Directions Q (1 - 5): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Statements:
All snakes are eagles. Some eagles are rabbits. All rabbits are birds. Some birds are animals.
Conclusions: I. Some animals are snakes. II. Some birds are snakes. III. Some birds are eagles. IV. All birds are rabbits.

A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Both II and III follow E. None of these

2. Statements:
Some cameras are calculators. Some calculators are diaries. All notebooks are diaries. All diaries are computers.
Conclusions: I. Some notebooks are calculators II. Some calculators are computers. III. All notebooks are computers. IV. Some diaries are cameras.

A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Both II and III follow E. None of these

3. Statements:
All planets are stars. All stars are asteroids. All asteroids are moons. Some moons are rocks.
Conclusions: I. All asteroids are planets. II. All asteroids are stars. III. All moons are stars. IV. Some rocks are stars.

A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only either I or II follows E. None of these

4. Statements:
Some bats are toys. Some toys are plastics. Some plastics are mirrors. No mirror is glass.
Conclusions: I. Some toys are mirrors. II. Some plastics are glasses. III. Some bats are mirrors. IV. No glass is plastic.

A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only either I or IV follows E. None of these

5. Statements:
All graduates are advocates Some advocates are judges. All judges are lawyers. Some lawyers are doctors.
Conclusions: I. Some doctors are advocates. II. All graduates are judges. III. Some doctors are graduates. IV. Some lawyers are advocates.

A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only either III or IV follows E. None of these

Directions Q (6 - 10): In the following questions, the symbols ★, d, %, @ and © are used with the following meaning illustrated below: ‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P©Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P★Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘PdQ’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly
6. Statements:
R d K, K © M, M @ J
Conclusions: I. J ★ K II. M ★ R III. R ©J

A. Only I and II are true B. Only II and III are true C. Only I and III are true D. All I, II and III are true E. None of these

7. Statements:
Z @ M, M ★ K, K © F
Conclusions: I. F ★ Z II. K © Z III. F ★ M

A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true D. Only III is true E. Only II and III are true

8. Statements:
B © J, J % W, W ★ M
Conclusions: I. M © J II. W © B III. B ★ M

A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true D. Only III is true E. Only II and III are true

9. Statements:
V % H, H @ F, F d E
Conclusions: I. F @ V II. F © V III. E % H

A. Only either I or II is true B. Only III is true C. Only I and II are true D. All I, II and III are true E. Only either I or II and III are true

10. Statements: W ★ T, T d N, N % D
Conclusions: I. D © T II. W ★ N III. D @ T

A. None is true B. Only I is true C. Only II is true D. Only III is true E. Only I and II are true

Directions Q (11 - 15): Each question given below is followed by five statements numbered I, II, III, IV and V. The answer choice given below each question consists of one or more statements. You have to choose the choice which gives more relevant / useful information in answering the question correctly. Read all the statements together with the question and choose your answer
11. For what reason Purohit did not get the offer of employment?
Statement:
I. Purohit passed in the interview. II. Purohit's friend passed the medical test who passed the interview along with Purohit. III. Purohit's father did not want him to take the job. IV. Purohit has another employment offer from another company. V. Purohit did not clear the mandatory medical test.

A. III and IV only B. III, IV and V only C. I, III and IV only D. V only E. None of these

12. What were the possible reasons for incurring losses by DESCO for the last two years?
Statement:
I. The Company’s shares are not registered in the stock exchange. II. The company does not export its products. III. The company has inefficient labor force. IV. The price of its product has fallen in the last two years due to competitive market. V. Entry of similar foreign goods at a cheaper rate.

A. Only III, IV and V B. Only II, III and IV C. Only IV and V D. Only I and II E. None of these

13. On which day of the week did Sunil get his letter of promotion?
Statement:
I. Sunil purchased a new shirt on Friday II. Sunil was given a party that Saturday. III. Sunil was given the letter of promotion on the day before he purchased the shirt. IV. Tuesday being his birthday, Sunil gave a party to all his friends. V. Sunil's friend was promoted on Friday.

A. I and II only B. II, III and IV only C. I and III only D. II, III and V only E. None of these

14. Who among A, B, C, D and E is the heaviest?
Statement:
I. B and C are heavier than A and D. II. C is heavier than D. III. C is heavier than A and lighter than B. IV. E is heavier than B V. D is lighter than E.

A. I, III and IV only B. II, III and V only C. III and IV only D. I, III and V only E. None of these

15. Many companies now have employee assistance programmes that enable employees, free of charge, to improve their physical fitness, reduce stress, and learn ways to stop smoking. These programmes increase worker productivity, reduce absenteeism, and lessen insurance costs for employee health care. Therefore, these programmes benefit the company as well as the employee. Which of the following, if true, most significantly strengthens the conclusion above?

A. Physical fitness programmes are often the most popular services offered to employees. B. Studies have shown that training in stress management is not effective for many people. C. Regular exercise reduces people’s risk of heart disease and provides them with increased energy. D. Physical injuries sometimes result from entering a strenuous physical fitness programme too quickly. E. None of these

Directions Q (16 - 20): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input: going but for crept te light sir
Step I: crept going but for te light sir
Step II: crept going light but for te sir
Step III: crept going light but for sir te (Step III is the last step for this input)
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate step for the given input.
16. Input: the in car as he may me
Which of the following will be the third step for this input?

A. car the in as he may me B. car may the as in he me C. car as may he the in me D. car may the in as he me E. None of these

17. If the second step of an input is ‘clever remand window sales batch tiger never’ which of the following will be its sixth step?

A. clever remand window batch sales tiger never B. window remand clever sales batch tiger never C. batch never sales tiger clever remand window D. clever remand window tiger batch sales never E. It cannot have sixth step.

