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IBPS SO LO RA Prelims Practice Test

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IBPS SO LO RA Prelims Practice Test

shape Introduction

Preliminary Examination is important to qualify for the Main Examination. IBPS SO LO RA Prelims Practice & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

IBPS SO Law Officer (LO) & Rajbhasha Adhikari (RA) Prelims - Exam Pattern:
SL Name of Test Number of Questions Maximum Marks Medium of Exam Duration
1 English language 50 25 English 40 minutes
2 Reasoning ability 50 50 English and Hindi 40 minutes
3 General Awareness with Special Reference to Banking Industry 50 50 English and Hindi 40 minutes
Total 150 125

shape Syllabus

English Language Reasoning Ability General Awareness
✦ Cloze Test ✦ Reading Comprehension ✦ Spotting Errors ✦ Sentence Improvement/ Sentence Correction ✦ Para Jumbles ✦ Fill in the Blanks ✦ Para/ Sentence Completion ✦ Seating Arrangements ✦ Puzzles ✦ Inequalities ✦ Syllogism ✦ Input-Output ✦ Data Sufficiency ✦ Blood Relations ✦ Order and Ranking ✦ Alphanumeric Series ✦ Distance and Direction ✦ Verbal Reasoning ✦ Current Affairs ✦ Banking Awareness ✦ GK Updates ✦ Currencies ✦ Important Places ✦ Books and Authors ✦ Awards ✦ Headquarters ✦ Prime Minister Schemes ✦ Important Days

shape Samples

Cloze Set:
Directions (1-15): In the passage given below there are blanks which are numbered from 1 to 15. They are to be filled with the options given below the passage against each of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence without altering its meaning.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to ___1___ Rs. 36,000 through open market purchase of bonds in October as liquidity has tightened ___2___ to an uptick in loan demand in the festive season.“Based ___3___ an assessment of the durable liquidity needs going forward and the seasonal growth in currency in circulation ___4___ in build-up to the festive season, RBI has decided to conduct purchase of Government securities under Open Market Operations (OMOs) for an ___5___ amount of Rs. 360 billion in the month of October, 2018,” RBI said adding that the auctions would be ___6___ during the second, third and fourth week of October. Last week, RBI had reassured the financial markets that it stands ready to ___7___ the liquidity requirements of the system. “The OMO amount stated above is indicative and RBI retains the ___8___ to change it, depending on the evolving liquidity and market conditions,” the central bank said. Market participants said more liquidity infusion is required to ___9___ the cash deficit. “While the recent event-based squeeze ___10___ money market liquidity has been in focus, overall liquidity was ___11___ to remain tight in FY2019, especially given the FOREX reserves depletion,” Kotak Securities said in a note to its clients. “We ___12___ the RBI to do OMO purchase of around Rs. 1.5-2.0 trillion to alleviate the stress. However, it is unlikely to completely offset the liquidity tightness ___13___ that the short-term rates would still likely remain elevated,” the note added. The yield on 10-year benchmark government bonds fell three basis points to end the day at 7.99%. Kotak Securities has ___14___ its call that benchmark 10-year yield will be in a broad range ___15___ 7.75-8.25% for the second half of the current financial year.
1.
    A. propagate B. induce C. loan D. infuse E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Infuse, in monetary terms, means adding money into something (company/organisation, business etc) to make it stronger and better. Hence, option (D) is the correct answer choice here.
2.
    A. owing B. up C. somewhat D. because E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The phrase ‘owing to’ means ‘because of’. Hence, in the given question, option (A) fits-in grammatically as well as contextually.
3.
    A. to B. from C. on D. as E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The passage says that the RBI has decided to conduct purchase of Government securities under Open Market Operations (OMOs) as per the assessment of durable liquidity needs going forward and other things.
Hence, here the correct answer choice is ‘on’ because in such a sentence, ‘based’ is always followed by ‘on’.
4.
    A. observed B. and C. performed D. released E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The given part of the passage talks about the reasons behind RBI deciding to purchase government securities under the OMOs and ‘observed’ fits-in most appropriately here among all other options.
5.
    A. uptick B. aggregate C. asset D. huge E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Aggregate means - formed or calculated by the combination of several separate elements; total. Also, all other options are out of context. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer choice here.
6.
    A. released B. hold C. organizing D. conducted E. have
Answer: Option D
Explanation: ‘Would be’ takes past participle form of the verb with it. Of all the options given, only ‘conducted’ is in the required form and it also fits-in contextually. Hence, (D) is the correct answer choice.
7.
    A. tackled B. see C. meet D. All of these E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: In the given question, option (A) is grammatically incorrect and option (B) is out of context, while (C) is both, grammatically as well as contextually correct. Hence, ‘meet’ is the correct answer here.
8.
    A. flexibility B. governor C. order D. excess E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Flexibility means the ability to be easily modified. The given statement states that the RBI retains the ability to modify the OMO amount. Hence (A) is the correct answer here.
9.
    A. refer B. effect C. address D. attract E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Address means (to) think about and begin to deal with an issue or problem. The given statement talks about dealing the cash deficit problem. Hence, (C) is the correct answer choice here.
10.
    A. by B. in C. of D. at E. on
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Squeeze means a strong financial demand or pressure;
The current statement is about the even based demand of money and the consequent contraction in the liquidity of the money.
11.
    A. owing B. due C. schedule D. thought E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Other than the usual meaning, due also means expected at or planned for at a certain time. Hence, option (B) is the appropriate answer choice here.
12.
    A. urges B. retract C. released D. expect E. predicts
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Here, of all the options, only option (D) is grammatically as well as contextually correct.
13.
    A. None of these B. as C. realizing D. hope E. implying
Answer: Option E
Explanation: The given statement tells that according to the note issued by Kotak securities, the OMO purchase by the RBI are unlikely to completely offset the liquidity tightness, suggesting that the short-term rates would still likely remain high. Hence, ‘implying’ is the correct answer choice here. Implying is synonymous with ‘suggesting’.
14.
    A. declare B. complied C. maintained D. showed E. shown
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Here, of all options, (B) (C) and (E) fit-in grammatically. But, (B) and (E) are completely out of the context of the passage and would render the sentence meaningless if used; whereas ‘maintained’ makes the sentence meaningful as well as grammatically correct.
15.
    A. from B. in C. between D. among E. of
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Here, only option (E) is grammatically and contextually correct. Also, in conjunction, ‘from’ requires ‘to to make a sentence meaningful – for example ‘from 7.75 % to 8.25%. Similarly, ‘between’ requires ‘and’. Whereas, ‘range’ do not require any other word to make a sentence meaningful and correct.
Hence, ‘..be in a broad range of 7.75-8.25% for the second half of the current financial year’ is the correct answer.
Reading Comprehension:
Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the respective questions given below each of them. Certain words/phrases/sentences/Blanks have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Back in the fifteenth century, in a tiny village near Nuremberg, lived a family with eighteen children. Eighteen! In order merely to keep food on the table for his big family, the father, a goldsmith by profession, worked almost eighteen hours a day at his shop and any other paying work he could find in the ____A____. Despite their seemingly hopeless condition, two of the eldest children had a dream. They both wanted to pursue their talent for art, but they knew well that their father would never be financially able to send either of them to Nuremberg to study at the academy.
After many long discussions at night in their crowded family bed, the two boys finally worked out a pact. (1) They would toss a coin. The loser would go down into the nearby mines and with his earnings, support his brother while he attended the academy. The winner of the toss will attend the academy first and complete his study. Once the first winner of the toss completes his study, he will help the other brother to attend the academy and support him financially by selling arts or working at the mines, if necessary.
They tossed a coin on a Sunday morning after church. Albrecht Durer, one of the brothers won the toss and went off to Nuremberg. Albert, the other brother went to work at the mines and for the next four years, financed his brother, whose work at the academy was almost an immediate sensation. Albrecht’s etchings, his woodcuts, and his oils were far better than most of his professors. By the time he graduated, he was beginning to earn considerable fees for his commissioned works.
