1. The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called

A. sedimentary rocks B. igneous rocks C. metamorphic rocks D. none of these

Answer: Option (A)
2. The curvature of the earth's surface, is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more than

A. 100 sq km B. 260 sq km C. 200 sq km D. 160 sq km

Answer: Option (B)
3. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. To an agriculturist, soil is the_substance existing on the earth's surface, which grows and develops plants B. To a geologist, soils the material in a relatively thin surface zone within which roots oceur, and rest of the crust is termed as rock irrespective of hardness , C. To an engineer, soil is the unaggregated and uncemented deposits of minerals and organic particles covering the earth's crust D. All the above

Answer: Option (D)
4. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area B. The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area C. The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath room and glazed verandah, is called floor area D. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
5. The sewerage system originates from

A. house sewers B. lateral sewers C. branch sewers D. main sewers

Answer: Option (A)
6. For heavily reinforced concrete member, the nominal maximum size of the aggregates should be restricted tomain bars

A. 5 ram less than the minimum clear distance between the B. 5 mm less than the minimum cover to the reinforcement C. smaller of (a) and (b) D. greater of (a) and (b)

Answer: Option (C)
7. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it

A. less liable to segregation B. more liable to segregation C. more liable to bleeding D. more liable for surface scaling in frosty weather

Answer: Option (A)
8. In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge to

A. tensile edge B. tensile reinforcement C. neutral axis of the beam D. longitudinal central axis

Answer: Option (B)
9. The main advantage of a steel member, is:

A. its high strength B. its gas and water tightness C. its long service life D. all the above

Answer: Option (D)
10. If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as

A. one dimensional B. two dimensional C. three dimensional D. none of these

Answer: Option (B)

1. Under no-load condition power drawn by the prime mover of an alternator goes to

A. produce induced emf in armature winding B. meet no-load losses C. produce power in armature D. meet Cu losses both in armature and rotor windings

Answer: Option (B)
2. Two 100 W, 200 V lamps are connected in series across a 200 V supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will be-watts

A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

Answer: Option (A)
3. If a 'live' conductor of a public supply touches earth metal

A. supply voltage will increase B. supply voltage will decrease C. no current will flow D. current will flow to earth

Answer: Option (D)
4. When running under no-load condition and with normal excitation, armature current la drawn by a synchronous motor

A. leads the back emf Eb by a small angle B. is large C. lags the applied voltage V by a small angle D. lags behind the resultant voltage ER by 90?

Answer: Option (C)
5. When load on a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation is increased three times, its torque angle becomes approximately

A. thrice B. one third C. nine times D. 13 times

Answer: Option (A)
6. Which of the following instrument will be used to measure alternating current only?

A. moving-iron voltmeter B. permanent-magnet type ammeter C. induction-type ammeter D. moving-iron (attraction-type) ammeter

Answer: Option (C)
7. When connecting wattmeters to a load circuit consuming large current, it is necessary to use

A. potential transformers B. isolation transformers C. power shunts D. current transformers

Answer: Option (D)
8. The area of a sinusoidal wave over a half-cycle is

A. max. value 2 B. 2 x max. value C. max. value + IL D. max. value 4-2n

Answer: Option (B)
9. For the single-phase ac system of track electrification, low frequency is desirable because of the following advantage/s

A. it improves commutation properties of ac motors B. it increases ac motor efficiency C. it increases ac motor power factor D. all of the above

Answer: Option (D)
10. The free-running speed of a train does NOT depend on the

A. duration of stops B. distance between stops C. running time D. acceleration

Answer: Option (A)

1. In bending of a beam, transverse shearing stresses are induced between the elements or fibres, if the bending moment is