18. If the input is ‘true se veto be nuke my like’, which of the following will be the IV step??

A. like nuke true veto be se my B. be my like se true veto nuke C. be my se like true veto nuke D. veto true nuke like so be my E. Cannot be determined

19. Input: ‘more fight cats cough sough acts idea’.
Which of the following steps would be the last step for this input?

A. III B. IV C. V D. VI E. VII

20. If the V step of an input is ‘more pure soft cat not so sir at’, what will be the IV step?

A. at so more pure cat not soft sir B. more pure soft so sir cat at not C. more pure soft cat so sir at not D. more so sir soft pure cat at not E. Cannot be determined

Directions Q (21 - 25): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it.
Seven members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different cities Ahmadabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai, not necessarily in the same order. Each one has a different mother tongue–Tamil, Kannada, Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla, not necessarily in the same order. J works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi. K’s mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmadabad. L and M do not work in Chennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in Hyderabad and his mother tongue is Telugu. The one who works in Delhi had Bangla mother tongue. N works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work in Kolkata.
21. What is J’s mother tongue?

A. Telugu B. Hindi C. Bangla D. Kannada E. None of these

22. Who works in Chennai?

A. H B. L C. M D. L or M E. None of these

23. Which of the following combinations is correct?

A. Marathi-I-Hyderabad B. Tamil-M-Kolkata C. Marathi-I-Chennai D. Punjabi-K-Delhi E. None of these

24. Who works in Delhi?

A. H B. M C. L D. K E. None of these

25. What is M’s mother tongue?

A. Bangla B. Marathi C. Telugu D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Directions Q (26 - 27): Each of the following questions contains a paragraph followed by a question based on it. Carefully read the paragraph and answer the question.
26. Advertisement: Today’s customers expect high quality. Every advance in the quality of manufactured products raises customer expectations. The company that is satisfied with the current quality of its products will soon find that its customers are not. At Mega Corp, meeting of exceeding customer expectations is our goal.
Which of the following must be true on the basis of the statements in the advertisement above?

A. MegaCorp’s competitors will succeed in attracting customers only if those competitors adopt MegaCorp’s goal as their own. B. A company that does not correctly anticipate the expectations of its customers is certain to fail in advancing the quality of its products. C. MegaCorp’s goal is possible to meet only if continuing advances in product quality are possible. D. If a company becomes satisfied with the quality of its products, then the quality of its products is sure to decline. E. None of these

27. The local board of education found that, because the current physics curriculum has little direct relevance to today’s world, physics classes attracted few high school students. So to attract students to physics classes, the board proposed a curriculum that emphasizes principles of physics involved in producing and analyzing visual images.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason to expect that the proposed curriculum will be successful in attracting students?

A. Several of the fundamental principles of physics are involved in producing and analyzing visual images. B. Knowledge of physics is becoming increasingly important in understanding the technology used in today’s world. C. Evidence that a large producer of photographic equipment has donated to the high school could be used in the proposed curriculum. D. In today’s world the production and analysis of visual images is of major importance in communications, business, and recreation. E. None of these

Directions Q (28 - 30): In a certain code language meanings of some words are as follows:
(i) ‘pit na sa’ mean ‘you are welcome’. (ii) ‘na ho pa la’ means ‘they are very good’. (iii) ‘ka da la’ means ‘who is good’? (iv) ‘od ho pit la’ means ‘they welcome good people’.
28. Which of the following means ‘people’ in that code language?

A. ho B. pit C. la D. od E. Data inadequate

29. Which of the following means ‘very’ in that code language?

A. na B. da C. pa D. Data inadequate E. None of these

30. Which of the following statements is/are redundant to answer the above two questions?

A. None B. (i) and (iii) C. (ii) or (iv) D. (i) or (iv) E. None of these

Directions Q (31 - 35): In each of the questions given below, which one of the following five Answer Figures on the bottom should come after the Problem Figures on the top, if the sequence were continued?
31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36. Window registry consists of ________ and _____ files.

A. user.dat, win, ini B. user.dat, system.dat C. win.reg, user.dat D. autoexec.bat, config.sys E. win.reg, system.dat

37. ________ technology is typically used by Extra net and Intranet.

A. Protocol B. SSL C. Proprietary D. Internet E. SET

38. A program which is in execution is called

A. data B. job C. process D. information E. None of these

39. Which major development led to the production of microcomputer

A. Logic gates B. Floppy disks C. Magnetic disks D. Magnetic tape E. Integrated circuits

40. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called

A. classifying B. summarizing C. reproducing D. sorting E. sequencing

41. In a computer system, _________ device is functionally opposite of a keyboard.

A. joystick B. mouse C. trackball D. printer E. scanner

42. In modems data transfer rate is measured in

A. bandwidth B. bits per second C. bits per minute D. All the above E. None of these

43. A ________ code is used in retail stores to identify merchandise.

A. mnemonics B. gray code C. machine code D. universal product code E. access-3 code

44. What is the short-cut key to highlight the entire column?

A. Ctrl + Page up B. Ctrl + Page down C. Ctrl + Enter D. Ctrl + Space bar E. Ctrl + C

45. _________ can be use to send an e-mail to a large group at one time.

