Direction (1-3): The question are based on the five three-digit numbers given below.
937 425 816 398 671
1. If the position of the first and the third digits within each number are reversed, which of the following will be the third digit of the second lowest number?

A. 8 B. 9 C. 4 D. 6 E. None of these

Answer: Option
Explanation: The numbers after rearrangement are: 739, 524, 618, 893, 176 Thus the third digit of the second lowest number (524) is 4
2. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the lowest number?

A. 12 B. 6 C. 9 D. 13 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Lowest number = 398 Thus the required sum is 3 + 9 = 12
3. Which of the following is the second digit of the second highest number?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 9 E. 7

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Second highest number is 816 Thus the second digit is 1
Direction (4-8): Study the following information carefully and answer the asked questions carefully.
Seven movies named Kalank, Padmavat, Gold, Indian, Dil, Devdas and Dhadkan are shown on seven different days starting from Monday to Sunday. Each movie is seen by the different number of people i.e. 200, 230, 245, 275, 315, 350 and 380 (order is different). Padmavat was not watched by the maximum number of people. Indian was watched by the lowest number of people. Gold was watched after movie Dil. One movie was watched between Kalank and Gold. The movie that was watched by 315 people was shown just before the movie which was watched by 245 people. Dil was watched by 230 people. Kalank was shown on Thursday. Three movies were shown between Indian and Gold. 275 people watched the movie on Friday. Padmavat was not watched on Sunday. Movies shown between Dil and Dhadkan were same as shown between Devdas and Dhadkan.
4. How many people watched Dhadkan?

A. 350 B. 200 C. 275 D. 315 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:


5. How many movies were shown between Padmavat and Gold?

A. Four B. Three C. Two D. Five E. None

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

6. Which movie was shown on Sunday?

A. Indian B. Gold C. Dhadkan D. Devdas E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation:


7. If Gold is related to 275, Indian is related to 350, then Kalank is related to?

A. Saturday B. Tuesday C. Friday D. Wednesday E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation:


8. Which of the following movie was being watched by 350 people?

A. Padmavat B. Indian C. Dil D. Devdas E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation:


Direction(9-14):In each of the questions below are given few statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
9. Statements:
S1. Some R are C. S2. All P are R. S3. All C are B.
Conclusions:
I. Some B being P is a possibility. II. All P being B is a possibility.

A. If only conclusion I follows B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
10. Statements:
S1. All maths is science. S2. Some science is biology. S3. Some science is History.
Conclusion:
I. Some History are Maths. II. Some Maths are not History.

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
11. Statements:
S1. Some W are P. S2. Some T are F. S3. Some P are F.
Conclusions:
I. All W are F is a possibility II. Some P are T is a possibility

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
12. Statements:
S1. No G is J. S2. Some U are N. S3. All N are G.
Conclusions:
I. Some N are not U. II. Some N are not J is a possibility.

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. Statements:
S1. All C are T. S2. All N are B. S3. Some C are B.
Conclusions:
I. All B are T is a possibility. II. Some N are not T.

A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Direction(14-16):In the question, the relationships between two or more elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and give answer.
14. Statement:
B >= C, G = K > M, O = R, G >= D = C, O < M
Conclusion:
I. B > G II. K > R

A. Only conclusion I is true B. Only conclusion II is true C. Either conclusion I or II is true D. Neither conclusion I or II is true E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II is true

Answer: Option B
Explanation: B>=C=D<G=K>M>O=R From I, B>G, we can’t compare B and G so I is not true. From II, K>R, clearly II is true.
15. Statement:
R<=T B>=S, A <= D = K, N < K, T = S, A = B
Conclusion:
I. R > A II. A < N

A. Only conclusion I is true B. Only conclusion II is true C. Either conclusion I or II is true D. Neither conclusion I or II is true E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II is true

Answer: Option D
Explanation: R<=T=S>=B=A<=D=K> N From I, R>A, we can’t compare R and A so I is not true. From II, A<N, we can’t compare A and N so II is not true.
16. Statement:
M = T, P H > G, T > N = O, O ≥ P
Conclusion:
I. M < O II. P < H

A. Only conclusion I is true B. Only conclusion II is true C. Either conclusion I or II is true D. Neither conclusion I or II is true E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II is true

Answer: Option B
Explanation: M=T>N=O>=P<=Q=G<H<A From I, M<O, clearly I is not true. From II, P<H, clearly II is true.
Direction (17 -21): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle. Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside. F is facing inside and two persons are sitting between F and D. E is second to the left of D but not the neighbour of F. C is second to the right of E. C and E are facing the same direction. G is second to the right of C. Immediate neighbours of G are facing opposite directions with each other. H is the neighbour of G. B is second to the right of H. A is second to the left of B. A is facing outside. G and B are facing the same direction.
17. Who among the following is 2nd to the right of B?

A. H B. D C. A D. F E. C

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

18. Which of the following doesn’t belong to the group?

A. B B. A C. E D. H E. C

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

19. Who among the following sits exactly between D and E?

A. A B. C C. B D. H E. F

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

20. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. C is neighbor of D B. None is true C. H is immediate left of G D. A and E are facing opposite direction E. 5 persons are facing outside

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

21. How many persons are sitting between G and B if counted from the left of G?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 E. 3

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

Direction(22 – 26): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain language,

‘more money in nation’ is written as ‘za ma la go’, ‘loss in our nation’ is written as ‘min me la ma’, ‘more loss right now’ is written as ‘min pu go ka’ and ‘now the nation grow’ is written as ‘la ka se mi’.