When the young artist returned to his village, the Durer family held a festive dinner on their lawn to celebrate Albrecht’s triumphant homecoming. After a long and memorable meal, punctuated with music and laughter, Albrecht rose from his honored position at the head of the table to drink a toast to his beloved brother for the years of sacrifice that had enabled Albrecht to fulfill his ambition. His closing words were, “And now, Albert, blessed brother of mine, now it is your turn. Now you can go to Nuremberg to pursue your dream and I will take care of you.” All heads turned in eager expectation to the far end of the table where Albert sat, (2) tears streaming down his pale face, shaking his lowered head from side to side while he sobbed.
Finally, Albert rose and wiped the tears from his cheeks. He glanced down the long table at the faces he loved, and then, holding his hands close to his right cheek, he said softly, “No, brother. I cannot go to Nuremberg. It is too late for me. Look what four years in the mines have done to my hands! The bones in every finger have been smashed at least once, and lately, I have been suffering from arthritis so badly in my right hand that I cannot even hold a glass to return your toast, much less make delicate lines on parchment or canvas with a pen or a brush. My brother, for me, it is too late.”
More than 450 years have passed by today. By now, Albrecht Durer’s hundreds of masterful portraits, pen and silver-point sketches, watercolors, charcoals, woodcuts, and copper engravings hang in every great museum in the world, but the odds are great that you, like most people, are familiar with only one of Albrecht Durer’s works. More than merely being familiar with it, you very well may have a reproduction hanging in your home or office.
One day, to pay homage to Albert for all that he had sacrificed, Albrecht Durer painstakingly drew his brother’s abused hands with palms together and thin fingers stretched skyward. He called his powerful drawing simply “Hands,” but the entire world almost immediately opened their hearts to his great masterpiece and renamed his tribute of love “The Praying Hands.”
1. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word SENSATION given in the passage above? .
    A. Big B. Excitement C. Huge D. Serious E. Small
Answer: Option B
Explanation: SENSATION - A widespread reaction of interest and excitement.
2. In the above passage, a line (1) is given in BOLD. Which of the following can be inferred from it?
    A. The two boys had long discussion with their father before deciding who will go to Nuremberg. B. Albert decided that he will sacrifice his dream for his brother Albrecht. C. Albert was the elder of the two brothers. D. The two boys worked out a plan to decide by tossing a coin. E. There were a lot of members in the family of the two boys.
Answer: Option E
Explanation: As the BOLD statement mentions ‘crowded family bed’, so it is very clear that there are a lot family members in the family of the two boys.
3. According to the above passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Albert was the elder brother of Albrecht. B. Albrecht named the painting of his brother’s hands, “The Praying Hands”. C. The father of the Durer brothers worked in a mine. D. The story told in the above passage is about 4.5 centuries old. E. None of the above is true.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The first line of 6th paragraph clearly mentions that the story told is 450 years old.
4. Why could Albert not attend the academy with Albrecht?
    A. Because Albert was not talented enough to get admission in the academy in Nuremberg. B. Because his father did not have enough money to send him to Nuremberg. C. Because he had lost the toss which decided who of the two brothers will go to Nuremberg. D. Because Albrecht cheated on him. E. Because one of the two brothers had to stay back home to take care of their ailing mother.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The second para describes that the two brothers had decided to toss a coin in order to decide who of them would go to Nuremberg, and Albert had lost that toss.
5. In the passage above, a blank A has been given. Which of the following words fill the blank most accurately, grammatically as well as contextually?
    A. Neighborhood B. Berlin C. Slum D. France E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Neighborhood fits perfectly in the given blank and maintains the continuity of the sentence.
6. Which of the following best describes the moral of the story mentioned in the above passage?
    A. One must always remember and acknowledge the contribution and sacrifice of others in one’s success. B. If someone has made sacrifices for your success then you must repay by making a painting. C. One who seizes the right opportunity at the right time succeeds in life. D. You win some and lose some in life. E. All of the above.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Of all the options, option (A) very vividly put out the moral of the story told in the passage. One must always remember and acknowledge the contribution and sacrifice of others in one’s success, just like Albrecht paid homage to Albert’s sacrifices.
7. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to the above passage?
    A. Albrecht went to Nuremberg to pursue his talent. B. Albert damaged his hands while working in the mines. C. Albrecht’s work was an instant sensation. D. Albert refused to go to Nuremberg to pursue his dream. E. Albrecht’s father cried of happiness to see his success.
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Sentence (E) is FALSE here. Nowhere in the passage has this been mentioned, whereas, all other statements are clearly mentioned in the passage.
8. In the above passage, a line (2) is given in BOLD. Which of the following can be inferred from it?
    A. All the ladies sitting their turned towards Albert. B. Albert sat on the far end of the table. C. Albrecht sat on the other end of the table. D. Albert cried at the offer made by Albrecht. E. None of the above can be inferred from the BOLD statements.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The BOLD has clearly mentioned that Albert sat on the far end of the table. Rest all statements cannot be inferred from the BOLD statement itself.
9. Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word PAINSTAKINGLY given in the passage above?
    A. Caring B. Attentively C. Enjoyable D. Carelessly E. Hateful
Answer: Option D
Explanation: PAINSTAKINGLY - with great care and thoroughness. Hence, CARELESSLY is opposite in meaning to painstakingly.
Spotting Errors:
Directions (1 - 10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
1.
    A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly B. On the eve of the examination C. That I found it very easy to work it out. D. No error.
Answer: Option A
2.
    A. I could not put up in a hotel B. Because the boarding and lodging charges C. Were exorbitant. D. No error.
Answer: Option A
3.
    A. One of the members B. Expressed doubt if C. The Minister was an atheist. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
4.
    A. If you lend him a book B. He will lend it to someone else C. And never will you get it back. D. No error.
Answer: Option C
5.
    A. Block of Residential flats B. Are coming up C. Near our house. D. No error
Answer: Option A
6.
    A. The students were B. Awaiting for C. The arrival of the chief guest. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
7.
    A. Sixty miles B. Are C. A good distance. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
8.
    A. When the dentist came in B. My tooth was stopped aching C. Out of fear that I might lose my tooth. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
9.
    A. It is the duty of every citizen to do his utmost B. To defend the hardly-won C. Freedom of the country. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
10.
    A. No sooner did I open the door B. When the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in C. Making us shiver from head to foot D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Directions (11-20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
11.
    A. If a man diligently seeks to come into the contact B. With the best that has been thought and said in this world C. He will become simple and unselfish. D. No error.
Answer: Option A
12.
    A. You must B. Remember me C. To post this letter. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
13.
    A. I shall certainly B. Write you C. When I shall reach New Delhi. D. No error.
Answer: Option C
14.
    A. On the busy Ring Road B. We witnessed a collusion C. Between a truck and an auto. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
15.
    A. Mr Praful Patel B. Is not attending his office C. For the last one month. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
16.
    A. He couldn't but help B. Shedding tears at the plight of the villagers C. Rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone. D. No error.
Answer: Option A
17.
    A. He will certainly help you B. If you will ask him C. In a pleasant manner. D. No error.
Answer: Option B
18.
    A. The brand proposition now therefore had to be that Keokarpin Antiseptic Cream is more effective B. Because it penetrates deep-down (being light and non-sticky) and works from within C. (Because of its ayurvedic ingredients) to keep skin blemish, free and helps cope with cuts nicks, burns and nappy rash. D. No error.
Answer: Option A
19.
    A. Will you please buy B. Some jaggery for me C. If you go to the market? D. No error.
Answer: Option D
20.
    A. Most of the members at the meeting felt B. That the group appointed for investigating the case C. We’re not competent to do the job efficiently. D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Sentence Improvement / Sentence Correction:
Directions (1-10): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold with underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (E) as your choice.
1. The main enterprises (A) of capitalism have always differed (B) in significant respects. In America, for instance, shareholders have a comparatively big say in the running of the varieties (C) they own; workers, who are for the most part only weakly unionized, have much less influence. (D) In many European countries, shareholders have less say and workers more.
    A. A-B B. C-D C. A-C D. B-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The main varieties of capitalism have always differed in significant respects. In America, for instance, shareholders have a comparatively big say in the running of the enterprises they own; workers, who are for the most part only weakly unionized, have much less influence. In many European countries, shareholders have less say and workers more.
2. The Sarkaria Commission did apply itself paramount (A) to the task of examining and reviewing the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States. But it was not given a Carte Blanche. It was asked to have due regard to the scheme and framework (B) of the Constitution which the founding fathers have so sedulously (C)designed to protect the independence and ensure the unity and integrity of the country which is of assiduously (D) importance for promoting the welfare of the people.