A. Group B. Alias C. Mail server D. List server E. Remote server

Solution: For Q(1-15)
Q1:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IV does not follow by converting the third statement. Some eagles are rabbits + All rabbits are birds = 1 + A = I Some eagles are birds → conversion → Some birds are eagles. Hence III follows. All snakes are eagles + Some eagles are birds = A + I = No conclusion. Hence II and consequently I do not follow.
Q2:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All notebooks are diaries (A) → conversion → Some diaries are notebooks (I). Now, Some calculators are diaries + Some diaries are notebooks = I + I = No conclusion. Hence I does not follow. Some calculators are diaries + All diaries are computers = I + A = I = Some calculators are computers. Hence II follows. All notebooks are diaries + All diaries are computers = A + A = All notebooks are computers. Hence III follows. Some cameras are calculators + Some calculators are diaries = I + I = No conclusion. Hence IV does not follow.
Q3:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All planets are stars + All stars are e asteroids = A + A = A = All planets are asteroids → conversion → Some asteroids are planets (I). Hence I does not follow. Nor does II follow by converting the second statement Again, All stars are asteroids + All asteroids are moons = A + A = A = All stars are moons → conversion → Some moons are stars (I). Hence III does not follow. Some moons are rocks (I) → conversion → Some rocks are moons (I) + Some moons are stars = I + I = No conclusion. Hence IV does not follow.
Q4:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
I-type statements can’t be combined among themselves. Hence I and III do not follow. Some plastics are mirrors + No mirror is glass = I + E = O = Some plastics are not glasses. Hence II and IV do not follow. However, the two make a complementary I-E pair. Hence either II or IV follows.
Q5:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
All graduates are advocates + Some advocates are judges = A + I = No conclusion. Hence II and consequently III do not follow. Some advocates are judges + All judges are lawyers = I + A = I = Some advocates are lawyers → conversion → Some lawyers are advocates. Hence IV follows. Some advocates are lawyers + Some lawyers are doctors = I + I = No conclusion. Hence I does not follow.
Q6:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
R ≤K ... (i); K < M ... (ii); M = J ... (iii) Combining these, we get R ≤ K K and I follows. Also, M > R and II follows. Again, R < J and III follows.
Q7:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Z = M ... (i); M > K ... (ii); K K < F From this F and Z can’t be compared. Neither can F and M. Hence, I and III do not follow. But K < Z and II follows.
Q8:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
B M ... (iii) Combining these, we get B M. Hence M < J and I follows. But W and B can’t be compared. Neither can B and M. Hence II and III do not follow.
Q9:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
V ≥H ... (i); H = F ... (ii); F ≤E ... (iii) Combining these, we get. V ≥ H = F ≤ E. Hence V ≥ F. Which means either I (F = V) or II (F < V) follows. Again, E ≥ H. Hence III follows.
Q1O:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
W > T ... (i); T ≤ N ... (ii); N ≥ D ... (iii) No comparisons can be made.
Q11:
Answer: Option D
Q12:
Answer: Option A
Q13:
Answer: Option C
Q14:
Answer: Option A
Q15:
Answer: Option C
Solution: For Q(16-20)
Q16:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Input : the in car as he may me Step I : car the in as he may me Step II : car may the in as he me Step III : car may the as in he me
Q17:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Step II : clever remand window sales batch tiger never Step II I: clever remand window batch sales tiger never Step IV : clever remand window batch never sales tiger Now, step IV would be the last step.
Q18:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Input : true se veto be nuke my like Step I : like true se veto be nuke my Step II : like nuke true se veto be my Step III : like nuke true veto se be my Step IV : like nuke true veto be se my
Q19:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Input : more fight cats cough sough acts idea Step I : cough more fight cats sough acts idea Step II : cough fight more cats sough acts idea Step III : cough fight sough more cats acts idea Step IV : cough fight sought acts more cats idea Step V: cough fight sough acts cats more idea Step V I: cough fight sough acts cats idea more
Q20:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
We can’t move backward.
Solution: For Q(21-25)

Q21:
Answer: Option D
Q22:
Answer: Option A
Q23:
Answer: Option B
Q24:
Answer: Option C
Q25:
Answer: Option E
Q26:
Answer: Option C
Q27:
Answer: Option D
Solution: For Q(28-30) pit na sa ⟹ you are welcome… (i) na ho pa la ⟹ they are very good… (ii) ka da la ⟹ who is good… (iii) od ho pit la⟹ they welcome good people… (iv) Code for (a) ‘good’ is la [ from (ii) and (iv)]. (b) ‘they’ is ho [ from (ii), (iv) and (a)]. (c) ‘welcome’ is pit [ from (i) and (iv)]. (d) ‘people’ is od [ by elimination in (iv)] (e) ‘are’ is na [ from (i) and (ii)]. (f). ‘very’ is pa [ by elimination in (ii)].
Q28:
Answer: Option D
Q29:
Answer: Option C
Q30:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Only iii is redundant
Q31:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
In alternate steps the left element shift to right → middle. The second and fourth from left interchange places while all of them get inverted.
Q32:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In alternate steps the upper left, the upper middle and left middle shift one step ACW in a cyclic order. The centre shifts to lower middle and a new element appears at centre.
Q33:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In the first step three outer corner elements shift one step in a cyclic order while the three corresponding inner elements also shift in the same way. The remaining one inner and outer elements interchange places. In the next step the upper four and lower four elements shift one step in a cyclic order.
Q34:
Answer: Option C
Q35:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In alternate steps the upper middle, the left middle and the right middle shift one step ACW in cyclic order while the lower three elements of the middle column shift one step downward in cyclic order.
Q36:
Answer: Option B
Q37:
Answer: Option D
Q38:
Answer: Option C
Q39:
Answer: Option E
Q40:
Answer: Option D
Q41:
Answer: Option D
Q42:
Answer: Option B
Q43:
Answer: Option D
Q44:
Answer: Option D
Q45:
Answer: Option D

Directions Q (46 - 50): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Clerks and Officers recruited (In thousands) by five different banks during six different years

46. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?

A. 32.43 lakhs B. Rs. 33.72 lakhs C. Rs. 34.18 lakhs D. Rs. 36.66 lakhs

47. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent

A. 0.1% B. 0.5% C. 1% D. 1.25%

48. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure?