A. Constant B. Varies C. Increases D. Decreases

Answer: Option (D)
2. A hot short metal is

A. Brittle when cold B. Brittle when hot C. Brittle under all conditions D. Ductile at high temperature

Answer: Option (B)
3. The unit r-f power in S.I. units is

A. Newton metre B. Watt C. Joule D. Kilogram metre/sec.

Answer: Option (B)
4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in

A. One point B. Two points C. Plane D. Perpendicular planes

Answer: Option (A)
5. Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of

A. Volumetric stress and volumetric strain B. Lateral stress and lateral strain C. Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain D. Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: Option (C)
6. Clapeyron equation is a relation between

A.Temperature, pressure and enthalpy B.Temperature, pressure, specific volume ancrenthalpy. C.Temperature and enthalp_y D.Temperature, pressure, and specific volunte

Answer: Option (B)
7. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires

A. Very little work input B. Maximum work input C. Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle D. Zero work input

Answer: Option (A)
8. The main criterion for selection of electrode diameter in arc welding is

A. Material to be welded B. Type of welding process C. Thickness of material D. Voltage used

Answer: Option (C)
9. In arc welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by

A.Flow of current B.Voltage C.Material characteristics D.Contact resistance

Answer: Option (D)
10. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as

A. Turning pair B. Rolling pair C. Sliding pair D. Spherical pair

Answer: Option (A)

1. MBO refers to:

A. Management by objectives B. A technique of achieving organisational goals C. Performance review D. None of the above

Answer: Option (A)
2. Who introduced the concept of MBO?

A. Mary Parker Follet B. Keith Device C. Peter Drucker D. None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
3. Span of management refers to:

A. Activities performed by a manager B. Number of subordinates supervised by a manager C. Number of superiors a manager has to report to D. None of the above

Answer: Option (B)
4. Break even, means:

A. Costs are more than revenue B. Revenues and cost are equal C. Revenues are more than cost D. None of the above

Answer: Option (B)
5. Goodwill is a:

A. Liquid asset B. Fictitious asset C. Current asset D. Intangible asset

Answer: Option (D)
6. Intangible assets usually fall in the category of:

A. Current assets B. Fixed assets C. Semi fixed assets D. None of the above

Answer: Option (B)
7. Which one of the following is shown first when the assets are arranged in the order of their liquidity?

A. Cash in hand B. Debtors C. Investment D. B/R

Answer: Option (A)
8. The balance-sheet is only:

A. An account B. A summary C. A statement D. None of the above

Answer: Option (C)
9. Teeming and lading relates to:

A. Pilferage of stock B. Misappropriation of cash C. Frauds relating to the receipt of money from debtors D. Bribery of cash for some benefits

Answer: Option (C)
10. Acid test ratio is:

A. Current assets: current liabilities B. Quick assets: current liabilities C. Total assets: total liabilities D. Fixed assets: fixed liabilities

Answer: Option (B)

1. The main components of evergreen revolution are: 1. Up gradation soil health 2. Promote lab to land demonstrations 3. Promoting rain water harvesting 4. Increasing cash crop production
Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. All of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The concept of evergreen Revolution emphasizes the increase of food grain production. The components of evergreen revolution include – up gradation of soil health, promote up lab to land demonstration promoting rain water harvesting and increasing cash crop production, etc. Increasing cash crop production is not included in it’s components. Hence the correct answer is A.
2. Study the following statements about the effects of weeds on the crop plants: 1. They help crop plants to grow healthily. 2. They interfere in harvesting 3. They affect plant growth 4. They compete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light.
The correct statement are:

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 3 and 4 only C. 4 only D. 2, and 4

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The weeds don’t help crop plants hence statement (1) is not correct. Statements (2),(3) and (4) are correct because weeds interfere in harvesting affect plant growth and compete with crop plants for water nutrients, space and light.
3. The characteristic features of Indian Agriculture are: 1. Labour surplus economy 2. Structural unemployment 3. Large size of land holding 4. Traditional technology of production
Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 3 and 4

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Indian Agriculture is characterized byLabour surplus economy, Disguised unemployment Small size of land holdings, Traditional of production So we see that statements (2) and (3) are incorrect and statements (1) and (4) are correct. Hence the correct answer is (C).
4. The Apex institution in the spare of agriculture credit is:

A. State Bank of India B. Reserve Bank of India C. Regional Rural of Bank D. NABARD

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established in 1982. The main objective for facilities for agriculture and rural development so that the financial inclusion can be ensured.
5. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly:

A. Blue Revolution - Fish production B. Golden revolution - Horticulture C. Round Revolution - Tomato Production D. Yellow Revolution - Oilseed and edible oil

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Round Revolution is related with potato production, not tomato production. Hence (C) is not matched. Code a, b and d are correctly matched.
Blue Revolution - Fish Production Golden Revolution - Horticulture Round Revolution - Tomato Production Yellow Revolution - oilseed and edible oil
6. Consider the following statements: 1. To increase the pace of white revolution the operation flood was started. 2. India ranks fourth in world coffee production.
Which statements are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: White revolution is related to milk production operation flood programme was started. So statement I is correct. But statement 2 is not correct because India ranks sixth in world coffee production.
7. The correct arrangement of Indian states according to their capacity of sugar production in decreasing order is: </br

A. Uttar Pradesh > Maharashtra> Karnataka > Tamil Nadu B. Maharashtra > Uttar Pradesh > Karnataka > Tamil Nadu C. Maharashtra > Uttar Pradesh > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka D. Uttar Pradesh > Karnataka > Maharashtra > Tamil Nadu.

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Top sugar producing states (2011-12) 1. Maharastra - 89.6 lac ton 2. Uttar Pradesh- 69.6 lac ton 3. Karnataka - 37.0 lac ton 4. Tamilnadu - 22.4 lac ton So the correct answer is (B)
8. Select the correctly matched pair: 1. Marginal land holding - more than one hectare 2. Small land holding - 1 to 4 hectare 3. Large land holding - more than 10 hectare

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1,2 and 3 D. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Marginal land holding - less than one hectare Small land holding - 1 to 4 hectare Large land holding - more than 4 hectare

1. A cell body which contains a nucleus and cytoplasm is

A. Blood B. Cartilage C. Tendon D. Neuron

Answer: Option (D)
2. The branch of biology that deals with the study of transmission of hereditary materials from a generation to the next is

A. Physiology B. Ecology C. Embryology D. Genetics

Answer: Option (D)
3. Mitochondria are absent in

A. Green algae B. Blue green algae C. Red algae D. Brown Algae

Answer: Option (B)
4. Cytokinins are

A. Adenine derivatives B. Guanine derivatives C. Cytidine derivatives D. Thymidine derivatives

Answer: Option (A)
5. The group of similar plants which breed freely among themselves constitute a

A. Species B. Family C. Order D. Genus

Answer: Option (A)
6. In which the reproductive organs are hidden?

A. Cryptogamae B. Phanerogamae C. Gymnosperms D. angiosperms

Answer: Option (A)
7. Which phylum of animals is also called flatworms?

A. Porifera B. Coelenterata C. Platyhelminthes D. Nematoda

Answer: Option (C)
8. What is the exclusive marine phylum?

A. Echinodermata B. Porifera C. Cnidarians D. Protozoa

Answer: Option (A)
9. The mode of nutrition in fungi

A. only saprotrophic B. saprotrophic or parasitic C. only parasitic D. none of above

Answer: Option (B)
10. What is not possessed by bacteria?