    A. A-D B. B-C C. C-D D. A-B E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission did apply itself assiduously to the task of examining and reviewing the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States. But it was not given a Carte Blanche. It was asked to have due regard to the scheme and framework of the Constitution which the founding fathers have so sedulously designed to protect the independence and ensure the unity and integrity of the country which is of paramount importance for promoting the welfare of the people.
3. The riotous scenes in the pathways leading to the Sabarimala temple in Kerala in the last few days ought to persuade everyone, irrespective of where they stand on the Supreme Court’s recent verdict, of the importance of one thing: to keep the peace. There is little to be gained in this surcharged atmosphere in stoking further trouble or using religious sentiment for political purposes.
    A. A-B B. B-C C. A-D D. C-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option E
4. The media of communication (A) which have accelerated (B) the rate of growth and cultural incentive (C) of modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. Printing was introduced by the Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century and diffusion (D) for this was provided by the Christian missionaries.
    A. B-C B. C-D C. A-B D. B-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The media of communication which have accelerated the rate of growth and cultural diffusion of modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. Printing was introduced by the Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century and incentive for this was provided by the Christian missionaries.
5. Power has to be made secure (A) not only against power but also against weakness. And herein lie the greatest force (B) of losing balance. The weak are as dangerous to the strong as quicksand to an elephant. The people who grow accustomed (C) to wild power forget that by doing so they give rise to unseen danger (D) that rends the power to pieces one day.
    A. A-C B. B-C C. C-D D. B-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Power has to be made secure not only against power but also against weakness. And herein lie the greatest danger of losing balance. The weak are as dangerous to the strong as quicksand to an elephant. The people who grow accustomed to wild power forget that by doing so they give rise to unseen force that rends the power to pieces one day.
6. It is a travesty (A) of representative democracy when elected representatives can retain their parliamentary status even after being alienated (B) from the party’s popular (C) base on which they were voted in. In this situation of declining party power, the whip remains one of the few means of restraining errant (D) members.
    A. B-D B. A-C C. B-C D. A-B E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option E
7. Indian society has undergone a tremendous (A) transformation since 1931. Land ownership that stagnation (B) the power of upper castes has lost its hold. Land fragmentation and decades of agricultural bolstered (C) have turned many upper caste landowners into marginal farmers barely eking (D) out a subsistence.
    A. A-B B. C-D C. B-C D. A-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Indian society has undergone a tremendous transformation since 1931. Land ownership that bolstered the power of upper castes has lost its hold. Land fragmentation and decades of agricultural stagnation have turned many upper caste landowners into marginal farmers barely eking out a subsistence.
8. Judiciary has been inching (A) towards allowing passive euthanasia, where the means of prolonging (B) a patient’s life are withdrawn – say by withdrawing ventilator support. But the process remains enmeshed (C) in such a legal imbroglio that ordinary patients can hardly hope to benefit (D) from it.
    A. C-D B. A-B C. A-C D. B-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option E
9. The Narendra Modi government has repeatedly improve (A) its aim to articulated (B) India’s investment climate. The good news is that the government is willing to walk the talk by tweaking (C) administrative rules to eliminate unwarranted government interference (D) in economic activity.
    A. A-B B. B-C C. C-D D. B-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The Narendra Modi government has repeatedly articulated its aim to improve India’s investment climate. The good news is that the government is willing to walk the talk by tweaking administrative rules to eliminate unwarranted government interference in economic activity.
10. Without being altruistic (A) and sacrificing their legitimate (B) economic interests it should be possible for the developed countries of the world to be guided by this cooperation(C) of sharing in the sphere of international spirit (D) in science and technology.
    A. A-B B. B-D C. B-C D. C-D E. sentence is correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Without being altruistic and sacrificing their legitimate economic interests it should be possible for the developed countries of the world to be guided by this spirit of sharing in the sphere of international cooperation in science and technology.
Para Jumbles:
Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answers the questions given below them.
A) While the overall gross value added (GVA) in the third quarter is estimated to have increased by 6.6%, agricultural GVA in the period is projected to have surged 6%, a sharp quickening from the second quarter’s 3.8% pace and in stark contrast with the 2.2% contraction in the earlier year, as the near-normal monsoon in 2016 helped lift kharif crop output substantially.
B) Notably, this expansion occurred in the October-December quarter, when about 86% of the currency in circulation in the form of Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000 notes was abruptly sucked out of the system, potentially resulting in what the Economic Survey termed an “aggregate demand shock” and the Reserve Bank of India referred to as “demand compression associated with adverse wealth effects”.
C) The resilience of India’s economy has been reaffirmed by the latest data, with both the third-quarter and full-year growth estimates belying widespread concerns that the November 8 decision to withdraw high-value currency notes would significantly dampen momentum.
D) While the Central Statistics Office stuck with its January advance estimate for gross domestic product in the 12 months ending March 2017 to post a healthy 7.1% growth, it projected GDP to have expanded 7% in the fiscal third quarter, reflecting only a marginal slowdown from the 7.3% registered in the preceding three-month period.
E) Undergirding this better-than-expected performance were the agriculture, mining and manufacturing sectors and, interestingly, government expenditure.
F) Mining and manufacturing GVA too appear to have done far better than in the preceding quarter, bucking the so-called ‘demonetization drag’ to post 7.5% and 8.3% growth, respectively. Public administration, defence and other services clocked double-digit GVA growth: at 11.9%, a robust acceleration from the 7.5% in the third quarter of 2015-16.
1. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?
    A. F B. E C. D D. A E. B
Answer: Option D
2. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?
    A. B B. A C. D D. F E. C
Answer: Option E
3. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?
    A. E B. C C. F D. A E. B
Answer: Option C
4. Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH after rearrangement?
    A. C B. D C. A D. E E. B
Answer: Option D
5. Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND after rearrangement?
    A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E
Answer: Option D
Directions (6-10): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answers the questions given below them.
(A) This is being done to ensure that when the cess is removed or merged, the flexibility to impose higher rate on luxury goods is not taken away, a senior finance ministry official told ET.
(B) This is only an enabling provision and the highest rate levied on goods will still be 28% (14% central GST and 14% state GST).The demerit and luxury goods will attract higher 28% rate plus cess.
(C) India has decided to peg the peak goods and services tax (GST) rate at40% in the legislation instead of 28%, giving it the flexibility to raise rates without having to reach out to parliament.
(D)”Some members of the council felt such an enabling provision was needed.” the official privy to the development said.
(E) The GST council has proposed to peg the peak tax rate at 40% (20% central GST and 20% state GST) in the model GST law to preclude the requirement of approaching parliament or state assemblies for any change in future.
(F) This enabling provision will also allow the government to remove the cess at some stage and instead have a higher GST rate only, which will make for a neater GST.
6. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?
    A. B B. A C. F D. E
Answer: Option A
7. Which sentence should come before the last?
    A. F B. E C. D D. A
Answer: Option D
8. Which sentence will come complete the passage?
    A. C B. A C. D D. B
Answer: Option C
9. Which sentence will be third after the rearrangement?
    A. F B. E C. D D. B
Answer: Option A
10. Which sentence will start the passage?
    A. E B. C C. D D. B
Answer: Option B
Fill in the Blanks:
Directions (1-10): In questions below, there are two statements, with each statement consisting of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.
1. I. An erstwhile ___________ department in the ministry of commerce, the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), was put in ___________ of this transformation. II. A ___________ driver was arrested yesterday on a drunk driving __________ on the Delhi-Chandigarh Highway.
    A. headstrong, arraign B. lazy, impeach C. inactive, headlong D. slumber, contact E. sleepy, charge
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Option A: Both blanks do not make sense in any of the sentences.
Option B: lazy may have made sense but impeach is incorrect for both the blanks.
Option C: Inactive is a good fit in the first sentence but not in the second sentence. Headlong does not fit in anywhere.
Option D: Both blanks do not fit in anywhere.
Option E: Both blanks are a perfect match with the resulting sentences making sense.
Hence, Option E is correct.
2. I. Economic growth, which had been ___________ down for some time but had been given a boost by strong governance reforms was given a demand boost to facilitate ___________ acceleration. II. Forced __________ is when political parties hire PR agencies which ___________ employ social media ‘influencers’ who release the same tweets with the hashtag at a high intensity.
