A. LCR – Liquidity on Commodity Rate B. LCR – Liquified Commercial Rate C. LCR – Liquid Cover Rate D. LCR – Liquidity Coverage Ratio

Answer - Option D
37. Name the bank, which released the report titled “Liquidity Risk Management Framework for Non-Banking Financial Companies and Core Investment Companies” recently.

A. Bank of Baroda B. Reserve Bank of India C. State Bank of India D. Myanmar

Answer - Option B
38. As per RBI’s recent report , Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is set to be introduced for all deposit-taking NBFCs, and non-deposit taking NBFCs with an asset size of more than ________ crore?

A. Rs.5000 crore B. Rs.1000 crore C. Rs.10000 crore D. Rs.7000 crore

Answer - Option A
39. Name the product launched by Corporation Bank for GST- registered Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).

A. Corp SME Sufia B. Corp SME Sugam C. Corp SME Suvidha D. Corp SME Surmi

Answer - Option C
40. Which organization has released the report titled “Women in Business and Management: The business case for change” which revealed gender diversity good for business and economy?

A. World Intellectual Property Organization B. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development C. United Nations D. International Labour Organisation (ILO)

Answer - Option D
41. Which International organization has issued recommendations on the usage of screen for kids under 5 years of age?

A. United Nations System B. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO) C. World Health Organization (WHO) D. United Nations Children’s Fund(UNICEF)

Answer - Option C
42. Which of the following financial institutions are now fully owned by central government of India after RBI divested its entire stake? i.National Housing Bank (NHB) ii.Small Industries Development Bank of India(SIDBI) iii.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) iv.Industrial Finance Corporation of India(IFCI)

A. Option i & ii B. Option i & iii C. Option ii & iv D. Option i & iv

Answer - Option B
43. Name the private sector bank, which has partnered with Germany based global provider of digital payments and commerce solutions, Wirecard to promote financial inclusion in India.

A. HDFC Bank B. ICICI Bank C. IDBI Bank D. RBL Bank

Answer - Option D
44. Under the recommendation of which committee’s report, RBI has divested its entire stake in National Housing Bank (NHB) and National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) to the central government?

A. Second A C Shah Committee report B. Second Narasimham committee report C. Second A Ghosh Committee report D. Second Adhyarjuna Committee report

Answer - Option B
45. Name the digital financial services company that has collaborated with Aegon Life Insurance and launched a insurance product “Aegon Life Group Term Plus Plan” for providing death and accident related disability cover up to Rs 2 lakh?

A. Mobikwik B. Paytm C. FreeCharge D. PhonePe

Answer - Option A
46. Which public sector bank has launched India’s first ‘Green Car Loan’ (Electric Vehicle) to encourage customers to buy electric vehicles?

A. Bank of Baroda B. Canara Bank C. State Bank of India (SBI) D. Indian Bank

Answer - Option C
47. Name the department, which has prepared the “Startup India Vision 2024” to promote entrepreneurs and to facilitate setting up of 50,000 new start-ups in the country by 2024.

A. Department of Heavy Industries B. Department of Public Enterprises C. Department of Information Technology D. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)

Answer - Option D
48. Which organization is set to partner with the Embassy of the US to jointly promote domestic investments during ‘Select USA 2019’ summit that will be held in Washington DC?

A. Trade Promotion Council of India (TPCI) B. Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO) C. National Productivity Council (NPC) D. Project Exports Promotion Council of India (PEPC)

Answer - Option A
49. Who won the IPI’s (International Press Institute) World Press Freedom Hero award in 2019 for his “critical” & “tenacious coverage” of the civil-military relations in Pakistan?

A. Mazhar Ali Khan B. Cyril Almeida C. Rafael Marques D. Gen Ziaul Haq

Answer - Option B
50. Name the script writer, who won the Deenanath Mangeshkar Lifetime Award 2019 recently.