22. How is ‘nation’ written in that code language?

A. ma B. la C. me D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: More= go, money=za, in=ma, nation=la, loss= min, our=me, right=pu, now=ka, The/grow= mi/se
23. What does ‘go’ stand for in the given code language?

A. loss B. now C. more D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: More= go, money=za, in=ma, nation=la, loss= min, our=me, right=pu, now=ka, The/grow= mi/se
24. What will be the possible code for ‘our the grow’ in the given code language?

A. me mi se B. me se za C. se pu la D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: More= go, money=za, in=ma, nation=la, loss= min, our=me, right=pu, now=ka, The/grow= mi/se
25. What is the code for ‘money’ in the given code language?

A. go B. ma C. la D. me E. None of these

Answer: Option E
Explanation: More= go, money=za, in=ma, nation=la, loss= min, our=me, right=pu, now=ka, The/grow= mi/se
26. ‘me ka’ is the code for which of the following?

A. the grow B. our now C. right now D. our money E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: More= go, money=za, in=ma, nation=la, loss= min, our=me, right=pu, now=ka, The/grow= mi/se
27. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COURSE; each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. In a row of students in a class, position of Andrew from the left side of the row is 32nd and position of Andrew from right side of the row is 41st. Find the total number of students in the row?

A. 78 B. 72 C. 69 D. 73 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Total number of students = (Position of Andrew from left + Position of Andrew from right) – 1 Total number of students = (32 + 41) – 1 = 72
Direction (29 – 30): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Sumit is standing at point A, he starts walking to his west and walks for 6m then he takes a left turn and walks for 4m then he takes a left turn again and walks for 3m and stops at point B. Arpit is standing at point C, he starts walking to his east and walks for 6m and reached point B then he takes a right turn and walks for 4m then he takes a left turn and walks for 3m and stops at point D.
29. In which of the following direction and how far is point A with respect to point D?

A. 7m, south B. 8m, north C. 8m, south D. 11m, west E. 12m, east

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

30. In which of the following direction is Arpit’s initial position with respect to point A?

A. South-west B. North-west C. South-east D. West E. North-east

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Direction (31 – 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line with equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and some are facing south.
A sits at one extreme end of the line. Only three people sit between A and G. E and A and E and G have the same members between them. H sits third to the right of E. B is an immediate neighbour of H and faces south. C sits second to the right of F. C is not an immediate neighbour of G. Immediate neighbours of G face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces north then the other neighbour faces south and vice-versa). Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions. A and D face the same direction as E (i.e. if E faces north then A and D also face north and vice-versa.). Both the immediate neighbour of E faces south.
31. How many persons facing South?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

32. Who sits at the end of the line?

A. C B. E C. D D. F E. G

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

33. Who among the following lives second to the left of F?

A. E B. B C. H D. A E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

34. How many persons live between A and F?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

35. Find the odd one out?

A. C B. A C. E D. H E. D

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Direction (36-40): What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?
36. 14 , 30 , 64 , ? , 194 , 294

A. 156 B. 134 C. 118 D. 168 E. 128

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

37. 12 , 16 , ? , 96 , 352 , 1376

A. 32 B. 64 C. 84 D. 92 E. 44

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

38. ? , 62 , 74 , 94 , 124 , 166

A. 52 B. 56 C. 48 D. 50 E. 42

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

39. 28 , 40 , 44 , 58 , 64 , ? , 88

A. 70 B. 72 C. 78 D. 80 E. 82

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

40. 58 , 30 , ? , 51 , 106 , 270

A. 44 B. 32 C. 42 D. 48 E. 38

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

Directions (41 – 45): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Number of people (in thousands) staying in 6 different cities and the percentage of men, women and children in those cities.

41. What is the ratio of the number of women from city P to that from city T?

A. 75 : 77 B. 151 : 223 C. 17 : 37 D. 19 : 23 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Ratio of women P & T city = (50 x 0.36)/(66 x 0.28) = [latex]\frac{(25 x 9)}{(33 x 7)}[/latex] = 75:77
42. Which city has the lowest number of children?

A. P B. S C. T D. Q E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Children in P = [latex]\frac{(50,000 x 26)}{100 }[/latex]= 13,000 Children in Q = [latex]\frac{(34,000 x 25)}{100}[/latex] = 8,500 Children in R = [latex]\frac{(52,000 x 22)}{100}[/latex]= 11,440 Children in S =[latex]\frac{ (45,000 x 20)}{100}[/latex] = 9,000 Children in T = [latex]\frac{(66,000 x 18)}{100}[/latex] = 11,880 Children in U =[latex]\frac{(56,000 x 22)}{100 }[/latex] = 12,320 Q city is having lowest number of children in comparison to all.
43. Total number of people from city S forms approximately what per cent of the total number of people from all cities together?