A. 62% B. 66% C. 69% D. 71%

49. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?

A. 544.44 lakhs B. Rs. 501.11 lakhs C. Rs. 446.46 lakhs D. Rs. 478.87 lakhs

50. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

A. 4:7 B. 10:13 C. 15:18 D. 5:8

Directions Q (51 - 55):
Study the following Pie-chart and the table given below it carefully to answer these questions.
Percentage-wise Distribution of lecturers in six different
subjects in a university
Total Number of Lecturers: 1600
Percentage of Lecturers

Ratio of male to Female Lecturers in the University:

51. Total number of lecturers (both male and female) in Hindi is approximately what per cent of the total number of female lecturers in Mathematics and Chemistry together?

A. 58 B. 43 C. 47 D. 51 E. 40

52. What is the difference between the total number of lecturers (both male and female) in Zoology and the total number of male lecturers in Chemistry and Education together?

A. 192 B. 182 C. 146 D. 136 E. None of these

53. What is the difference between the number of female lecturers in Zoology and the number of male lecturers in Hindi?

A. 156 B. 160 C. 150 D. 153 E. None of these

54. What is the total number of male lecturers in the university?

A. 696 B. 702 C. 712 D. 668 E. None of these

55. What is the ratio of the number of female lecturers in Physics to the number of male lecturers in Mathematics?

A. 5:9 B. 2:9 C. 3:7 D. 5:3 E. None of these

Directions Q (56 - 60): Study the following information carefullyNto answer the questions that follow: In a tournament, a total number of 400 players have Participated in five different sports, viz badminton, hockey, lown tennis, cricket and baseball. 15 per cent of the total players have participated in badminton. Two-fifths of the total players have participated in hockey. 6 per cent of the total players have participated in lawn tennis. 25 per cent of the total players have participated in cricket. Remaining players have participated in baseball. One-fourth of the hockey players are females. 20 percent of badminton players are males. Half the players who have participated in Lawn Tennis are males. There are 45 female cricket players. No female player has participated in baseball.
56. The number of female players participating in badminton is approximately what percentage of the number of players participating in baseball?

A. 72 B. 75 C. 80 D. 95 E. 86

57. What is the difference between the number of male players participating in hockey and the number of female players participating in lawn tennis?

A. 92 B. 9 C. 102 D. 108 E. None of these

58. If due to certain reason cricket game was dropped and all the cricket players left the tournament, then what would be the total number of male players in the tournament?

A. 200 B. 210 C. 190 D. 220 E. None of these

59. What is the ratio of the number of male players participating in badminton to the number of female players participating in hockey?

A. 3:11 B. 3:10 C. 6:11 D. 11:6 E. None of these

60. What is the total number of female players participating in the tournament?

A. 130 B. 120 C. 145 D. 155 E. None of these

Directions Q (61 - 65): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
61. What is the average number of female teachers in all the Universities together?

A. 100 B. 105 C. 108 D. 106 E. None of these

62. What is the total number of non PhD male teachers from University A and C together?

A. 137 B. 208 C. 145 D. 218 E. None of these

63. What is the respective ratio of the non-PhD male teachers from University D to the non-Ph.D. female teachers from the same University?

A. 7:1 B. 13 : 4 C. 9:5 D. 16:13 E. None of these

64. What is the difference between the number of female PhD teachers from University E and male non-PhD teachers from the same University?

A. 165 B. 52 C. 158 D. 75 E. None of these

65. The number of PhD teachers in University B (Both males and females) is approximately what per cent of the total number of teachers in the University (Both males and females)?

A. 54 B. 68 C. 64 D. 52 E. 58

Directions Q (61 - 65): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of People Working in Various Departments of Two Different Organizations
66. What is the respective ratio of the number of people working in the IT department of organization A and the number of people working in the Marketing department of organization B ?

A. 9 : 2 B. 7 : 5 C. 5 : 7 D. 3 : 7 E. None of these

67. The number of people working in legal department of organization A is approximately what per cent of the total number of people working in that organization?

A. 5 B. 8 C. 3 D. 10 E. 12

68. What is the total number of people working in organization B?

A. 1755 B. 1525 C. 1675 D. 1500 E. None of these

69. What is the difference between the number of people working in HR, Legal and Marketing departments of organization A and the number of people working in Accounts, Export and IT department of organization B ?

A. 150 B. 225 C. 375 D. 300 E. None of these

70. If 20% more than the existing number of people in the Exports department of organization B, join the department, what will be the total number of people working in the Exports department of both the organizations (A and B) together?

A. 715 B. 745 C. 700 D. 675 E. None of these

Directions Q (71 - 75): Study the tables of the Indian foreign trade given below to answer the questions :
71. The three commodities which had highest export growth rate in the year 2013-14 as compared to the previous year, arranged in descending order of growth rates are?

A. petroleum products, ores and minerals, engineering goods B. ores and minerals, gems and jewelry, chemicals and related products C. gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products, agriculture and allied products D. ores and minerals, chemicals and related products, agriculture and allied products E. ores and minerals, engineering goods, chemicals and related products

72. In the year 2014-15, the commodity which witnessed maximum growth in exports (in Indian Rupees) as compared to the year 2013-14 is?

A. petroleum products B. project goods C. ores and minerals D. sports goods E. None of these

73. In the two years, period from 2013-14 to 2014-15, the average growth in import (in Indian Rupees) of which commodity to India was maximum?

A. Bulk imports B. Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones C. Machinery D. Project goods E. Others

74. Growth of trade imbalance (exports less imports) in dollar terms in the year 2014-15 as compared to the previous year was?