A. Javed Akhtar B. Vishal Bhardwaj C. Anurag Kashyap D. Salim Khan

Answer - Option D

Direction(1-10): Find The Odd One Out (word/number pair/number) from the given alternative
1. Iron Box, Mixie, Computer, Gas Stove

A. Iron Box B. Mixie C. Computer D. Gas Stove

Answer - Option D
2. Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish

A. Tortoise B. Crab C. Frog D. Fish

Answer - Option D
3. 13, 17, 23, 63, 71

A. 63 B. 17 C. 13 D. 23

Answer - Option A
4. (64, 83), (100, 121), (16, 25), (36, 49)

A. 64, 83 B. 100, 121 C. 16, 25 D. 36, 49

Answer - Option A
5. (9 - 72), (10 - 90), (8 - 56), (11 - 115)

A. 9 - 72 B. 10 - 90 C. 8 - 56 D. 11 - 115

Answer - Option D
6. Jeevan Raksha Padak, Param Vir Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna

A. Jeevan Raksha Padak B. Param Vir Chakra C. Padma Bhusan D. Bharat Ratna

Answer - Option B
7. Milk, Ghee, Paneer, Butter

A. Milk B. Ghee C. Paneer D. Butter

Answer - Option A
8. Which word will appear fourth in the dictionary?

A. Solitaire B. Soliloquy C. Solitary D. Solitude

Answer - Option D
9. 7, 8, 12, 20, 37, 62

A. 37 B. 62 C. 12 D. 20

Answer - Option D
10. 1, 8, 27, 65, 125, 216

A. 1 B. 65 C. 125 D. 216

Answer - Option B
Directions(11-15): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code, “ROSE MONKEY BASKET JUG” is written as ‘9#E, 31%Y, 26$T, 10@G’ “JOB RIGID BALL MUG” is written as ‘5@B, 16$L, 9#D, 10%G’ “MANGO BULB RABBIES JACKERS” is written as ‘6$B, 26#S, 20%O, 25@S’ “RABBIT JAMES BUG MACAQUE” is written as ‘26#T, 12%E, 24@S, 10$G’
11. The code for the word ‘RAIN’ is

A. 8%N B. 8*N C. 18#N D. 16$N

Answer - Option C
12. The code ‘9#E’ denotes which of the following word?

A. RAGA B. REVERSE C. RUPEE D. RACE

Answer - Option D
13. Which of the following is the code for “Marker”?

A. 24%R B. 26!R C. 28!R D. 24!R

Answer - Option A
14. Which of the following denotes @ symbol?

A. A B. M C. B D. J

Answer - Option D
15. Which of the following is the code for ‘MOUNTAIN BIG ROOM JAPAN’ ?

A. 15@E, 13#S, 5?E, 13%H B. 21%N, 6$G, 18#M, 20@N C. 19@E, 17#S, 7?E, 18%H D. 22%N, 5$G, 17#M, 19@N

Answer - Option D
16. Conclusions: I. Some red are blue. II. At least some yellow are green. III. All yellow being red is a possibility. Statements: I. Some green are blue. Some blue are yellow. Some yellow are red. II. All green are yellow. Some yellow are red. No blue is yellow. III. All green are yellow. All yellow are blue. No blue is red. IV. Some green are yellow. Some yellow are blue. No blue is red. V. Some green are yellow. Some yellow are blue. Some blue are red.

A. Only statement II B. Only statement III C. Only statement IV D. Only statement V

Answer - Option D
17. Conclusions: I. All physics are Maths. II. Some Maths are definitely not science. Statements: I. Some Physics are Hindi. Some Hindi are Maths. No science is Hindi. II. All Maths are Hindi. Some Hindi are physics. No science is Hindi. III. All physics are Hindi. Some Hindi are Maths. Some science are Maths. IV. All physics are Hindi. All Hindi are Maths. No science is Hindi. V. All physics are Hindi. All Hindi are Maths. Some science are Maths.

A. Only statement I B. Only statement II C. Only statement III D. Only statement IV

Answer - Option D
18. Conclusions: I. All tables being cups is a possibility. II. No table is a plate. III. Some glass are tables. Statements: I. At least some tables are spoons. No spoon is a plate. No table is a cup. II. All tables are spoons. No spoon is a plate. All plate are cups. All spoons are glass. III. At least some tables are spoons. All tables are plate. No table is a cup. IV. All tables are spoons. No spoon is a plate. All tables are glass. No spoon is a cup. V. Some tables are spoons. All tables are glass. Some glass are plate. All plate are cups.