A. 28% B. 11% C. 6% D. 24% E. 15%

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Required % = [latex]\frac{45}{303}[/latex] x 100 = 14.85%
44. The number of women from city S forms what per cent of women’s that from city P? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

A. 87.08% B. 124.68% C. 112.50% D. 92.16% E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required % = [latex]\frac{(45 x 45%)}{(50 x 36%)}[/latex] x 100 = 112.5%
45. What is the average number of men from all the cities together?

A. 21450 B. 23300 C. 19445 D. 18620 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Total men in all cities [latex]\frac{(19000 + 15300 +24440+15750+35640+29680)}{6}[/latex]= 23300
Direction(46-50): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)?
46. 324.995 × 15.98 ÷ 4.002 + 36.88 = ?

A. 1317 B. 1337 C. 1357 D. 1377 E. 1397

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 324.995 × 15.98 ÷ 4.002 + 36.88 = ? » 325 × 16 ×[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] + 37 = ? » ? = 1300 + 37 » ? = 1337
47. 69.008% of 699.998 + 32.99% of 399.999 = ?

A. 615 B. 645 C. 675 D. 715 E. 725

Answer: Option A
Explanation: 699.998 × [latex]\frac{69.008}{100}[/latex] + 399.999 × [latex]\frac{32.99}{100}[/latex] = ? » 700 × [latex]\frac{69}{100}[/latex] + 400 × [latex]\frac{33}{100}[/latex] = ? » 483 + 132 = ? » ? = 615
48. 7428 ÷ 346 × 12 + 33.0003% of 509.999 + (838 ÷ 14.95) × 17.85 = ?

A. 1008 B. 1508 C. 2008 D. 1458 E. 1308

Answer: Option D
Explanation: [latex]\frac{7428}{346}[/latex] X 12 +[latex]\frac{33}{100}[/latex] x 510 + [latex]\frac{840 x 18}{15}[/latex] =21 x 12 + 168 +1008 =252 + 168 +1008 =1458
49.(48.11% of 14499 - 35.89% of 14002) ÷ 64 + √680 - (1.98)4= ?

A. 140 B. 20 C. 40 D. 70 E. 90

Answer: Option C
Explanation: (48.11% of 14499 - 35.89% of 14002) ÷ 64 + √680 - (1.98)4=? = (48%×14500 - 36%×14000)÷ 64 + √676 - 24 =(6960-5040)÷64 + 26-16 =1920÷64 +10 = 30+10 =40
50. √898 × (12.005)2 + ? = 5000

A. 680 B. 720 C. 750 D. 620 E. 630

Answer: Option A
Explanation: 5000 - √898 x 12^2 =5000 - 30 x 144 =5000-4320 =680
Direction(51-55): Study the following bar graph carefully to answer the questions.

51. Marks obtained by S in Chemistry is what percent of the total marks obtained by all the students in Chemistry?

A. 26.1 B. 28.5 C. 35 D. 31.5 E. 22

Answer: Option A
Explanation: [latex]\frac{120}{70 + 110 +100 +120 +60}[/latex] x 100 [latex]\frac{120}{460}[/latex] x 100 =26.09%
52. If the marks obtained by T in Physics were increased by 14% of the original marks, what would be his new approximate percentage in Physics if the maximum marks in Physics were 140?

A. 57 B. 32 C. 38 D. 48 E. 41

Answer: Option E
Explanation: New marks of T in physics = [latex]\frac{114}{100}[/latex] x 50 = 57 ∴ T’s new percentage = [latex]\frac{57}{140}[/latex] x 100 = 40.71
53. Fill in the blank space in order to make the sentence correct as per the given information. Total marks obtained by T in both the subjects together is more than the marks obtained by -----

A. Q in Chemistry B. R in Physics C. S in Chemistry D. P in Physics E. R in both the subjects together

Answer: Option B
Explanation: R in Physics Marks obtained by T in both subjects together is more than the marks obtained by R in Physics.
54. What is the respective ratio between the total marks obtained by P in Physics and Chemistry together to the total marks obtained by T in Physics and Chemistry together?

A. 3 : 2 B. 4 : 3 C. 5 : 3 D. 2 : 1 E. 20:11

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Required ratio = (130 + 70) : (50 + 60) = 200 : 110 = 20:11
55. What is the respective ratio between the total marks obtained by Q and S together in Chemistry to the total marks obtained by P and R together in Physics?

A. 23 : 25 B. 23 : 21 C. 17 : 19 D. 17 : 23 E. None of thes

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 23 : 21 Required ratio = 110 + 120 : 130 + 80 = 230 : 210 = 23 : 21
56. Certain public auto-taxi drivers have decided to start charging a rate of ‘a’ Rs per person per Km. How much, in rupees, would it cost 3 people to travel x Kms if he decides to give them a discount of 50 %?

A. [latex]\frac{3xa}{2}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{3x}{200a}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{3a}{200x}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{3xa}{200}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{xa}{600}[/latex]

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Cost of travel = 3 X a X x X [latex]\frac{50}{100}[/latex] =[latex]\frac{3ax}{2}[/latex]
57. At the end of the first quarter, the share price of ABC mutual fund was 20 percent higher than it was at the beginning of the year. At the end of the last quarter, the share price was 50 percent higher than it was at the beginning of the year. What was the percent increase in the share price from the end of the first quarter to the share price at the end of the year?