A. 39.77 B. 41.85 C. 91.24 D. 95.98 E. None of these

75. Given that the weight (%) Petroleum crude and products in the total imports of India is 26.70, 27.87, and 30.87 in the years 2012-13, 2013-14, and 2014-15 respectively. What is the ratio of yearly difference in the export of petroleum products and import of petroleum crude and products, in dollar terms, in the year 2014-15 versus 2013-14?

A. 1.36 B. 1.38 C. 1.46 D. 1.48 E. None of these

76. The average age of a family of five members is 24. If the present age of the youngest member is 8 years, what was the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?

A. 20 Years B. 16 Years C. 12 years D. 18 years E. 21 years

77. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 35% marks to pass. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 30 marks. What would be the maximum marks of test?

A. 280 B. 180 C. 200 D. 150 E. 210

78. The length of a rectangular floor is twice its breadth. If Rs. 256 is required to paint the floor at the rate of Rs. 2 per square meter, then what would be the length of floor?

A. 16 meters B. 8 meters C. 12 meters D. 32 meters E. 20 meters

79. Angle ‘A’ of a quadrilateral ABCD is 26° less than angle B. Angle B is twice angle C and angle C is 10° more than angle D. What would be the measure of angle A?

A. 104° B. 126° C. 56° D. 132° E. 106°

80. A man walked at a speed of 4 km/hr from point A to B and came back from point B to A at the speed of 6 km/hr. What would be the ratio of the time taken by the main in walking from point A to B that from point B to A?

A. 5 : 3 B. 2 : 3 C. 2 : 1 D. 4 : 3 E. 3 :2

Solution: For Q(46-115)
Q46:
Answer: Option D
Q47:
Answer: Option C
Q48:
Answer: Option C
Q49:
Answer: Option A
Q50:
Answer: Option B
Q51:
Answer: Option D
Q52:
Answer: Option C
Q53:
Answer: Option C
Q54:
Answer: Option A
Q55:
Answer: Option A
Q56:
Answer: Option E
Q57:
Answer: Option D
Q58:
Answer: Option A
Q59:
Answer: Option B
Q60:
Answer: Option C
Q61:
Answer: Option D
Q62:
Answer: Option D
Q63:
Answer: Option A
Q64:
Answer: Option E
Q65:
Answer: Option C
Q66:
Answer: Option B
Q67:
Answer: Option A
Q68:
Answer: Option E
Q69:
Answer: Option C
Q70:
Answer: Option B
Q71:
Answer: Option A
Q72:
Answer: Option B
Q73:
Answer: Option D
Q74:
Answer: Option B
Q75:
Answer: Option A
Q76:
Answer: Option A
Q77:
Answer: Option C
Q78:
Answer: Option A
Q79:
Answer: Option E
Q80:
Answer: Option E

Directions Q (81 - 85): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in an one of the parts a, b , c or d. In case of ‘No error’, (e) will be the answer.
81.

A. To hit a man B. when he is down C. is a contemptuous D. thing to do E. No error.

82.

A. The climate on this B. altitude is cool and dry C. but down in the valley D. it is very sultry E. No error

83.

A. Since her mother B. died when she C. was young D. she did lack maternal are E. No error.

84.

A. In 1665 a B. great pestilence caused C. the death of 63000 persons D. in the city of London E. No error.

85.

A. Because of his B. lack of interest in the C. affairs of the society, the members D. decided to depose the president E. No error.

Directions Q (86 - 90): Rearrange the sentences given below in away which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.
A. In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the sombre environs greet the visitor. B. But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine. C. Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine. D. The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer. E But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of Kashmir’s economy. F. The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.
86. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’.

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

87. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one.

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

88. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one.

A. E B. F C. D D. C E. A

89. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one.

A. B B. C C. D D. E E. F

90. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one.

A. F B. E C. D D. B E. A

Directions Q (91 - 99): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
For more than three years, Anna Feng didn’t tell her husband that she had sunk nearly half of their savings into the Shanghai stock market. While he thought all their money was safely sitting in a bank, the value of the stocks plunged by almost 75%.
But over the past couple of months, the Shanghai market has shown signs of life, and Feng, a 56-year-old retiree, has recouped half her losses. She’s quietly hopeful that may be she’ll make it all back. “Everyone seems to be so optimistic about the markets now,” she says.
Around the world, stocks have been on a tear. In Asia, for example, the Tokyo TOPIX stock index hit a 14-year high last week as a bull run in once-dormant Japan gathered momentum; Mumbai’s main equity index hit an all-time high in trading early Friday amid India’s continuing economic boom; and Hong Kong shares reached a five-year high while indices in Singapore, Jakarta and Sydney set new records. And though stock in Asia, in particular, are on fire, they are not alone. From Germany to Venezuela to South Africa, equity markets in both mature and emerging markets have moved up sharply this year— and show little sign of slowing.
The underpinning for stocks' strong performance, global bulls say, is straight-forward. Economic growth continues to be strong in places where it has been buoyant for several years (the U.S., China and India) and is finally picking up in places where it had been notably absent—Japan and parts of “old” Europe.
Moreover, earning and corporate balance sheets around the world are as healthy as they have been in years. In Japan, corporate profits have climbed for four straight years and consumer spending is rising briskly on the back of declining unemployment. Economists say that Japan is now in a golden cycle. So, for now, is much of the world. “It comes down to very simple macroeconomics.” says Subir Gokam, an economist at CRISIL, India's largest credit-rating firm. “The global economy is growing without much inflationary pressure.”
Is anything wrong with this picture? One very big thing, warn the skeptics. Interest rates are rising nearly everywhere, and if there is one simple adage that many investment advisers live by, It's this: “When rates are high, stocks will die.” Indeed, one of the most impressive—or scariest— aspects of the current global bull run is that it has come in the teeth of central- bank tightening, most importantly by the U.S. Federal Reserve, which could slow growth in the world’s key economic locomotive. The Fed has increased key short-term interest rate—the so-called Fed funds rate—15 times dating back to June 2004, and is widely expected to raise it one or twice more over the next few months. A brief recession and the Sept. 11 terrorist attacks in 2001 spurred a prolonged period of very low interst rates. That boosted U.S. consumption—in particular the rate sensitive housing market— and kept the global economy humming. But long-term rates are now beginning to tick upward: last week the U.S. 30- year treasury bond reached 5.04% its highest level since late 2004, and the housing market is cooling off—potentially triggering an economic slowdown as homeowners cut their spending.
91. According to the passage, what makes people hopeful about the markets.