    A. trending, further B. trading, more C. hover, advance D. shot, progress E. going, reduce
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Option B: Trading is not a good fit in either of the sentences. More is not a good fit in the second blank.
Option C: Hover would have been a good fit but incorrect grammatically. More is a good fit for both. However, this option is incorrect.
Option D: Both blanks do not make any sense.
Option E: Going is a good fit for the first sentence but not second. Reduce is incorrect for both blanks.
Option A: Both are a perfect fit for both sentences.
Hence, Option A is correct.
3. I. India did not have _________ targeting then and so was able to deal with the shocks _________ than many countries. II. _________ remains below targets for many Central Bank; and is generally set to stay that way in the year ahead even though the world economy in general is set to do much _________ in 2018.
    A. consumed, more B. inflation, better C. reduced, enhanced D. deflation, good E. prices, honed
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Option A: Consumed is incorrect for both sentences. More is a misfit for the second sentence.
Option C: Both blanks do not fit in both sentences.
Option D: Deflation may be a good fit but good does not go with either of the blanks.
Option E: Both blanks are absurd.
Option B: Both are a great fit and the resulting sentence meaningful.
Hence, option B is correct.
4. I. U.S. consumer confidence jumped to a near 17-year high in October, with households _________ about the labor market and business _________ , which could underpin consumer spending and boost the economy. II. The services sector was the most _________ about business prospects in over three years with about 9 per cent of firms expecting more favorable business _________ in the October to March period.
    A. downtrodden, environment B. vulnerable, situation C. regular, placid D. upbeat, conditions E. optimism, excellent
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Option A: downtrodden conveys the opposite meaning to the one depicted in the sentences and is incorrect.
Option B: vulnerable does not suit the context of the sentences and this is incorrect.
Option C: placid is absurd in both sentences.
Option D: both blanks are perfect
Option E: both blanks are incorrect for both.
Hence, option D is correct.
5. I. Should quarterly growth _________ and BJP make gains in serial state elections it would salvage lost _________ , indicating a positive shift in perceptions. II. We expect crude oil to _________ to USD 65 per barrel along with commodities standing their _________ against the temporary headwinds.
    A. decline, space B. increase, floor C. rebound, ground D. slip, grip E. depressed, topsy
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Option A: decline is correct for both grammatically but does not agree logically with the sentence. Space is absurd for both.
Option B: Increase is correct for both blanks. But, floor does not make sense in either.
Option C: Both words are a perfect fit.
Option D: Slip is correct grammatically but does not make sense. Also, grip is incorrect in both sentences.
Option E: both words are absurd.
Hence, option C is correct.
6. I. The slow, lumbering, stupid, robotic, virtually behaviourless ________ of my childhood have been replaced by ________, agile, potentially warm blooded, adequately smart and behaviorally complex creatures II. Above all, the SD1 had style. A curvy _________, yet one that was also _________ and elegant, and sold in a range of brave colours - SD1s could be had in mustard, puce, slime and abattoir hues.
    A. leviathan, clumsy B. diminutive, agile C. mammoth, stiff D. wisp, nimble E. behemoth, lithe
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Option E fits in with the context. The various meanings are:
Leviathan: noun - any huge marine animal, as the whale
Sentence: President Obama is wrestling with the leviathan and much more than just his legacy is at stake.
Diminutive: adjective - small; little; tiny.
Sentence: a diminutive building for a model-train layout.
Mammoth: adjective - immensely large; huge; enormous.
Sentence: a mammoth organization.
Wisp: noun - a person or thing that is small, delicate, or barely discernible.
Sentence: A thin man with a wisp of a goatee beard, he struggles with a stutter to explain what happened to him that day.
Nimble: adjective - quick and light in movement; moving with ease; agile; active; rapid.
Sentence: The best politics here is to be principled, nimble, and shrewd.
Agile: adjective - quick and well-coordinated in movement; lithe.
Sentence: He was difficult to chase through the crowd due to his agile movements.
Option E is hence the correct answer.
7. I. Both the French political writer Alexis de Tocqueville and the Jedi master Yoda were unusually __________. While De Tocqueville predicted that the debate over slavery would tear the Union apart, Yoda, an unusually _________ observer of human nature- predicted that Anakin would become Darth Vader II. The judge was much too ___________ to be taken in by such an argument. It was not that difficult ________ Ellen’s motive for killing her husband - the million dollar life insurance policy.
    A. insightful, astute B. penetrating, knowing C. canny, lackadaisical D. perspicacious, discerning E. unperceptive, unheeding
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Option D fits in with the context. The various meanings are:
Perspicacious: adjective - having keen mental perception and understanding:
Sentence: He knew him to be nervous, on the one hand, and perspicacious on the other.
Discerning: adjective - showing good or outstanding judgment and understanding.
Sentence: He is incapable of discerning right from wrong.
Astute: adjective - clever; cunning; ingenious; shrewd.
Sentence: His astute detente diplomacy with the Soviet Union, trying to make the world a safer place, gets high marks.
Penetrating: adjective - acute; discerning.
Sentence: His brown eyes were penetrating yet peaceful, and he immediately disarmed my nervousness with his gentleness.
Canny: adjective - careful; cautious; prudent.
Sentence: But he was a canny political operator, far less ideological and more coldly pragmatic than proponents liked to admit.
Option D is hence the correct answer.
8. I. The prospect of Afghanistan again becoming a ________ for the world’s most dangerous terrorists overcame his _________ to fighting a seemingly unwinnable war. II. The Japanese yen, seen as a safe ________ in times of crisis, has gained about 3 percent against the South Korean won over the period from April 3, when Trump said the United States could act alone against North Korea if necessary. Although Japan wouldn’t remain unscathed should there be military conflict in the peninsula, the yen is still bought when risk _________ heightens globally.
    A. roadstead, impetuous B. rendezvous, intransigent C. haven, aversion D. wharf, dour E. atoll, emollient
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Option C fits in with the context. The various meanings are:
Haven: noun- any place of shelter and safety; refuge; asylum.
Sentence: Cambodia, with its seemingly free press, is also a haven for foreign journalists.
Aversion: noun - a strong feeling of dislike, opposition, repugnance, or antipathy (usually followed by to).
Sentence: He has a strong aversion to snakes and spiders.
Roadstead: adjective noun, Nautical.
Sentence: About five it returned, gentle enough, enabling us to head for the roadstead.
Impetuous: adjective - of, relating to, or characterized by sudden or rash action, emotion, etc.; impulsive:
Sentence: Zakir is a fearless and impetuous fighter, a former Guantanamo prisoner who earned a reputation for brutality on the battlefield.
Rendezvous: noun, plural - an agreement between two or more persons to meet at a certain time and place.
Sentence: He could not return home, and in order to see his mother one last time, he had to rendezvous in a secret location.
Intransigent: adjective - refusing to agree or compromise; uncompromising; inflexible.
Sentence: If the deal fell through, “ the rest of the world would see Iran as the intransigent ones, not us
Wharf: noun - a structure built on the shore of or projecting into a harbor, stream, etc., so that vessels may be moored alongside to load or unload or to lie at rest; quay; pier.
Sentence: Afterward, stumble out into North Beach and walk it off on a stroll down to the wharf.
Dour: adjective - sullen; gloomy:
Sentence: The captain's dour look depressed us all.
Atoll: noun - a ring-shaped coral reef or a string of closely spaced small coral islands, enclosing or nearly enclosing a shallow lagoon.
Sentence: Kate and William could hardly have picked a worse time for their luxury vacation to a resort in Noonu atoll.
Emollient: adjective - having the power of softening or relaxing, as a medicinal substance; soothing, especially to the skin.
Sentence: Glycerin soap ordinarily consists of about equal parts of pure hard soap and glycerin (the latter valuable for its emollient properties).
9. I. Indian companies come in all shapes and sizes and what unites them is that they accord undue deference to promoters. The ________ status bestowed on promoters is a ________ feature of the Indian corporate landscape. II. Religion was appreciated as founding all dimensions of reality from the cosmic to the human, from the physical to the spiritual. Indeed, the greater the transcendence, the greater the immanence of the divine in all, the more _________ and more ________ and penetrating its effects and hence the greater the works of human kind, the greater the glory of god.