A. 20% B. 25% C. 30% D. 33% E. 40%

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Let the price at the beginning is Rs 100, then at the end of the first quarter, it was 120, And, at the end of the year, it was 150. So required % change =[latex]\frac{150-120}{120}[/latex] x 100 = 25%
58. A boat takes total 11 hours to travel from point A to point B downstream and return back to point C which is in between A and B. Find the distance between point A and B if the speed of the boat and the speed of the stream is 8kmph and 2kmph respectively?

A. 20 B. 40 C. 12 D. 30 E. 60

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Downstream speed= 8+2= 10kmph Upstream speed= 8-2= 6kmph Let distance between A and C be x Distance between A and B= 2x So, [latex]\frac{2x}{10}[/latex] +[latex]\frac{x}{6}[/latex]= 11 6x+ [latex]\frac{5x}{30}[/latex]= 11 11x= 11 X 30 x= 30km Distance between A and B= 30 X 2= 60km
59. P obtain 100/3% of the marks in a paper for which the maximum was 300. Q is ahead of P by 40% of P’s marks, while R is ahead of Q by two-ninths of his own marks. How many marks does R get?

A. 240 B. 180 C. 170 D. 110 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: P’s marks =[latex]\frac{100}{300}[/latex] X 300 = 100 Q’s marks =[latex]\frac{140}{100}[/latex] X 100 = 140 R’s marks =[latex]\frac{9}{7}[/latex] X 140 = 180
60. A person wants to buy a mobile, which costs Rs.1870, which includes 10% GST. If the price of the mobile is reduced, as much as the GST paid, then find the reduction in the price of mobile.

A. 600 B. 170 C. 200 D. 150 E. 140

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Selling price including GST = 1870 Selling price without GST= 1870 X [latex]\frac{100}{110}[/latex]= 1700
Direction(61-65): In the following question two equations are given in variables Xand Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
61.
I. 20x2 – 119x +176 = 0 II.[latex]\frac{6y^3-13y^2-10y+24}{3y+4}[/latex]= 0

A. X > Y B. X < Y C. X ≥ Y D. X ≤ Y E. X=Y or No relation can be established

Answer: Option A
Explanation: 20x2 – 119x +176 = 0 20x2 – ( 64 +55 )x +176 = 0 20x2 – 64x – 55x +176 = 0 4x( 5x – 16) – 11(5x – 16) = 0 (4x -11) ( 5x – 16) = 0 X = [latex]\frac{11}{4}[/latex],[latex]\frac{16}{5}[/latex] [latex]\frac{6y^3-13y^2-10y+24}{3y+4}[/latex]= 0 (y – 2)(2y – 3) = 0 Y= 2, [latex]\frac{3}{2}[/latex] On comparing the roots of x and y , both root values of x are greater than root values of y.
62.
I. x2 – ( 6 + [latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex])+2[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] = 0 II. 15y2 + ( 9 - 10[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex])y-6[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] = 0

A. X > Y B. X < Y C. X ≥ Y D. X ≤ Y E. X=Y or No relation can be established

Answer: Option E
Explanation: x2 – ( 6 + [latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex])+2[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] = 0 3x2 – 6x -[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]x+2[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]=0 (3x - [latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] ) (x – 2) = 0 X=[latex]\frac{[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]}{3}[/latex],2 15y2 + ( 9 - 10[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex])y-6[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] = 0 15y2 + 9y -10[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]y - 6[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]=0 (3y – 2[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex] )(5y +3)=0 Y=2[latex]\sqrt{17}[/latex]/3,[latex]\frac{-3}{5}[/latex] On comparing the roots of x and y , no relation can be established
63.
I. [latex]\sqrt{16-7}[/latex] = x II. [latex]\sqrt{1122-1041}[/latex] = y2

A. X > Y B. X ≥ Y C. X < Y D. X ≤ Y E. X = Y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: Option B
Explanation: [latex]\sqrt{16-7}[/latex] = x x=(+3) [latex]\sqrt{1122-1041}[/latex] = y2 y = 3, -3 X ≥ Y
64.
I. x2+5x+6=0 II. 2y2-11y+14=0

A. X > Y B. X ≥ Y C. X < Y D. X ≤ Y E. X = Y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer: Option C
Explanation: I.x2+5x+6=0 x2+3x+2x+6=0 x= -3,-2 II. 2y2-11y+14=0 2y2-7y-4y+14=0 y=2,[latex]\frac{7}{2}[/latex]
65.
I. 4X2 - 48X + 143 = 0 II. 4Y2 - 52Y + 165 = 0

A. If X > Y B. If Y > X C. If X ≥ Y D. If Y ≥ X E. If x = y or a relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Answer: Option E
Explanation: I. 4X2 - 48X + 143 = 0 4X2 - 22X - 26X + 143 (2X - 11)(2X - 13) = 0 ⇒ X = +[latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex], +[latex]\frac{13}{2}[/latex] II. 4Y2 - 52Y + 165 = 0 4Y2 - 22Y - 30Y + 165 (2Y - 11)(2Y - 15) = 0 ⇒ Y = +[latex]\frac{15}{2}[/latex],+[latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex] say x= [latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex] and y = [latex]\frac{15}{2}[/latex] ; y>x but if say x=latex]\frac{13}{2}[/latex] and y = [latex]\frac{11}{2}[/latex]; then x>y Hence, No relation.
66. A, B and C started a business with investments of Rs4,200/-, Rs3,600/- and Rs2,400/- respectively. After 4 months from the start of the business, A invested Rs1,000/- more. After 6 months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the respective ratio of 1 : 2. If at the end of 10 months they received a profit of Rs2,820/- and share of A in the profit was 1200/- what was the additional amount that B invested?