A. The descent in the value of stocks B. The trend of substantial increase in value of stocks C. Safety provided by banks to their deposits D. Optimism of the stock market players E. The interest rates are going up

92. Which of the following is TRUE about the comparison between market indices of Mumbai and Hong Kong on the one hand and Singapore, Jakarta and Sydney on the other? .

A. The indices in the former case are increasing while those in the latter are decreasing B. There is no rerqarkable trend visible between the two sets of indices C. Indices in both the groups of exercises are stable over a period of last five years D. The markets in both the groupd of countries have shown upward trend E. None of these

93. What is the impact of increasing long term interest rates.
(A) Demand in housing market is gradually diminishing. (B) Retardation in economic growth. (C) Restrictions imposed by central bank.

A. (A) only (B) only B.(C) and (B) only C. (C) only D. (A) & (C) only E. None of these

94. In what way did the terrorist attack in the US influence the markets ? .

A. It led to a brief recession B. It increased long term need for housing C. It helped increase the interest rates on housing D. It prolonged the low interest rate regime E. None of these

95. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for the statement that ‘Japan is now in golden cycle’ ?.
(A) It is an economic growth without much inflationary pressure. (B) Japan witnessed a substantial increase in corporate profits for the last four years. (C) There are more employment avenues open and consumer’s spending has increased significantly.

A. All the three-(A), (B) and (C) B. (A) and (B) only C. Either (B) or (C) only D. (A) and (C) only E. Either (A) or (C) only

Directions Q (96 - 97): Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?
96. Briskly.

A. vigorously B. efficiently C. hurriedly D. insignificantly E. slowly

97. Boosted.

A. aggravated B. elevated C. deflated D. damaged E. stopped

Directions Q (98 - 99): Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage?
98. Buoyant.

A. drawing B. haphazard C. upbeat D. extravagant E. sailing

99. Spurred.

A. shortened B. widened C. thronged D. stimulated E. escalated

Directions Q (100 - 104): In each of the following sentences there are two blanks spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.
100. More is ................. of conditions of the tribals in Maharashtra than ................. conditions of those in the other parts of the country..

A. certain, the B. known, of C. aware, of D. favorable, those E. uncertain. all

101. Although ................. is not a very desirable feeling, we need a certain amount of it to .......................... well.

A. anxiety, exist B. grief, enjoy C. impatience, preach D. anger, define E. jealousy, bad

102. Although he is a ................. person, he occasionally loses his ................. ..

A. quiet, power B. cheerful, grief C. balanced, temper D. thoughtful, anxiety E. generous, wealth

103. In a ................. tone, the leader made a powerful ................. to the mob.

A. realistic, zeal B. lower, conviction C. loud, argument D. soft, appeal E. pitch, statement

104. The tunnel was so ................. and congested, that we became ................. .

A. long, enthusiastic B. deep, cautious C. dark, frightened D. crowded, isolated E. sharp, worried

Directions Q (105 - 114): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words, are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Most of us are (105) of open conflict and avoid it if we can. And there is a (106) to expressing and working through conflict. If the working through involves harsh words and name-calling people feel deeply hurt and relationships can be (107). Sometimes permanently. Some group members may be afraid that if they really (108) their anger, they may go out of control and become Violent, or they may do this. These fears can be very (109) and based on experience. So why take the risk ? Why not avoid conflict at all costs ? Conflict is rather like disease (110) is best, that means attending to areas where (111) may occur before they become an issue. If you have not (112) a conflict happening, your next choice is to treat it early, 93. or hope that it goes away. If it goes away over time fine. If it (113). then you will still have to handle (treat) it and it is likely to be more (114).
105.

A.. scared B. careful C. reckless D. aware E. worried

106.

A. challenge B. measure C. principle D. chance E. risk

107.

A. established B. maligned C. damaged D. rebuilt E. involved

108.

A. sublimate B. express C. minimize D. regulate E. control

109.

A. baseless B. imaginary C. exaggerative D. real E. national

110.

A. cure B. diagnosis C. prescription D. prevention E. medicine

111.

A. harmony B. discomfiture C. disagreement D. consensus E. statement

112.

A. expressed B. ignored C. induced D. seen E. perverted

113.

A. doesn’t B. won’t C. don’t D. not E. hasn’t

114.

A. credible B. serious C. fraudulent D. urgent E. skilled

Directions Q (115): In each of the given sentences, select the sentence which would either follow or precede the given sentence in grammatically and conceptually appropriate manner. The instruction is given at the end of every statement.
115. Unfortunately, however, these slum dwellers are looked upon by the society as an appendix causing ills in the urban society. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence?