    A. glorify, ubiquitous B. exalted, pervasive C. pompous, capacious D. sacrosanct, pungent E. resplendent, codify
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Option B fits in with the context. The meaning of the various words in the options are:
Exalted: adjective - raised or elevated, as in rank or character; of high station:
Ex. His behavior has exalted the power and prestige of his office.
Ubiquitous: adjective - existing or being everywhere, especially at the same time; omnipresent
Ex. Because the federal government has become so ubiquitous and voracious, there seems to be no negotiating with its size and scope.
Pervasive: adjective - spread throughout:
Ex. The corruption is so pervasive that it is accepted as the way to do business.
Pompous: adjective - characterized by an ostentatious display of dignity or importance.
Ex. He was a pompous minor official.
Capacious: adjective- capable of holding much; spacious or roomy
Ex. Yet I doubt that she will become a capacious judge with wide-ranging interests and intense curiosity
Sacrosanct: adjective -extremely sacred or inviolable:
Ex. She considered her home office sacrosanct.
Pungent: adjective - sharply affecting the organs of taste or smell, as if by a penetrating power; biting; acrid.
Ex. Their free clinic in central Athens is housed in a shabby apartment that smells of feverish bodies and pungent medicine
Resplendent: adjective - shining brilliantly; gleaming; splendid
Ex. It seemed to them as if the brightness of the moon had been increased, and was as resplendent as that of the sun.
Option B is hence the correct answer.
10. I. The variety of explanations for _________ in our sources can be _________ under a single general function, namely punishment of wrongs toward the community. II. From the aforementioned stories of Confucius and Mencius, it can be inferred that those who did not comply with the majority were likely to attract _________, as were those whose actions were not _________ under the general principle of the Middle Way.
    A. ostracism, subsumed B. banishing, amenable C. expatriation, corollary D. relegation, fusing E. censure, codify
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Option A fits in with the context. The meaning of the words in the given options are:
Ostracism: noun - exclusion, by general consent, from social acceptance, privileges, friendship, etc.
Ex. The conflict between the two leaders ended in the ostracism of Aristides, at a date variously given between 485 and 482
Subsume: verb- to consider or include (an idea, term, proposition, etc.) as part of a more comprehensive one.
Ex. He may finally be ready to subsume his ego and ideology for the sake of his country
Amenable: adjective- ready or willing to answer, act, agree, or yield; open to influence, persuasion, or advice; agreeable; submissive; tractable:
Ex. Rajesh is mostly an amenable servant
Expatriation: verb (used with object), to withdraw (oneself) from residence in one's native country.
Ex. What benefit might he derive from Mark's expatriation —that is the question?
Corollary: noun- an immediate consequence or easily drawn conclusion.
Ex. And the corollary is that “those” people are where they are entirely because of their own doing.
Relegation: verb- to send or consign to an inferior position, place, or condition
Ex. With such remains before us it is no longer sufficient to relegate Minos to the regions of sun-myths.
Fusing: to join
Ex. The greater part of the under-jaw is formed by the right and left dentaries, which in all recent birds are fused together in front.
Censure: noun - strong or vehement expression of disapproval
Ex. This brought them under the official censure, and was forbidden.
Option A is hence the correct answer.
Directions (11-15): In this question five alternatives are given under each sentence and you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to make it meaningful.
11. A. A more personalized treatment __________is very cost-effective, both in terms of resource utilization and its effect on recidivism. B. It was far different from the_________ of past administrations, which held interviews and discussions privately, with few hints of who was being considered. C. An entirely different __________ yielded the only solid successes in neurological disease.
    A. method B. approach C. way D. mechanism E. plan
Answer: Option B
12. A. But after the recent attacks, and with the Islamic State promising more terrorist strikes, a period of relative _________is over. B. Another reason to ignore the moralizing bloviators on the right when they drone on about the moral _________ of liberalism. C. A combination of macroeconomic _________ and microeconomic meddling, intended to boost growth, merely undermined public finances.
    A. rigidity B. lenient C. disregard D. laxity E. stubborn
Answer: Option D
13. A. Curiosity, technical ________, and business understanding, are the hallmarks of those excelling in this field. B. Trump is not a leader but a reality TV personality with no ________for a job that requires calm, steady and intelligent leadership. C. They will undergo a series of exams to test their physical, psychological and emotional _______ for the job.
    A. attitude B. expertise C. aptitude D. know-how E. test
Answer: Option C
14. A. Federer has been short of matches and form this summer but showed glimpses of his ________ best on Centre Court. B. It would undermine the widespread impression of the EU as bullying, ________and driven by self-interest. C. Over the years, employees accused him of financial improprieties and having an_______style of leadership.
    A. imperious B. dominating C. humbleness D. impetuous E. outstanding
Answer: Option A
15. A. An advanced 'soft robotics' built using ________ outer materials will soon allow patients to be positioned quickly and comfortably using robotic hands. B. It refers to the idea that the national identity is rooted in tradition, yet ultimately ________ and open to change. C. Sport, and surfing is no exception, is _________, shifting in shape as times change and when individuals like Wilson introduce new ideas.
    A. tolerant B. workable C. bending D. austere E. malleable
Answer: Option E
Para / Sentence Completion:
Directions (1-10): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence is given which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences. If none of the given alternatives is appropriate to fill the blank, choose option (E) i.e. “none of these” as your answer choice.
1. Three scientists were arrested …………………………………………………… official secrets related to space technology and launch missions with foreign agents.
    A. about the mismanagement of the scene B. with the sharing C. on the grave charge of sharing D. about the charge of disclosing E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: 'on the grave charge of sharing' is the most appropriate answer here. the scientists were charged with sharing official secrets with foreign agents.
2. It has been unsympathetic …………………………………………………………….. its errant police officers, arguing petulantly that there is no court direction to take disciplinary action against them.
    A. for the police to demanding for B. for the action with C. with the development of D. to the demand for action against E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 'to the demand for action against' is the most appropriate fit here as it makes the sentence meaningful.
3. For a country where it is not uncommon for those ……………………………… after long years in prison, it is possible to argue that the compensation principle may open the floodgates for innumerable claims.
    A. arrested for heinous offences to be exonerated B. were allowed to develop their own system C. needed to be disbanded D. desired to be scattered along the principles E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'arrested for heinous offences to be exonerated' is the most appropriate choice here as the sentence is for prisoners who are arrested for offences and then exonerated after long years, it is possible to argue for the compensation principle for them.
4. While his honor and dignity were restored long back, ……………………………………into the conduct of the police officers concerned is disconcerting.
    A. the termination of the officials B. the delay in a consequential inquiry C. publicized insurance component of the programme D. government has failed at every front E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 'the delay in a consequential inquiry' fits in the blank most appropriately. The sentence here means that his Honor and dignity were restored long back but the delay is inquiry is alarming.
5. If banks failed to comply with the RBI’s new rules, …………………………………………swift insolvency proceedings under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
    A. there has to be prosecution of the B. the demands of the people will need a C. eased India’s annual inflation rate D. these stressed assets had to be forced to undergo E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation: As the latter part of the sentence talks about the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, so'these stressed assets had to be forced to undergo' is the most appropriate choice here.
6. The troubles of power companies can be traced to structural issues such as the …………………………………………………… and the unsustainable finances of public sector power distribution companies.
    A. behaviors, which should in turn impact the broad outcomes B. absence of meaningful price reforms, unreliable fuel supply C. manufactured and transport maintenance D. availability of proper fuel supply and transport facilities E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 'absence of meaningful price reforms, unreliable fuel supply' is the appropriate choice here. here, the sentence talks about the troubles of power companies and so the option that we should choose must be a negative one, hence option b fits in appropriately.
7. As Indians, we are …………………………………….. of our governance and our Constitution which has ensured that India is both a democracy and a republic.
    A. justly proud of the structure B. ashamed of the structure C. positively affected by the commencement D. jointly sustained by the quality E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'justly proud of the structure' is a perfect fit here. As Indians, we are proud of our governance and constitution hence justly proud is perfect here.
8. The Constitution, which came into force in 1950, ………………………………………………….. given a set of inviolable freedoms, including equality before the law and freedom of expression.
    A. will have to pressurize the B. have been ensured by the Indian Citizens C. had ensured that Indian citizens were D. combining large scale information E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: 'had ensured that Indian citizens were' is the perfect fit here as the constitution had ensured the Indian citizens of various freedoms.