A. Rs 800 B. Rs 200 C. Rs 500 D. Rs 600 E. Rs 400

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Let the additional amount invested by the B and C will be x and 2x ATQ Investment of A=(4200×4)+(5200×6)=48000 Investment of B=(3600×6)+(3600+x)4=36000+4x Investment of C=(2400×6)+(2400+2x)4=24000+8x ATQ Ratio of Share of A = [latex]\frac{1200}{2820}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{48000}{(108000+12x)}[/latex] ⇒X=400 Hence additional investment of B=x=400 rupees
67. Ruval goes to a multiplex at the speed of 3 km/hr to see a movie and reaches 5 minutes late. If she travels at the speed of 4 Km/hr she reaches 5 minutes early. Then the round distance of the multiplex from her starting point& back is

A. 1 km B. 4 km C. 3 km D. 2 km E. Can’t be determined

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Let the distance be D km ATQ, [latex]\frac{D}{3}[/latex] = T +[latex]\frac{5}{60}[/latex] [latex]\frac{D}{4}[/latex] = T -[latex]\frac{5}{60}[/latex] Adding both equations, we get D = 2km So round trip distance= 4km
68. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per annum, when the interest in compounded annually is Rs. 16. If the interest were compounded half yearly the difference in two interest will be:

A. Rs. 24.81 B. Rs.11.61 C. Rs.22.40 D. Rs.16.90 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Given that 16 =[latex]\frac{Px10^2}{100^2}[/latex] ⇒ P = Rs.1600 When compounded half yearly, C.I. = 1600 [(1+[latex]\frac{5}{1000}[/latex])^4-1] = Rs.344.81 Required difference = 344.81 – 0.2 X1600 = Rs.24.81
69. Harry and Hermoine can build a wonder home together in 2 hours, but the Harry would need the help of Voldemorts with twice his efficiency in order to complete the same job in the same amount of time. If Hermoine and Voldemort worked together, it would take them 4 hours to build the wonder home. Assuming that work rates for Harrys, Hermoine , and Voldemort remains constant, how many hours would it take Harry, Hermoine, and Voldemort, working together, to build the Wonder home?

A. [latex]\frac{5}{7}[/latex] B. 1 C. [latex]\frac{10}{7}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{12}{7}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{22}{7}[/latex]

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The combined rate of individuals working together is equal to the sum of all the individual working rates. Let s = rate of a Harry, e = rate of an Hermoine, and f = rate of a Voldemort. A rate is expressed in terms of Wonder homes/hour. So for instance, the first equation below says that Harry and Hermoine working together can build 1 Wonder home per 2 hours, for a rate of [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] wonder home per hour. 1) s + e = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] 2) s + 2 f = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] 3) e + f = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] The three equations can be combined by solving the first one for s in terms of e, and the third equation for f in terms of e, and then by substituting both new equations into the middle equation. 1) s = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] – e 2) (1/2 – e) + 2 ([latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] – e) = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] 3) f = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] – e Now, we simply solve equation 2 for e: e = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] Once we know e, we can solve for s and f: s = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]– e s = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] – [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex] f = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] – e f = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]– [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{12}[/latex] We add up their individual rates to get a combined rate: e + s + f =[latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{1}{3}[/latex] +[latex]\frac{1}{12}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{7}{12}[/latex] Remembering that a rate is expressed in terms of Wonder homes/hour, this indicates that Harry, Hermoine, and Voldemort, working together, can produce 7 Wonder homes per 12 hours. Therefore we conclude that it takes them 12 hours per 7 Wonder homes, which is equivalent to [latex]\frac{12}{7}[/latex] of an hour per Wonder home.
70. The average age of the males in a company is 36 years and that of the females is 35 years. The average age of the employees of the company is?

A. 14.5 yrs B. 15 yrs C. 15.5 yrs D. 16 yrs E. Can’t be determined

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Clearly to find the average we should be given the number of males, females or employees in the company neither of which is given. So, datais inadequate & answer Can’t be decided.

Direction(71-75): A sentence with two blanks is given, each one indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the words that fit into the blank appropriately.
71. It was an excellent social evening with people from all -------- of life getting a chance to let their hair --------

A. areas, drop B. realms, flow C. arena, undone D. walks, down E. types, loose

Answer: Option D
Explanation: 'all walks of life' means from all the spheres and areas, different occupations or positions within society. Also, 'to let your hair down' means to behave uninhibitedly
72. The once ---------- district is gradually being ------- of its green cover.