A. Health officials have been warning the government against the transmission of contagious diseases from the slum areas to other parts of the city. B. Slum dwellers not only play a significant role in urban economy but also provide cheap labor for everyday work of the cities. C. A recent report suggested that 34 per cent of government land is illegally occupied by the slum dwellers. D. The slum dwellers live in sub-human, unhygienic conditions in their tiny shanties and are very often hubs for criminal activities. E. None of these

Solution: For Q(81-115)
Q81:
Answer: Option E
Q82:
Answer: Option A
Q83:
Answer: Option D
Q84:
Answer: Option E
Q85:
Answer: Option E
Q86:
Answer: Option D
Q87:
Answer: Option E
Q88:
Answer: Option B
Q89:
Answer: Option B
Q90:
Answer: Option D
Q91:
Answer: Option B
Q92:
Answer: Option D
Q93:
Answer: Option E
Q94:
Answer: Option D
Q95:
Answer: Option C
Q96:
Answer: Option E
Q97:
Answer: Option D
Q98:
Answer: Option C
Q99:
Answer: Option D
Q100:
Answer: Option B
Q101:
Answer: Option B
Q102:
Answer: Option C
Q103:
Answer: Option D
Q104:
Answer: Option C
Q105:
Answer: Option A
Q106:
Answer: Option E
Q107:
Answer: Option C
Q108:
Answer: Option B
Q109:
Answer: Option D
Q110:
Answer: Option D
Q111:
Answer: Option B
Q112:
Answer: Option B
Q113:
Answer: Option A
Q114:
Answer: Option B
Q115:
Answer: Option B

116. The Reserve Bank of India takes which of the following measures when it intends to ease the liquidity crunch in the country.?
A) It prints and supplies additional currency notes in the market. (B) It takes steps to increase the flow of foreign direct investment. (C) It reduces Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).

A. Only (A) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (A) and (B) E.. All (A), (B) and (C)

117. We often come across the term SWIFT in financial newspapers. What is the expanded form of this term?

A. Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication B. Secure Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication. C. Society for Worldwide Intra-bank Financial Transaction. D. Security for Worldwide Interbank Financial Transaction E. None of these

118. Indian companies are allowed to arrange funds from sources abroad through which of the following means?
(A) External Commercial Borrowings (B) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (C) Preference Shares

A. Only (A) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (A) and (B) E. All (A), (B) and (C)

119. The purpose(s) of public distribution system (PDS) is/are
(A) to control the open market prices of various goods. (B) to provide competitive prices to the produce of farmers (C) to provide food grain and other essential goods to people of weaker sections

A. Only (A) B. Only C C. Only (C) D. Only (A) and (C) E. All (A), (B) and (C)

120. RBI constituted an expert committee for examining its current monetary policy framework. Who is the chairman of the committee

A. Dr. Urjit Patel B. H R Khan C. Dr Anand Sinha D. K C Chakrabarty E. None of these

121. Who was the first chairperson and managing director of public sector Bharatiya Mahila Bank (BMB

A. Shilpa Phadnis B. Usha Anantha Subramanian C. Reeba Zachariah D. Sudha Misra E. None of these

122. Who is the author of the recently published book Durbar?

A. Amitav Ghosh B. Tavleen Singh C. Amit Chaudhuri D. Arundhati Roy E. None of these

123. Which of the following rates is/are NOT decided by RBI?

A. Bank Rate B. Repo rate C. Prime Lending Rate D. Cash Reserve Ratio E. None of these

124. Consider the following types of loans. ?
(A) Home loans (B) Personal loans (C) Reverse Mortgage loans (D) Crop loans Teaser Rates are associated with which of the above mentioned types of loans?

A. Only (A) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (A) and (B) E. Only (C) and (D)

125. Foreign Exchange Reserves of India are kept in the custody of which of the following. ?

A. State Bank of India B. Reserve Bank of India C. Government Treasury D. International Monetary Fund E. Indian Bank Association

126. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) is an autonomous apex statutory body which regulates and develops the insurance industry in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct about IRDA?

A. It was constituted by a Parliament of India act called Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 B. The agency operates from its headquarters at Hyderabad in Andhra Pradesh where it shifted from Delhi in 2001. C. It works to bring about speedy and orderly growth of the insurance industry, protect the interest of policyholders and put in place effective grievance redressal machinery. D. Only (a) and (b) E. All (a), (b) and (c)

127. The abbreviation IRDA stands for?

A. Industrial Research and Development Authority of India B. Insurance Research and Development Authority of India C. Insurance Regulation Development Authority of India D. Industrial Research and Demands Agency E. None of these

128. We read a term 'ECB' in the financial newspapers. What is the full form of ECB?

A. Essential Credit and Borrowing B. Essential Commercial Borrowing C. External Credit and Business D. External Commercial Borrowing E. None of these

129. Which is known as the ‘Land of the Midnight Sun’?

A. Japan B. Norway C. Newzealand D. Finland E None of these

130. Which of the following Acts help Union government to control its fiscal deficit?

A. Banking Companies Act B. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act C. Finance Act D. Both (a) and (b) E. None of these

131. Article 370, which is one of the temporary, transitional and special provisions in the constitution of India is enshrined in which among the following parts of Indian Constitution?

A. Part XV B. Part XVII C. Part XXI D. Part XXII E. None of these

132. Section 20 of the Banking Regulation Act, prohibits a bank from granting any advance against the security of?

A. its own shares B. partly paid shares C. personal guarantee of directors and managers D. guarantee of other banks E. None of these

133. The paid up share capital of Regional Rural Bank is contributed by ?

A. Nationalized bank B. NABARD C. Central Government D. Central Government, State Government and the Sponsoring Commercial Bank in the ratio of 50 : 15 : 35 respectively E Reserve Bank of India

134. Regional Rural Banks are managed by?

A. Reserve Bank of India B. a board of directors C. the sponsor bank D. the State Government E. None of these

135. Deposits with Regional Rural Banks are insured by ?

A. Life Insurance Corporation of India B. General Insurance corporation C. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation D. All of the above E None of these

136. For opening a new branch, a Regional Rural Bank requires ?

A. permission of NABARD B. permission of Director, Institutional Finance C. approval of SIDBI D. RBI license E. approval of DRDA

137. Regional Rural Banks are classified as ?

A. scheduled commercial banks B. subsidiaries of the sponsor banks C. subsidiaries of NABARD D. All of the above E. None of these

138. Regional Rural Banks ?

A. can issue guarantees against 100% cash margin or 50% cash margin plus collateral B. have been freed from Service Area Approach. They can operate in the entire area of their Jurisdiction. Commercial banks will take over the villages allotted to RRBs under SAA C. are permitted to open Extension Counters at the premises of the borrowers, if they are the principal banker to the borrower D. All of the above E None of these

139. The Regulatory Authority for Regional Rural Banks is?

A. Sponsor bank B. Central Government C. State Government D. RBI and NABARD E. IDBI

140. The short and medium term co-operative credit structure in our country is federal in character consists of three tiers viz?