9. The right start to life is fuelled by a system ………………………………………. for the pregnant and lactating mother, which then gets extended to the child.
    A. depending upon the government aid B. maintained and organized in C. lacking nutritive care D. ensuring wholesome nutritive care E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 'ensuring wholesome nutritive care' is the perfect fit here. The wholesome nutritive care for the lactating mothers gets extended to the child.
10. In order to emphasize the importance of a right and healthy start to the lives of children, the Union government …………………………………………………….. under the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS).
    A. runs an extensive public health system network B. claim credit for the projects accomplished C. maintains and favors a issue D. needs to be made applicable to the Autonomous District Councils. E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'runs an extensive public health system network' makes the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
Seating Arrangements:
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Eight person namely P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order . Four of them are sitting at the four corners of the table while the other four are sitting in the middle of the side of square . Each of them is of different age. The person sitting at the corners are having the ages multiple of 3. The persons are sitting at the middle of the sides are having the ages multiple of 2. P sits second to the right of the one whose age is 44. P is an immediate neighbor of the one who is 39 years old. Only two persons sit between Q and the one having the age of 39. Q has not the age of 44. W sits second to the left of Q. S is to the immediate right of the person having age of 15. Only three persons sit between Z and the one having age of 15.The difference between the ages of Z a and the one who is second to the left of Z is 6. S is older than Z. Immediate neighbors of S are younger than S. Person having age 22 sits second to the right of the person having age 10. Age of P is not 10. Y sits to the immediate left of the person having the age of 22. Age of Y is 51. Age of R is greater than 20. Age of R is 24 years more than X. Age of X is 3 years more than age of P.
1. Who among the following is 9 year old?
    A. P B. S C. W D. X E. No one
Answer: Option E
2. Who sits second to the right of the one who sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 51 years?
    A. R B. S C. Y D. Q E. W
Answer: Option D
3. How many persons sit between the one who is 15 year old and the one is 12 year old, when counted anti clockwise from the one who is 15 year old.
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. More than 3 E. None of these
Answer: Option B
4. Who among the following sits diagonally opposite to Z?
    A. X B. T C. S D. P E. W
Answer: Option A
5. Who among the following sits to the immediate right of S?
    A. P B. W C. R D. P E. Z
Answer: Option C
Puzzles:
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living on eight-storey building. The ground floor is numbered one and next floor is numbered two and so on. They all have different cars viz. Toyota, Mercedes, Safari, Parado, Bolero, Baleno, Dzire and Scorpio. They also like different color viz. Red, white, pink, cream, black, violet, yellow and green but not necessarily in the same order. E has a Safari car and he lives on even numbered floor but not on topmost floor. One person lives between E and H. The one who likes violet color live immediately below the one who has Bolero car. The one who likes cream color live immediately above the one who likes black color. The one who likes cream color live on odd numbered floor. The one who likes black color live on one of the floor below the one who likes white color. E does not like white color. The one who have Dzire car also likes yellow color. D does not have Dzire car. B and G does not have Parado car. D does not have either Parado or Baleno or Scorpio car. G does not have Baleno car. B does not live on first floor. A live on an odd numbered floor but above the floor number third. Three persons lives between the floor on which A and G who likes green color lives. C has a Bolero car and lives immediately above B who lives on odd numbered floor. B does not live immediately above or immediately below the floor on which A lives. More than three person lives between B and one who likes red color and have Toyota car. The one who likes red color does not live on second floor. A and the one who likes red color do not live on seventh floor.
1. Who among the following has Mercedes car?
    A. A B. B C. C D. E E. D
Answer: Option E
2. Who among the following has Mercedes car?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. More than Three E. None
Answer: Option D
3. F has which of the following car?
    A. Dzire B. Scorpio C. Toyota D. Safari E. None of these
Answer: Option A
4. F has which of the following car?
    A. H B. F C. C D. D E. B
Answer: Option D
5. E lives on which of the following floor?
    A. 8 B. 6 C. 7 D. 5 E. 4
Answer: Option B
Inequalities:
Directions (1-9): Study the following question carefully and Choose the right answer.
1. Statement: M ≥ P T = M Conclusions: I. V > P II. T ≥ H
    A. If only conclusion I is true B. If only conclusion II is true C. If either conclusion I or II is true D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true E. If both conclusions I and II are true
Answer: Option A
2. Statements: A ≥ B = C ≥ D, V ≥ G ≤ H = D Conclusion: I. C ≥ D II. A > H III. B ≥ G IV. C < V
    A. Only I and II are true B. Only III and IV are true C. Only I, II and III are true D. All I, II and III are true E. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
3. Statements: M ≤ N T ≥ Q Conclusions: I. R ≥ L II. T ≤ N III. L > M IV. R ≥ M
    A. Only III and IV are true B. Only III is true C. Only I and IV are true D. All I, II, III and IV are true E. None of these
Answer: Option B
4. Statement: M ≥ P T = M Conclusions: I. V > P II. T ≥ H
    A. If only conclusion I is true B. If only conclusion II is true C. If either conclusion I or II is true D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true E. If both conclusions I and II are true
Answer: Option A
5. Statements: E = G ≥ H = N, C > F ≥ M = N Conclusions: I. F ≥ E II. E ≥ M III. C ≥ G IV. C > H
    A. Only I and III are true B. All I, II, III and IV are true C. Only II and IV are true D. Only II is true E. None of these
Answer: Option C
6. Statements: R ≥ T = Q Z Conclusions: I. Z T II. S ≥ Q III. M > T IV. L ≥ Q
    A. Only II, III and IV are true B. Only I, III and IV are true C. Only I and II are true D. Only II and IV are true E. None of these
Answer: Option A
7. Statements: S ≤ L ≤ I = P > E > R; L > Q Conclusions: I. P ≥ S II. I > R
    A. Only Conclusion I is true B. Either Conclusion I or II is true C. Only Conclusion II is true D. Both Conclusion I and II are true E. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Answer: Option D
8. Statements: G > R ≥ E = A ≤ T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J Conclusions: I. T ≥ D II. R > S
    A. Only Conclusion II is true B. Neither conclusion I nor II is true C. Only conclusion I is true D. Either conclusion I or II is true E. Both conclusion I or II are true
Answer: Option C
9. Statements: A ≥ B > C ≤ D ≤ E < F Conclusions: I. A ≥ E II. C < F
    A. Only conclusion I is true B. Either conclusion I or II is true C. Neither conclusion I nor II is true D. Only conclusion II is true E. Both conclusion I and II are true
Answer: Option D
Syllogism:
Directions (1-5): In each questions below are some conclusions are given followed by set of statements. You have to decide from which set of statements the given conclusions logically follow(s) disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Conclusions: Some words are excel. All notepads are window. No excel is notepad.
Statements: I. All excels are word. Some words are notepad. No window is notepad. II. Some notepads are excel. Some windows are word. No excel is word. III. No notepad is excel. Some excels are word. All notepads are window.
    A. Only Statement I follows B. Only Statement II follows C. Only Statement III follows D. Only Statement IV follows E. Only Statement V follows
Answer: Option C
2. Conclusions: No seating is puzzle. Some puzzles are coding. Some syllogisms are not seating.
Statements: I. All puzzles are coding. No seating is syllogism. Some syllogisms are puzzle. II. No coding is seating. All syllogisms are puzzle. Some Puzzles are coding. III. Some puzzles are syllogism. All syllogisms are coding. No coding is seating. IV. No seating is puzzle. Some puzzles are syllogism. All syllogisms are coding. V. All syllogisms are seating. Some puzzles are coding. No coding is syllogism.
    A. Only Statement I follows B. Only Statement II follows C. Only Statement III follows D. Only Statement IV follows E. Only Statement V follows
Answer: Option D
3. Conclusions: Some aptitudes are reasoning. No reasoning is current affair. Some current affairs are banking.
Statements: I. No current affair is aptitude. All reasoning is banking. Some banking is aptitude. II. All banking is aptitude. No aptitude is reasoning. All reasoning is current affair. III. Some banking is reasoning. No reasoning is current affair. All aptitudes are banking. IV. All reasoning is aptitude. Some aptitudes are banking. No banking is current affair. V. No reasoning is banking. All current affairs are banking. All reasoning is aptitude.