A. Only statement I B. Only statement II C. Only statement III D. Only statement IV

Answer - Option B
19. Conclusions: I. Some water are milk. II. At least some tea are coffee. III. All tea being water is a possibility. Statements: I. Some coffee are tea. Some tea are milk. Some milk are water. All tea are drink. II. Some coffee are milk. Some milk are tea. Some tea are water. No coffee is drink. III. All coffee are tea. Some tea are drink. All water are drink. No milk is drink. IV. All coffee are tea. All tea are milk. No milk is water. Some drinks are milk. V. Some coffee are tea. Some tea are milk. No drink is water. All milk are drinks.

A. Only statement I B. Only statement II C. Only statement III D. Only statement IV

Answer - Option A
Directions(20-24): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Six players A, B, C, D, E and F of six different countries P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. They all scored different runs in the match viz. 41, 44, 48, 50, 52 and 54 but not necessarily in the same order. C is seated second to the right of the player of country S. The one who scored 54 runs is not C. The one who scored 48 runs is seated second to the left of the player of country U who is not A or C. B is seated opposite to the player of country T who scored 44 runs. There is only one player between the player of country U and T but he is not from country P. Player of country T sits second to the right of player of country U. The player who scored 50 runs is seated second to the right of A. The player who scored 52 runs is not seated near to the one who scored 44 runs. F is seated immediately left of the player of country R but not near to A. The player of country P is not seated near to the player of country Q but immediate right of D.
20. Who is sitting opposite to the player of country Q?

A. C B. D C. B D. Player of country P

Answer - Option D
21. What is the position of the player who scored 41 runs with respect to the one who scored 48 runs?

A. Second to the right B. Immediate right C. Immediate left D. Opposite

Answer - Option D
22. Which of the following statement is true?

A. E is the player of country U B. C is second to the right of B but not near to E C. B scored 52 runs and near to C D. Player of country R is opposite to player of country S

Answer - Option A
23. Who among the following scored 41 runs?

A. D B. C C. A D. B

Answer - Option B
24. Who is sitting opposite to E?

A. Player of country R B. The one who scored 41 runs C. A D. F

Answer - Option A
25. M is daughter of N and sister of L. K is daughter of L and granddaughter of G. F is sister-in-law of M. L is only sibling of M. How is K related to N ?

A. Grandson B. Granddaughter C. Daughter D. Daughter-in-law

Answer - Option B
26. If P+Q means P is the sister of Q, P-Q means P is brother of Q, P*Q means P is daughter of Q. Which of the following shows the relation that K is a uncle of O.

A. K*F+O B. F*K+O C. O+K*F D. None of these

Answer - Option D
27. M and N are sisters. X and Y are brothers. M’s daughter is X’s sister. what is N’s relation to Y?

A. Aunt B. Sister C. Mother-in-law D. Daughter

Answer - Option A
28. Riya starts from her home and walks 30 meter towards north. From here she took a right turn and walk 20 meters after that she took right turn and walk 30 meter. At last she took another left and walked 20 meter and stopped. How much distance is riya from her home and in which direction.

A. 30m east B. 40m west C. 40m east D. 40m south

Answer - Option C
29. Village P is north to the village Q. Village S is east to the village Q and village R is to the left of village P. Then village S is in which direction with respect to R.

A. South-west B. north east C. south east D. north west

Answer - Option B
30. Rohan starts walking in north-east direction and travels 30 meter. Now he moves towards east and walks 20 meter. Now he turns towards south west and moves 30 meter and finally walks towards west for 5 meter and stopped. Find the distance of rohan from the starting point.