A. remote, eroded B. arid, replenished C. beautiful, avoid D. picturesque, depleted E. lush, rob

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Looking closely at the structure of the statement, it is evident that the sentence is divided into two parts which seem to be in opposite in tone and also in effect. Remote means something that is not easily accessible, which has very little connection with the 'erosion of the green cover', so option A is incorrect. Arid means a place barren of any vegetation, and 'replenishment of green cover' makes sense but 'replenished' can't be followed by the preposition 'of', so option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because we can't use 'avoid' for 'green cover'. Option E is incorrect because of the incorrect form of the verb 'rob', which should be 'robbed' to suit the tone of the statement.
73. In an effort to provide -------- for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure thus churning out --------- graduates every year.

A. chances, fresh B. platform, capable C. opportunities, unemployable D. prospects, eligible E. policy, incompetent

Answer: Option C
Explanation: 'Opportunities' refers to chances while 'unemployable' refers to 'jobless or having no work to do.' Thus, the given context conveys that to reduce the number of unemployable graduates every year, most of the universities are enhancing their infrastructure with an effort to provide opportunities for higher education to all.
74. Even as the ---------- elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to -------- this demand, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.

A. economies, meet B. countries, inhibit D. nations, inflict E. companies, counter

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Let's focus on the second blank. "Splurge" means to spend money freely. So if consumers are spending freely on consumer goods, companies would automatically invest in various sectors so that the demand is fulfilled. Thus, 'meet' is the most appropriate word for the second blank. Also, since the sentence talks about recession, 'economies' fits appropriately in the first blank.
75. He was mainly using the account to ------ contact with Pakistan-based JeM terrorists and radicalise youths by sharing photographs and videos related to the -------- atrocities on Muslims in India.

A. end, actual B. create, declared C. cancel, reputed D. terminate, real E. establish, alleged

Answer: Option E
Explanation: With respect to the context of the sentence, the "account" must have been used to "establish" or "create" contact. Thus, options A, C and D can be eliminated. A "declared atrocity" is an inappropriate term, but "alleged" (Alleged means supposed) fits in the second blank appropriately.
Direction (76 – 80): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions that follow.

A) Suryoday, which had 0.15% bad assets, is now saddled with around 6% gross non-performing assets or NPAs; after setting aside money, its net NPAs are 4.5% as cash-strapped borrowers are refusing to pay.
B) While all small finance banks are thanking the demonetization move for the relative ease in collecting deposits, they blame it for the sudden deterioration in their asset quality.
C) The biggest worry of the small banks right now is not deposit collection, as India’s high street banks are flush with money; they are not chasing term deposits as their loan books are not growing.
D) Suryoday’s loan book has reduced from Rs1,100 crore to Rs1,000 as it is selective in giving loans in affected geographies.
E) Farm loan waivers by a few Indian states and the noise in the political circles for such waivers in other states are also vitiating the atmosphere.
F) The liquidity surge in the banking system follows the so-called demonetization exercise in November- December when India’s central bank withdrew 86% of the currency in circulation, leading to a mad rush by citizens to return old high-value currency notes to banks.

76. Which of the following will be the last sentence?

A. B B. D C. A D. F E. C

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Refer to the last question of the series.
77. Which of the following will be the third sentence?

A. C B. A C. B D. D E. E

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Refer to the last question of the series.
78. Which of the following will be the first sentence?

A. C B. A C. D D. B E. F

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Refer to the last question of the series.
79. Which of the following will be the second sentence?

A. A B. C C. D D. B E. F

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Refer to the last question of the series.
80. Which of the following will be the fifth sentence?