    A. Only Statement I follows B. Only Statement II follows C. Only Statement III follows D. Only Statement IV follows E. Only Statement V follows
Answer: Option E
4. Conclusions: No dollar is pound. Some dollars are dinars. All pounds are euro. Some rupees are euro.
Statements: I. All rupees are dollar. Some dollars are euro. No euro is dinar. Some dinars are pound. II. Some dinars are dollar. No rupee is dollar. All rupees are euro. All pounds are rupee. III. No pound is dollar. Some rupees are euro. All euros are dinar. No dinar is dollar. IV. All dollars are rupee. No rupee is dinar. Some dinars are euro. No euro is pound. V. Some rupees are dollar. No euro is dollar. All rupees are dinar. All pounds are euro.
    A. Only Statement I follows B. Only Statement II follows C. Only Statement III follows D. Only Statement IV follows E. Only Statement V follows
Answer: Option B
5. Conclusions: Some deposits are saving. No saving is withdrawal. Every withdrawal is loan. Some loans are account.
Statements: I. All loans are deposit. Some withdrawals are saving. No saving is account. All accounts are deposit. II. Some savings are account. No deposit is loan. All loans are withdrawal. Some savings are deposit. III. No withdrawal is saving. All savings are deposit. Some accounts are withdrawal. All withdrawals are loan. IV. Some loans are withdrawal. No withdrawal is deposit. All deposits are saving. Some withdrawals are account. V. All deposits are withdrawal. Some withdrawals are account. No account is saving. All savings are loan.
    A. Only Statement I follows B. Only Statement II follows C. Only Statement III follows D. Only Statement IV follows E. Only Statement V follows
Answer: Option C
Input-Output:
Directions (1-5): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input- jlpu htqs 21 67 48 9 will bdgv
Step I: yknn 134 jlpu htqs 21 48 9 bdgv Step II: lnrw 96 yknn 134 htqs 21 9 bdgv Step III: jvsu 42 lnrw 96 yknn 134 9 bdgv Step IV: dfix 18 jvsu 42 lnrw 96 yknn 134
Answer the following questions based on the following input:
Input- njes glfu 53 18 31 44 wird dect abcd 14
1. What will be the resultant if the number which is fifth from the left end of step I is added to the number which is fifth from right end of step III?
    A. 76 B. 106 C. 78 D. 98 E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation: In this new pattern coding decoding question only one word and one number is arranged in each step. Let us understand the logic behind it- In each step the words and the numbers both are arranged from the left end.
For words- Words are arranged according to their 1st letter in such a way that the letter which has highest place value according to alphabetical series is arranged first from left end and each letter of each word is replaced by its second succeeding letter according to alphabetical series and same will be followed in each step.
For numbers- Numbers are arranged in descending order from left end in such a way that each number is multiplied by two.
Input- njes glfu 53 18 31 44 wird dect abcd 14
Step I: yktf 106 njes glfu 18 31 44 dect abcd 14 Step II: plgu 88 yktf 106 glfu 18 31 dect abcd 14 Step III: inhw 62 plgu 88 yktf 106 18 dect abcd 14 Step IV: fgev 36 inhw 62 plgu 88 yktf 106 abcd 14 Step V: cdef 28 fgev 36 inhw 62 plgu 88 yktf 106
2. What will be the second step of the given input?
    A. 88 plgu yktf 106 glfu 18 31 dect abcd 14 B. plgu 88 yktf 106 glfu 18 dect abcd 14 31 C. plgu 88 yktf 106 glfu 18 31 dect 14 abcd D. plgu 88 yktf 106 glfu 18 31 dect abcd 14 E. None of these
Answer: Option D
3. Which of the following word/number will be fourth to the left of the element which is sixth from the left end in step II?
    A. 88 B. yktf C. plgu D. 106 E. None of these
Answer: Option A
4. What will be the difference between the number which is fifth from the left end of step II and the number which is fifth from the right end of step IV?
    A. 14 B. 32 C. 22 D. 42 E. 16
Answer: Option C
5. How many steps are required to perform the output?
    A. VII B. V C. III D. VI E. IV
Answer: Option B
Data Sufficiency:
Directions (1-10): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer
    (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. In which year was Rahul born ?
Statements: I. Rahul at present is 25 years younger to his mother. II. Rahul's brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option E
2. What will be the total weight of 10 poles, each of the same weight?
Statements: I. One-fourth of the weight of each pole is 5 kg. II. The total weight of three poles is 20 kilograms more than the total weight of two poles.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option C
3. How many children does M have?
Statements: I. H is the only daughter of X who is wife of M. II. K and J are brothers of M.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option D
4. How much was the total sale of the company?
Statements: I. The company sold 8000 units of product A each costing Rs. 25. II. This company has no other product line.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option E
5. The last Sunday of March, 2006 fell on which date?
Statements: I. The first Sunday of that month fell on 5th. II. The last day of that month was Friday.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option C
6. What is the code for 'sky' in the code language ?
Statements: I. In the code language, 'sky is clear' is written as 'de ra fa'. II. In the same code language, 'make it clear' is written as 'de ga jo'.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option D
7. How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children?
Statements: I. P is fifteenth from the left in the row. II. Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option E
8. How is T related to K?
Statements: I. R's sister J has married Ts brother L, who is the only son of his parents. II. K is the only daughter of L and J.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option E
9. How is J related to P?
Statements: I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P. II. P's mother is married to J's husband who has one son and two daughters.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option B
10. How is X related to Y?
Statements: I. Y and Z are children of D who is wife of X. II. R's sister X is married to Y's father.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient C. Either I or II is sufficient D. Neither I nor II is sufficient E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: Option C
Blood Relations:
Directions (1-10): Study the questions carefully and answer them.
1. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
    A. Brother B. Uncle C. Uncle D. Father
Answer: Option D
Explanation: my mother's only son ->suresh (himself)-> son
2. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
    A. Q - N + M x P B. P + S x N - Q C. P - M + N x Q D. Q - S % P
Answer: Option C
Explanation: P - M → P is the brother of M M + N → M is the mother of N N x Q → N is the sister of Q Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.
3. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
    A. Brother B. Sister C. Nephew D. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option D
Explanation: If D is Male, the answer is Nephew. If D is Female, the answer is Niece. As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined. Note: Niece - A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law. Nephew - A son of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
4. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
    A. M - N x C + F B. F - C + N x M C. N + M - F x C D. M x N - C + F
Answer: Option D
Explanation: M x N → M is the father of N N - C → N is the sister of C and C + F → C is the brother of F. Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M.
5. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
    A. Brother B. Nephew C. Uncle D. Son-in-law
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Father of my uncle = grandfather. Daughter of grandfather = mother. Son of mother = brother.
6. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?
    A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Data is inadequate
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Only son of my grandfather = father. Son of father = brother.
7. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A x B means A is the son of B; and A % B means B is the daughter of A then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
    A. M + O x N B. M % O x N + P C. M + O % N D. None of these
Answer: Option D
8. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statements is/are necessary? 1. The son of D is the grandson of C. 2. B is the sister of D.
    A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Either 1 or 2 D. 1 and 2 both are required
Answer: Option D
9. If A + B means A is the father of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the wife of B and A x B means A is the mother of B, which of the following shows that M is the maternal grandmother of T?
    A. M x N % S + T B. M x N - S % T C. M x S - N % T D. M x N x S % T
Answer: Option A
10. Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai is related to the man in the photograph?
    A. Nephew B. Brother C. Father D. Maternal Uncle
Answer: Option D
Order and Ranking:
Directions (1-10):
1. Among B, F, J, K and W, each one of them is of different heights, F is taller than only J. B is taller than F and W (both) but not as tall as K. Who among them is the third tallest?
    A. B B. F C. K D. W E. None of these
Answer: Option D
2. In a class Harsh is 10th from the top and Harshita is 20th from the bottom. Naveen is 11 ranks above Harshita and 21 ranks below Harsh. How many students are there in the class?
    A. 60 B. 61 C. 62 D. 58 E. None of these
Answer: Option B
3. Mamta’s rank is 21st from the top and 15th from the bottom in the class. How many students are there in the class?
    A. 29 B. 36 C. 27 D. 35 E. None of these
Answer: Option D
4. Among A, B, C, D and E, A is taller than only B but shorter than C. C is taller than E. C is not the tallest. Who among them will be in the middle if they stand in the order of their height?