A. 10m B. 15m C. 20m D. 25m

Answer - Option B
31. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SANDWITCH, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer - Option D
32. How many pairs of letters are there in the word (in reverse direction) PERTAINING, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. More than three

Answer - Option D
33. How many pairs of letters are there in the word (in forward direction) MATHEMATICS, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. More than three

Answer - Option B
34. How many pairs of letters are there in the word MANAGEMENT, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three

Answer - Option C
35. How many pairs of letters are there in the word DEPARTMENT, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. More than three

Answer - Option D
36. Look at this series: 1.5, 2.3, 3.1, 3.9, ... What number should come next?

A. 4.2 B. 4.4 C. 4.7 D. 5.1

Answer - Option C
37. Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ... What number should come next?

A. 52 B. 56 C. 96 D. 128

Answer - Option B
38. Find the missing number in the series 4, 18, ……, 100, 180, 294.

A. 32 B. 36 C. 48 D. 40

Answer - Option C
39. 5, 16, 51, 158, ?

A. 1452 B. 483 C. 481 D. 1454

Answer - Option C
40. 6, 9, 12, 15, 15, 18, ?

A. 21 B. 20 C. 19 D. 22

Answer - Option A
41. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘F>N’ as well as ‘N≤B’ definitely holds true? B _ A _ N _ E _ F

A. >, ≥, <, = B. >, >, ≥, < C. ≥, ≥, ≥,≤ D. ≥, =, ≤,<

Answer - Option D
42. Rockies : Applachian :: Andes : ?

A. Slopes B. Ranges C. Peaks D. Hills

Answer - Option B
43. Ocean:Pacific :: Island : ?

A. Netherland B. Ireland C. Greenland D. Finland

Answer - Option C
Direction(44-45): In each of the following questions you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers followed by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.
44. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
45. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option A
Direction(46-48):In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as its part.
46. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
47. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option A
48. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option C
49. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Travelers, Train and Bus ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer - Option C
50. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Profit, Dividend and Bonus ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer - Option C

1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as standardizing instruments.

A. absolute B. indicating C. recording D. integrating

Answer - Option A
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being measured at the time at which it is being measured ?

A. Absolute instruments B. Indicating instruments C. Recording instruments D. Integrating instruments

Answer - Option B
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a particular time.

A. Absolute B. Indicating C. Recording D. Integrating

Answer - Option D
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?

A. Ammeters B. Voltmeters C. Wattmeters D. Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

Answer - Option D
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of

A. wattmeters B. voltmeters C. ammeters D. ohmmeters and resistance bridges

Answer - Option D
6. According to application, instruments are classified as

A. switch board B. portable C. both (a) and (b) D. moving coil

Answer - Option C
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?

A. Deflecting device B. Controlling device C. Damping device D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to reach its final position quickly

A. deflecting B. controlling C. damping D. any of the above

Answer - Option C
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.

A. Should be non-magnetic B. Most be of low temperature co-efficient C. Should have low specific resistance D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?

A. Must be a good insulator B. Should be non-evaporating C. Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
11. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates

A. magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force B. magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced C. magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current D. magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor

Answer - Option B
12. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards

A. direction of induced e.m.f. B. direction of flux C. direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f. D. direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux

Answer - Option D
13. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally

A. ball bearings B. bush bearings C. magnetic bearmgs D. needle bearings

Answer - Option A
14. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

A. severe sparking B. rough commutator surface C. imperfect contact D. any of the above

Answer - Option D
15. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always

A. double the number of poles B. same as the number of poles C. half the number of poles D. two

Answer - Option B
16. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?

A. Lap winding B. Wave winding C. Either of (a) and (b) above D. Depends on other features of design

Answer - Option B
17. In a four-pole D.C. machine

A. all the four poles are north poles B. alternate poles are north and south C. all the four poles are south poles D. two north poles follow two south poles

Answer - Option B
18. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

A. where low voltage and high currents are involved B. where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved C. in both of the above cases D. in none of the above cases

Answer - Option A
19. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator

A. is amenable to better voltage control B. is more stable C. has exciting current independent of load current D. has all above features

Answer - Option D
20. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

A. current B. voltage C. speed D. none of above

Answer - Option C
21. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

A. speed B. load C. voltage D. speed and voltage

Answer - Option B
22. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

A. these motors have high starting torque B. these motors are not self-starting C. back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially D. to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting

Answer - Option D
23. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

A. the speed will increase abruptly B. the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load C. the speed will remain almost/constant D. the speed will reduce

Answer - Option C
24. A D.C. series motor is that which

A. has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns B. has a poor torque C. can be started easily without load D. has almost constant speed

Answer - Option A
25. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

A. it limits the speed of the motor B. it limits the starting current to a safe value C. it starts the motor D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
26. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is

A. shunt motor B. series motor C. differential compoutid D.C. motor D. cumulative compound D.C. motor

Answer - Option D
27. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

A. run at normal speed B. not run C. run at lower speed D. burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents

Answer - Option D
28. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy is used.

A. Ward Leonard control B. rheostatic control C. any of the above method D. none of the above method

Answer - Option A
29. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is

A. more than the normal speed B. loss than the normal speed C. normal speed D. zero

Answer - Option C
30. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by

A. decreasing the field current B. increasing the field current C. decreasing the armature current D. increasing the armature current

Answer - Option A
31. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

A. independent of armature current B. directly proportional to the armature current C. proportional to the square of the current D. inversely proportional to the armature current

Answer - Option A
32. The main function of a fuse is to

A. protect the line B. open the circuit C. protect the appliance D. prevent excessive currents

Answer - Option D
33. On which of the following routine tests are conducted ?

A. Oil circuit breakers B. Air blast circuit breakers C. Minimum oil circuit breakers D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
34. SF6 gas

A. is yellow in colour B. is lighter than air C. is nontoxic D. has pungent small

Answer - Option C
35. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

A. copper tungsten alloy B. porcelain C. electrolytic copper D. aluminium alloy

Answer - Option A
36. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?

A. Water B. Oil C. Air D. SF6

Answer - Option C
37. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation ?

A. Inverse time trip B. Time-delay trip C. Shunt trip D. None of the above

Answer - Option C
38. Fault diverters are basically

A. fuses B. relays C. fast switches D. circuit breakers

Answer - Option C
39. A thermal protection switch can protect against

A. short-circuit B. temperature C. overload D. over voltage

Answer - Option C
40. Arc in a circuit behaves as

A. a capackive reactance B. an inductive reactance C. a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc D. a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc

Answer - Option A
41. Thermal circuit breaker has

A. delayed trip action B. instantaneous trip action C. both of the above D. none of the above

Answer - Option A
42. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?

A. Dielectric losses in cable insulation B. losses in the conductor C. Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
43. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?

A. The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels B. Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst C. Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
44. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost ?

A. Radial system B. Ring system C. Inter-connected system D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
45. A booster is a

A. series wound generator B. shunt wound generator C. synchronous generator D. none of the above

Answer - Option A
46. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for solution of network problems in interconnected system ?

A. Circulating current method B. Thevenin's theorem C. Superposition of currents D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
47. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?

A. Cross or short-circuit fault B. Open circuit fault C. Breakdown of cable insulation D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
48. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is

A. 110 v B. 210 v C. 230 v D. 400 v

Answer - Option C
49. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are

A. underground B. overhead C. either of the above D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
50. The distributors for residential areas are

A. single phase B. three-phase three wire C. three-phase four wire D. none of the above

Answer - Option C
61. The conductors of the overhead lines are

A. solid B. stranded C. both solid and stranded D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
62. High voltage transmission lines use

A. suspension insulators B. pin insulators C. both (a) and (b) D. None of these

Answer - Option A
63. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to

A. boost the generated voltage B. balance loads on both sides of the neutral C. make both machine^ run as unloaded motors D. equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers

Answer - Option D
64. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides

A. both balancers run as generators B. both balancers run as motors C. balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor D. balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor

Answer - Option C
65. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is

A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 100 percent

Answer - Option B
66. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is

A. one-fourth B. one-third C. one-half D. twice

Answer - Option A
67. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum voltage to earth uses only