A. E B. D C. F D. A E. B

Answer: Option A
Explanation: While arranging the sentences in a meaningful paragraph, we must keep in mind the central theme and then arrange the sub- themes. Here, the first statement should be C which introduces the main theme, i.e., the biggest worry of the small banks. It should be followed by statement F which describes how demonetization has made deposit collection easy thus, supporting the first sentence. Next should be statement B which tells us that even though demonetization has made deposit collection easy, it has led to a new problem, i.e., asset quality deterioration. It should be followed by statement A which talks about how Suryoday’s assets have suffered because of the demonetization. This is followed by statement E, which talks about another problem being faced by the small banks i.e. farm loan waivers who are vitiating the atmosphere. Statement D thus follows it which represents the example of Suryoday in context of the problem mentioned in the previous statement and also, it has been shown as one of the effects of the problems discussed in the previous sentences. Thus, the correct sequence of the sentences is C F B A E D.
Direction (81 – 90): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Economists have rightly emphasized the risks to globalization from economic and financial instability. But they have ignored environmental destruction, and the resulting global warming which is now the central global concern. Fast- growing middle- income nations, such as China, Malaysia and India, have a big stake in globalization- and therefore, in confronting this environmental danger. Their rise has been tied to globalization. They have doubled their trade in the past decade, and by liberalizing commercial policies, have also helped others gain. To China, Indonesia as well as India, environmental outcomes have a special significance. They possess 60% of world’s freshwater resources, 60% of the forests, much of the coral reefs, and valuable biodiversity. But they also face massive degradation of air, forest, land, freshwater and marine resources, with the rise in population, adding up to high cost. The atmosphere concentration of carbon dioxide reached 379 parts per million in 2005 compared to pre – industrial level of 280 ppm. Scientists concur that to avoid massive climatic instability, the change in the global temperature ought not to be more than 20 C above pre-industrial levels. To secure that outcome with some certainty, the concentration of carbon dioxide needs to stay below 400 ppm. Rich countries like United States, Japan and the European nations are by far the most responsible for this and other greenhouse gas emissions in per capita terms. So they must propel mitigation measures to improve energy efficiency and protect the environment. But middle – income countries now account for half of all emissions and they would not want to emulate the poor example set by rich countries.
In Brazil, China and India, air and water pollution is severely impairing people’s health and productivity in the workplace with a direct impact on growth prospects. Moreover, globalization has speeded the spillover of these damages. Growth fuelled by energy – intensive industry, urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric concentrations of carbon, warming land and ocean and bringing extreme weather. In turn, climate change threatens to erode coastlines and provoke droughts and floods, in rich countries and poor. A clear link is emerging between deforestation and soil degradation on the one side, and the fastest rising natural disasters, which are floods and wind storms, on the other. Societal benefits of abating high level of emissions far outweigh the costs of doing so. Yet economists and policy makers have not drawn the implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in trade, energy or infrastructure. Sadly, the costs of such neglect are large. Also, no country, rich or poor, has enough motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would accrue to countries taking action, while others could have a free ride. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the horizon of politician's interest.
The crucial question is how best countries might participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental threats to growth. One opening involves avoiding deforestation. Cutting down forests accounts for a fifth of the emissions, more than those from all transportation. By protecting their forests, countries can reduce carbon emissions in the atmosphere, paving the way for new markets for tradable emission permit that would compensate them for the protection. Whether and how quickly the environment is accorded top priority will determine the future of the world economy.
81. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

A. Pollution from vehicles is the single greatest contributor to global warming. B. The rise of middle – income countries has doubled the levels of greenhouse gas emissions. C. China and India have the motivation but not sufficient influence to implement environmental reforms. D. Urban crowding is an important factor that has added to extreme weather conditions E. To reduce climate instability global temperature must be below preindustrial levels.

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The passage says, “Growth fuelled by energy – intensive industry, urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric concentrations of carbon, warming land and ocean and bringing extreme weather." While the passage states that Scientists concur that to avoid massive climatic instability, the change in the global temperature ought not to be more than 20 C above pre-industrial levels.
82. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to:

A. exhort scientists to provide feasible solutions to stop climate change. B. warn politicians not to disregard the threat of economic instability while focusing on environmental challenges. C. coerce middle – income countries into taking some initiative in bringing about environmental reform. D. criticize the citizens of rich countries for not pressuring their governments to do more to protect the environment. E. urge countries to take the threat of global warming seriously and take necessary steps to address the problems.

Answer: Option E
Explanation: It can be interpreted from the following statement, 'The crucial question is how best countries might participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental threats to growth.' The entire passage talks of the issue of global warming and possible efforts which should be taken to deal with the
83. According to the author, why are politicians reluctant to formulate environmental reforms?
(A) The expenditure of implementing environmental reform does not justify the benefits. (B) Economic stability is more pressing concern for countries today. (C) The impact of these policies will only be felt in the long run which does not benefit them politically.

A. Only C B. Both A & B C. Only A D. All A, B, C E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The clue lies in the following sentence, “Because only a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would accrue to countries taking action, while others could have a free ride. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the horizon of politician’ interest.”
84. What is the view of scientists on the current climate change?

A. Rich countries are solely responsible for global warming. B. Pre – industrial levels of carbon concentration are unachievable. C. Controlling rise in global temperature is possible by maintaining carbon concentration below a certain level. D. Massive climate instability is unavoidable and the focus should be on measures to cope with the fallout. E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: It can be concluded from the following lines of the passage, 'Scientist concurs that to avoid massive climatic instability, the change in the global temperature ought not to be more than 20 C above preindustrial levels. To secure that outcome with some certainty, the concentration of carbon dioxide needs to stay below 400 ppm.'
85. What impact has globalization had on India?

A. It has exacerbated the fallout of environmental degradation. B. Its economic benefits are not felt by all its citizens. C. India has ignored infrastructure development. D. Professionals have left to seek better employment in foreign countries. E. None of these

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Exacerbate means to make worse: Though environmental degradation is one of the side effects of globalization, it is NOT the main impact of the same and hence, option A is NOT the answer. B and C suggest that there have been no economic effects while the passage points towards the opposite. D is NOT mentioned in the passage at all.
86. Which of the following is a means to reduce the environmental threat to growth?
(A) Government should conduct a cost – benefit analysis of various environmental protection measures and implement those which are cost – efficient. (B) Participation of all countries in arriving at a consensus on measures necessary to combat environmental challenges to growth. (C) Scientists, not economists, should determine the risks to globalization.