A. The State co-operative banks at the State level, the Central co-operative banks at the district level and primary co-operative banks at the district level and primary co-operative credit societies at the village level B. the State co-operative banks in the State, NABARD and RBI C. primary credit co-operative societies at the grass root level, district co-operative bank at district level and NABARD at All-India level D. All of the above E. None of these

141. Central co-operative banks?

A. occupy a crucial importance in the co-operative credit structure B. form an important link between the State co-operative bank at the apex and the primary agricultural credit societies at the base C. are closer to the primary societies than an apex bank could be D. All of the above E. None of these

142. The primary function of a central co-operative bank is to?

A. mobilise the resources in the district for financing its members to the maximum extent possible B. to channelize the flow of funds from the State co- operative banks C. Both of the above D. All of the above E. None of these

143. Regional Rural Banks are managed by?

A. Reserve Bank of India B. a board of directors C. the sponsor bank D. the State Government E. Central Government

144. The long-term co-operative credit structure consists of two tiers only viz.,?

A. Central land mortgage banks at State level and primary land mortgage banks at the district level B. State land mortgage banks at the State level and NABARD at All-India level C. Regional Rural Banks at the district level and NABARD at the central level D. All of the above E. None of these

145. Co-operation as a form of economic activity was formally recognized in India in the year 1904 when?

A. Mahatma Gandhi inaugurated the first Indian co-operative bank B. when the first Co-operative Societies Act was passed C. when the first co-operative bank was established in Bombay D. All of the above E. None of these

146. The first Union budget of independent India was presented by?

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru B. Vallabh Bhai Patel C. R. K. Shanmukham Chetty D. Morarji Ranchhodji Desailn E. None of these

147. Which of the following statements does the term Finance incorporates?

A. The study of money and other assets B. The management and control of those assets C. The science of managing money D. All of the above E. None of these

148. Which term is used for "Money which is used to purchase assets that will remain permanently in the business and help it to make a profit"?

A. Fixed Capital B. Working Capital C. Capital Budget D. Cash Budget E. None of these

149. What is the name of the proposed long-distance superfast train, which will be introduced for unreserved passengers?

A. Anandoya Express B. Antyodaya Express C. Anand Express D. All of the above E. None of these

150. In the Rail Budget 2016-2017, Suresh Prabhu announced the introduction of a service named Sarthi Seva for senior citizens. The service will be first introduced in which Indian Railways Zone?

A. Southern Railway B. Northern Railway C. Konkan Railway D. North Central Railway E. None of these

151. Which of the following statements is wrong about the Rail Budget 2016-2017?

A. Introduction of Humsafar trains for senior citizens B. Coolies will be called Sahayaks C. All new Railway stations to be built as per Accessible India guidelines D. The cleaning of toilets will be requested through SMS E. None of these

152. As per the Union Budget 2016-2017, what is the amount allocated for the Swachch Bharat Abhiyan?

A. 10,000 crore rupees B. 9,000 crore rupees C. 11,000 crore rupees D. 6,000 crore rupees E. None of these

153. The Union Budget 2016-2017 saw the highest ever amount allocated for the rural employment scheme MNREGA. What is that amount?

A. 40,000 crore rupees B. 50,500 crore rupees C. 38,500 crore rupees D. 39,500 crore rupees E. None of these

154. India's first IT co-operative UL CyberPark has been set up in which state?

A. Kerala B. Gujarat C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu E. None of these

155. What is the maximum speed of the India's first semi high- speed train "Gatimaan Express"?

A. 160 kmph B. 170 kmph C. 180 kmph D. 190 kmph E. None of these

Solution: For Q(116-155)
Q116:
Answer: Option C
Q117:
Answer: Option A
Q118:
Answer: Option E
Q119:
Answer: Option C
Q120:
Answer: Option A
Q121:
Answer: Option B
Q122:
Answer: Option B
Q123:
Answer: Option C
Q124:
Answer: Option A
Q125:
Answer: Option B
Q126:
Answer: Option E
Q127:
Answer: Option C
Q128:
Answer: Option D
Q129:
Answer: Option C
Q130:
Answer: Option B
Q131:
Answer: Option C
Q132:
Answer: Option A
Q133:
Answer: Option D
Q134:
Answer: Option C
Q135:
Answer: Option C
Q136:
Answer: Option D
Q137:
Answer: Option A
Q138:
Answer: Option D
Q139:
Answer: Option D
Q140:
Answer: Option A
Q141:
Answer: Option D
Q142:
Answer: Option D
Q143:
Answer: Option B
Q144:
Answer: Option A
Q145:
Answer: Option B
Q146:
Answer: Option C
Q147:
Answer: Option D
Q148:
Answer: Option A
Q149:
Answer: Option B
Q150:
Answer: Option C
Q151:
Answer: Option A
Q152:
Answer: Option B
Q153:
Answer: Option C
Q154:
Answer: Option A
Q155:
Answer: Option A