A. 31.25 percent of copper B. 33.3 percent of copper C. 66.7 percent of copper D. 125 percent of copper

Answer - Option A
68. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

A. 6.6 kV B. 8.8 kV C. 11 kV D. 13.2 kV

Answer - Option B
69. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as

A. 20-30 ohms B. 70—80 ohms C. 100—200 ohms D. 500—1000 ohms

Answer - Option C
70. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it

A. reduces power factor B. corrodes the material C. gives odour D. transfer energy to the ground

Answer - Option B
71. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to

A. distributors B. generating stations C. service mains D. all of the above

Answer - Option A
72. Load factor of a power station is defined as

A. maximum demand/average load B. average load x maximum demand C. average load/maximum demand D. (average load x maximum demand)172

Answer - Option C
73. Load factor of a power station is generally

A. equal to unity B. less than unity C. more than unity D. equal to zero Diversity factor is always

Answer - Option B
74. The load factor of domestic load is usually

A. 10 to 15% B. 30 to 40% C. 50 to 60% D. 60 to 70%

Answer - Option A
75. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by

A. sinking fund method B. straight line method C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above

Answer - Option C
76. Depreciation charges are high in case of

A. thermal plant B. diesel plant C. hydroelectric plant D. None of these

Answer - Option A
77. Demand factor is defined as

A. average load/maximum load B. maximum demand/connected load C. connected load/maximum demand D. average load x maximum load

Answer - Option B
78. High load factor indicates

A. cost of generation per unit power is increased B. total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time C. total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
79. A load curve indicates

A. average power used during the period B. average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period C. either of the above D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
80. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by

A. load survey method B. statistical methods C. mathematical method D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
81. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by

A. the capital cost divided by number of year of life B. the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life C. increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
82. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in

A. flat rate tariff B. two part tariff C. maximum demand tariff D. any of the above

Answer - Option C
83. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect

A. fixed charges B. operating or running charges C. both (a) and (b) D. either (a) or (b)

Answer - Option B
84. In Hopknison demand rate or two part-tariff the demand rate or fixed charges are

A. dependent upon the energy consumed B. dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer C. both (a) and (b) D. neither (a) nor (b)

Answer - Option B
85. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?

A. Peak load plant B. Base load plant C. Nuclear power plant D. Hydro electric plant

Answer - Option A
86. The area under a load curve gives

A. average demand B. energy consumed C. maximum demand D. none of the above

Answer - Option B
87. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have____permeability and _______ hystersis loss.

A. high, high B. low, high C. high, low D. low, low

Answer - Option C
88. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum

A. at 63.2% of its maximum steady value B. at the start of the current flow C. after one time constant D. near the final maximum value of current

Answer - Option B
89. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of

A. time constant remains unchanged B. initial rate of rise of current is doubled C. final steady current is doubled D. time constant is halved

Answer - Option A
90. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is _______Vs

A. 50 B. 20 C. 0.05 D. 500

Answer - Option B
91. A material for good magnetic memory should have

A. low hysteresis loss B. high permeability C. low retentivity D. high retentivity

Answer - Option D
92. Conductivity is analogous to

A. retentivity B. resistivity C. permeability D. inductance

Answer - Option
93. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to

A. rapid reversals of its magnetisation B. flux density lagging behind magnetising force C. molecular friction D. it high retentivity

Answer - Option D
94. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have _____ retentivity and _______ coercivity.

A. low, high B. high, high C. high, low D. low, low

Answer - Option B
95. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material will be

A. zero B. small C. large D. none of the above

Answer - Option C
96. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because

A. it has good residual magnetism B. its hysteresis loop has large area C. its mechanical strength is high D. its mechanical strength is low

Answer - Option A
97. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has

A. low coercivity B. low retentivity C. low hysteresis loss D. high coercivity

Answer - Option C
98. Conductance is analogous to

A. permeance B. reluctance C. flux D. inductance

Answer - Option A
99. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as

A. reluctivity B. magnetomotive force C. permeance D. reluctance

Answer - Option D
100. The unit of retentivity is

A. weber B. weber/sq. m C. ampere turn/meter D. ampere turn

Answer - Option B