A. None B. Only B C. Both A & B D. All A, B & C E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The passage says that “such situations call for collective action.” This can be interpreted from the following statement of the passage, 'The crucial question is how best countries might participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental threats to growth.' Corresponding to this, option B is the most suitable response.
87. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. ABATING

A. relaxing B. alleviating C. varying D. intensifying E. contracting

Answer: Option B
Explanation: 'Abating' refers to 'lessening'. Corresponding to that 'alleviating' is the most apt word. Alleviating means to make (suffering, deficiency, or a problem) less severe. Intensifying means to become or make more intense. Varying means to differ in size, amount, degree, or nature from something else of the same general class.
88. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. STAKE

A. perspective B. chance C. support D. gamble E. share

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Here the word 'stake' refers to 'share'. Hence the answer should be 'share'
89. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. PROPEL

A. sanction B. collapse C. discourage D. abhor E. deplete

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The word 'propel' means to shoot up or push. Corresponding to the context, 'discourage' is the most suitable response. Sanction means official permission or approval for an action. Abhor means to regard with disgust and hatred. Discourage means to cause (someone) to lose confidence or enthusiasm. Deplete means to use up the supply or resources of.
90. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. EMULATE

A. copy B. fake C. outvie D. mimic E. neglect

Answer: Option E
Explanation: The word 'emulate' means to copy or follow the course, opposite to that 'neglect' is the most suitable response. Outvie means to outdo in competition or rivalry. Mimic means to imitate (someone or their actions or words), especially in order to entertain or ridicule.
Direction(91-95): Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part is your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
91. The Alphonso is one of the most expensive varieties (1)/ of mango and is grown mainly in western India (2)/ including places like as Sindhudurg, Ratnagiri and Raigad districts (3)/ and in the Konkan region of Maharashtra, India. (4)/ No error (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The error lies in third part of the sentence, the phrase ‘like as’ is incorrect an not used in Standard English language. ‘Such as’ is used for giving examples or explanations. So in the given context, either "like" or "such as" should be used.
92. Nearly four lakh foreigners (1)/ visited India in August (2)/ which show that its (3)/ advertising campaign is good. (4)/ No error (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The error is in the third part of the statement. As the context is about one single campaign, it would take a singular verb. Thus, the third part has the verb 'show' in the plural form which needs to be replaced with 'shows'.
93. The deals include anti-tank missiles (1)/ and a naval air defense weapon system (2)/ asking not to be identified, (3)/ given the information is private. (4)/ No error (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: Option E
Explanation: The given sentence is correct. Hence, option E is the right response. Note: 'Deals' being a plural noun must be agreed with a plural verb, which makes 'include' as the correct verb form.
94. Although Thomson’s model explained that (1)/ atoms are electrically neutral, the (2)/ results of experiments carried out of other (3)/ scientists could not be explained by this model. (4)/ No error (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The error is incorrect use of preposition. It should be ‘results of experiments carried out by other…’ since "carried out" is always followed by the preposition "by" in such a context where the task has been done by another person.
95. Music is said to have (1)/ heals powers that calms (2)/ the mind and increases (3)/ concentration and focus. (4)/ No error (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The error is in part (B). Here, the subject music is supposed to have healing powers. Hence, the adjective “healing” should be used instead of verb “heals.”
Direction(96-100): In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E), i.e., "No correction required".
96. Dust particles have accumulated on the window panes are harmful to health.

A. particles are accumulated B. particles accumulated C. particles that is accumulating D. has particles accumulated E. No correction required

Answer: Option B
Explanation: We need a noun phrase as the subject of the verb is ‘are’, so option B is the answer. Alternatively, "Dust particles that have accumulated " could have been correct, but none of the options mentions it.
97. In an attempt to boost their sales many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils as more healthier options.

A. as most healthiest options B. as less healthy option C. as a healthier option D. as much healthiest option E. No correction required

Answer: Option C
Explanation: 'as more healthier' should be replaced by ‘as a healthier option’. "Healthier" is the comparative form of "healthy" and doesn't need "more" to convey the comparison as it will bring redundancy in the sentence.
98. The grim job market has taken its toll on students, many of who had hoped for a much better future.

A. much of whom B. many of whom C. several of those D. many of which E. No correction required

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Since "students" are countable nouns, the usage of the determiner "many" is correct.However, the usage of "who" with reference to the object (students) of the verb (taken) is incorrect. In such cases "whom" should be used. Alternatively, "who" should be used to refer to the subject of a verb or preposition. Remember a simple thing:- If the concerned word can be replaced by "he" or "she", use "who". On the other hand, if the concerned word can be replaced by "him", "her" or "them", use "whom". Since, 'students' can be replaced by "them", "whom" should be used.
99. The room, cleaned at the beginning of the week, were dirty again on the end of the week.

A. was dirty again at B. is dirty now at C. has been dirty again in D. is dirty again in E. No correction required

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The sentence talks about a particular room and not many rooms so 'was' will be used in place of 'were'. 'on the end of week' is grammatically incorrect as the preposition used in it is inappropriate. 'at the end of week' is correct.
100. The team, losing in the first half of the game, pledging to do their best to win in the second half.

A. pledge on to do the best B. pledged to do their best C. pledging on to do there best D. pledges to do their at best E. No correction required

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The sentence talks about an action (taking a pledge) taken in the past so as to have a positive outcome in the future, which is to win the second half of the game. 'pledged to do their best' is the most suitable option grammatically.