A. membrane bound organelles B. nucleus C. nucleolus D. all of these

Answer: Option (D)

1. Cyanobacteria and Bacteria fall under kingdom

A. Protista B. Monera C. Animalia D. Plantae

Answer: Option (B)
2. Variety of organisms residing in an ecosystem falls under term

A. Varieties B. Biodiversity C. Variations D. Niche

Answer: Option (B)
3. Assigning different names to each species is called

A. Naming B. Specifications C. Nomenclature D. Systematics

Answer: Option (C)
4. Study of varieties and diversity of living organisms and evolutionary relations among them is called

A. Taxonomy B. Naming C. Classifications D. Diversity

Answer: Option (A)
5. A system of grouping that distinguished between kingdoms according to mode of nutrition and cellular organization is coined by

A. Albert Einstein B. Robert Hook C. Robert Brown D. Robert H. Whittaker

Answer: Option (D)
6. The total number of bones in the human body is

A. 206 B. 210 C. 260 D. 236

Answer: Option (A)
7. Tympanic bulla is the auditory capsule in the skull of

A. frog and other animals B. rabbit and other mammals C. fishes and aquatic animals D. amphibians

Answer: Option (B)
8. In rabbit, broad, wing-like transverse processes are characteristic of

A. atlas vertebra B. axis vertebra C. caudal vertebra D. none of these

Answer: Option (A)
9. Bones of children contain large quantities of organic matter and little of

A. salts B. water C. blood D. corbohydrates

Answer: Option (A)
10. The incisor teeth and canine are attached to

A. the premaxilla bone B. maxilla bone C. incisors to the premaxilla to maxilla D. incisors to the premaxilla and maxilla and canines to maxilla

Answer: Option (C)

1. Who is regarded as father of modern chemistry?

A. Ruterford B. Einstein C. Lavoisier D. C.V. Raman

Answer: Option (C)
2. Which is not a type of elements?

A. Metals B. Non Metals C. Metalloids D. Gases

Answer: Option (D)
3. Which acid is present in lemon?

A. marlic acid B. citric acid C. lactic acid D. tartaric acid

Answer: Option (B)
4. Identify the wrong statement in the following

A. Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table. B. Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period. C. Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius. D. Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.

Answer: Option (C)
5. Rare gases are

A. mono atomic B. di atomic C. tri atomic D. None of above

Answer: Option (A)
6. The term PVC used in the plastic industry stands for

A. polyvinyl chloride B. polyvinyl carbobate C. phosphor vanadiu chloride D. phosphavinyl chloride

Answer: Option (A)
7. What among following is used to produce artificial rain?

A. copper oxide B. carbon monoxide C. silver iodide D. silver nitrate

Answer: Option (C)
8. Oil of vitriol is

A. nitric acid B. sulphuric acid C. hydrochloric acid D. phosphoric acid

Answer: Option (B)
9. Which is used in preparation of dynamite?

A. glycerol B. ethyl alcohol C. methyl alcohol D. glycol

Answer: Option (A)
10. What is Calcium sulphate?

A. epsom salt B. blue vitriol C. gypsum salt D. potash alum

Answer: Option (C)

1. A man presses more weight on earth at :

A. Sitting position B. Standing Position C. Lying Position D. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
2. A piece of ice is dropped in a vesel containing kerosene. When ice melts, the level of kerosene will

A. Rise B. Fall C. Remain Same D. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
3. Young's modulus is the property of

A. Gas only B. Both Solid and Liquid C. Liquid only D. Solid only

Answer: Option (D)
4. An artificial Satellite revolves round the Earth in circular orbit, which quantity remains constant?

A. Angular Momentum B. Linear Velocity C. Angular Displacement D. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
5. If electrical conductivity increases with the increase of temperature of a substance, then it is a:

A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Insulator D. Carborator

Answer: Option (B)
6. Product of Force and Velocity is called:

A. Work B. Power C. Energy D. Momentum

Answer: Option (B)
7. Which one of the following has the highest value of specific heat?

A. Alcohol B. Methane C. Kerosene D. Water

Answer: Option (D)
8. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of any substance

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains Same D. Becomes zero

Answer: Option (A)
9. Elecronegativity is the measure of

A. Metallic character B. Non-metallic character C. Basic Character D. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
10. The rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis of rotation is described in terms of the

A. Centre of gravity B. Centripetal force C. Centrifugal force D. Moment of force

Answer: Option (D)