    A. A B. C C. B D. D E. None of these
Answer: Option E
5. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each of them is of different weights, Q is lighter than only T. P is heavier than only S. Who will be second heaviest among the following?
    A. R B. S C. T D. Q E. None of these
Answer: Option D
6. In a queue, 11 persons are sitting and facing north. A is fifth from the right end. Five persons sit between B and A. Persons between A and C is same as persons between B and C. Then what is the position of B with respect to C?
    A. Fourth to the left B. third to the left C. third to the right D. none of these E. Can’t be determined
Answer: Option B
7. Some persons are sitting in a row, all are facing north. A sits second to the right of B, who sits fifth from the right end of the row. Only one person sits between B and C. No one sits to the left of C. How many persons are sitting in a row?
    A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 11 E. 5
Answer: Option B
8. P, Q, R, S, T, U are having different toffees. P have more toffees than only S and T both but less than Q. R has more toffees than U but less than Q. Who among them have least number of toffees?
    A. R B. S C. T D. Either (B) or (C) E. None of these
Answer: Option D
9. P, Q, R, S, T, U are having different toffees. P have more toffees than only S and T both but less than Q. R has more toffees than U but less than Q. Who among them have least number of toffees?
    A. U B. P C. S D. CND E. R
Answer: Option C
10. Adarsh is eleventh from the left end and Naveen is 20th from the right end in a row. If they interchange their positions, Adarsh becomes fifteenth from the left end. How many persons are there in the row?
    A. 36 B. 35 C. 33 D. 34 E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Alphanumeric Series:
Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. M 6 ⋆ I A 7 $ J # 5 4 B U 2 R Q D H L O @ P T E F
1. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number and also immediately preceded by a consonant?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. None of these
Answer: Option B
2. If we remove all the vowels in this series, then which of the following element will be 7th from right end?
    A. P B. H C. D D. Q E. None of these
Answer: Option C
3. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant and also immediately preceded by a symbol?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. None of these
Answer: Option A
4. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
Answer: Option D
5. If we remove all the vowels and symbols in this series, then which element will be 13th from left end?
    A. L B. H C. D D. Q E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Distance and Direction:
Directions (1-10):
1. One evening before sunset two friends sumit and mohit were talking to each other face to face. If mohit's shadow was exactly to his right side, which direction was sumit facing,
    A. North B. South C. Data inadequate D. West
Answer: Option B
2. I am facing east. I turn 100° in the clock wise direction and then 45° in the anti clock wise direction. Which direction am I facing now?
    A. East B. South - east C. North D. South - west E. none of the above
Answer: Option B
3. 'Barin' village is 20 kilometers to the north of village 'Khan of village 'Banoha' is 18 kilometers to the east of village 'Khanof village 'Palasi' is 12 kilometers to the west of 'Barin', If Amitabh starts from village Banoha and goes to village palasi in which direction is he from his starting point?
    A. North - East B. North - West C. South - East D. North
Answer: Option B
4. 'Karan starts walking towards south. After walking 15 meters he turns towards north. After walking 20 meters, he turns towards east and walks 10 meters. He then turns towards south and walks 5 meters. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?
    A. 10 meters, East B. 10 meters, South - East C. 10 meters, West D. 10 meters, North - East
Answer: Option A
5. A tourist drives 10 km towards east and turns to the right hand drives 3 Km. Then he drives towards west (turning to his right) 3 km. He then turns to his left and drive 2 km. Finally he turns to his right and travel's 7 km. how far is he from his starting point and in which direction would he be?
    A. 10 km, East B. 9 km, North C. 8 km, West D. 5 km, West
Answer: Option D
6. Rita drives to the North of her place of stay at A and after traveling 25 km, finds that she has driven in the wrong direction she then turns to her right and travels 2 km and then she again turns to the right and drives straight another 25 km. How much distance has she now to cover to go back to the starting point?
    A. 25 km B. 2 km C. 4 km D. 40 km
Answer: Option B
7. A walk towards North 4 Kms and turns right and walks 5 Kms. Then he turns towards South and walks 2 Kms, Again he takes a turn towards West walks 3 Kms and stops a while. Then we further walk 3 Kms. What is the distance of A from his starting point?
    A. 16 Kms B. 12 Kms C. 2 Kms D. 4 Kms
Answer: Option C
8. A, B, C and D are playing a game of caroms. A, C and B, D are partners. D is to the right of C who is facing West. There B is facing in
    A. North B. South C. East D. West
Answer: Option A
9. I start from my home and go 2 km straight. Then if turn to words my right and go 1 Km. I turn again towards my right and go 1 Km again. If I am North - West from my house, then in which direction did I go in beginning?
    A. North B. South C. East D. West
Answer: Option D
10. I start from my home and go 2 km straight. Then if turn to words my right and go 1 Km. I turn again towards my right and go 1 Km again. If I am North - West from my house, then in which direction did I go in beginning?
    A. North B. South C. East D. West
Answer: Option C
1.Which State Tourism Department launched a 'Smile Virtual Tour Guide' site for boosting tourism recently?
    A. Mizoram B. Himachala Pradesh C. Meghalaya D. Kerala
Answer: Option D
2. Oxygen Fin care Small Finance Bank signed an agreement to roll out the Branch less Banking services, using Oxygen’s flagship Point of Sale device called the Oxygen Micro ATM Super PoS. Where is the Corporate Office of Fin care Small Finance Bank?
    A. Chennai B. Bengaluru C. Ahmedabad D. Jaipur E. Mumbai
Answer: Option B
3. Yerevan is the capital of which of following countries?
    A. Azerbaijan B. Bulgaria C. Armenia D. Chile
Answer: Option C
4. Which country uses the currency U.S. Dollar?
    A. Antigua and Barbuda B. Guatemala C. Puerto Rico D. Azerbaijan
Answer: Option C
5. Qutab minar is located at
    A. Delhi B. Agra C. Kolkata D. Lucknow
Answer: Option A
6. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?
    A. T.N.Kaul B. J.R.D. Tata C. Khushwant Singh D. Nani Palkhivala
Answer: Option D
7. This firm has been awarded the 'Marketer of the Year' award by the International Advertising Association of India (IAAI)
    A. Cadbury B. Amul C. PepsiCo D. Nestle
Answer: Option B
8. The Headquarters of United Nations is at
    A. New York B. Geneva C. Rome D. Tokyo
Answer: Option A
9. Who launched the Van Dhan Scheme of Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED in Chattisgarh recently?
    A. Smt. Sushma Swaraj B. Shri Rajnath Singh C. Shri Narendra Modi D. Shri Venkaiah Naidu
Answer: Option C
10. As per (IBBI), which country has won Global Restructuring Review's "most improved jurisdiction" award?
    A. Singapore B. Malaysia C. India D. China
Answer: Option C

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shape Tips

To prepare for IBPS SO Prelims 2017, the three main subjects that you need to be excellent at are English Language, Reasoning Ability and General Awareness.
Candidates can crack the exam only with the right approach and correct strategy and can also clear the IBPS SO 2017 Prelims examination but remember there is a cut off each subject as well as the overall cut off in the IBPS Examination.
✦ Tip - 1: Identify the weak areas, for some it may be English Lanaguage; for others it may be Reasoning. If possible take the help of extra coaching.
✦ Tip - 2: Generally, people struggle in the English Language section. But with the right strategy, you can score good marks.
✦ Tip - 3: Reasoning Ability is considered very tough and time taking. Having the right strategy and time management will get you over the line.
✦ Tip - 4: General Awareness has a very vast syllabus and questions can be asked about anything around the world. It will also have a good amount of questions from Banking and Finance.
Having the habit of reading on a daily basis, will increase your overall knowledge related to this section.
✦ Tip - 5: Take online mock tests to see where you stand and what your strengths. Look for reputed online coaching websites for free mock tests.
✦ Tip - 6: If you are repeatedly making the same mistakes, find out what is happening and analyze the mistakes. A reliable coach can help you in this matter.
✦ Tip - 7: Space out your learning in comfortable time slots. It is sufficient to start preparing 2 months before the exam. But allot enough time in the day to the preparation so that you have adequate time to focus on each section of the test.
✦ Tip - 8: This is the most important one. Stay Positive! There will be highs and lows in your journey to prepare for the bank exam. Whatever happens, stay focused and don’t give up.