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LIC HFL Model Paper

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LIC HFL Model Paper

shape Introduction

LIC HFL Stage – 1 Online Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 2 hours, a total of 200 questions, a maximum score of 200 marks, and consists of 4 sections, namely – Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, General Awareness. There is a Negative marking in LIC HFL Stage – 1 Online exam and [latex]{(\frac {1}{4})}^{th}[/latex] marks are deducted for each wrong answer.
The article LIC HFL Model Paper provides complete details of LIC HFL Model Paper with answers. By solving this questions candidates can improve and maintain, speed, and accuracy in the exams.

shape Pattern

The LIC HFL 2019 Stage - 1 Online Test consists of four different sections containing different marks with a total of 200 marks .
LIC HFL Exam Pattern - Assistant & Associate
LIC HFL Exam Pattern - Assistant, Associate and Assistant Manager
S.No Name Of Test No.of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
1. Logical Reasoning 50 50 35 Minutes
2. English Language 50 50 35 Minutes
3. Numerical Ability/ Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 35 Minutes
4. General Awareness 50 50 15 Minutes
Total 200 200 120 Minutes

shape Model Paper

1. Which of the following companies, recently bought back nonconvertible debentures (NCDs) worth an estimated Rs 3,000 crore from LIC?
    A. Aditya Birla Group B. Reliance Industries C. Tata Sons D. Piramal Group

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Tata Sons has bought back nonconvertible debentures (NCDs) worth an estimated Rs 3,000 crore from the country’s largest insurer, Life Insurance Corp of India (LIC). It was done after objections raised by the insurer over the hurried conversion into a private company, said an executive close to the development.
2. Which of the following banks has entered a bancassurance corporate agency agreement with Tata AIG?
    A. SBI B. IDBI Bank C. HDFC Bank D. RBL Bank

Answer - Option B
Explanation - IDBI Bank has entered a bancassurance corporate agency agreement with Tata AIG. This is to provide the general insurer’s products to the bank’s two crore customers through its 1,850-plus branches.
3. A general insurer has to appoint a surveyor within ______ hours of the receipt of intimation from the insured.
    A. 24 B. 36 C. 54 D. 72

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A general insurer has to appoint a surveyor within 72 hours of the receipt of intimation from the insured and also the surveyor shall not take more than six months from the date of his appointment to furnish his report.
4. Currently, LIC Housing Finance is the only HFC to have the highest leverage ratio of ______ times of Net Owned Funds (NOF).
    A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14

Answer - Option D
Explanation - LIC Housing Finance is the only HFC to have the highest leverage ratio of 14 times of NOF. NHB also said that capital adequacy ratio for HFCs has been increased to 13% by March 2020, 14% by March 2021 and 15% by March 2022. Tier I capital should not be less than 10% versus 6% currently.
5. IRDAI has imposed a fine of Rs nine lakh on state-owned ___________ for violating certain procedures.
    A. United India Insurance Co Ltd B. New India Assurance Company Limited C. Oriental Insurance Company Limited D. National Insurance Company Limited

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority has imposed a fine of Rs nine lakh on state-owned United India Insurance Co Ltd for violating certain procedures. If UIIC feels aggrieved by the order, an appeal may be filed with the Securities Appellate Tribunal as per the provisions of Section 110 of the Insurance Act, 1938.
6. _______ is set to acquire 51.2 per cent stake in Apollo Munich Health Insurance
    A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India B. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India C. Berkshire Hathaway D. Housing Development Finance Corporation

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC), recently announced that it would be acquiring 51.2 per cent stake in Apollo Munich Health Insurance and would be later merging it with its general insurance arm HDFC Ergo. HDFC will pay about ₹73.2 per share to Apollo Hospitals for the acquisition.
7. CarDekho group, recently entered into motor and health insurance sector with the launch of __________ an online insurance platform.
    A. Carsurance B. PolicyDekho C. None of these D. InsuranceDekho

Answer - Option E
Explanation - The CarDekho Group has entered the motor and health insurance sector with the launch of InsuranceDekho, an online insurance platform. It has a tie-up with more than 20 health and motor insurance companies. InsuranceDekho offers easy, instant and hassle-free insurance experience to its customers.
8. Under Ayushman Bharat _________ per family per year is insured at all hospitals.
    A. Rs 1 lakh B. Rs 2 lakhs C. Rs 5 lakhs D. Rs 2.5 lakhs

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Ayushman Bharat or Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) is the government-sponsored health insurance scheme that provides insurance up to Rs 5 lakhs per family per year at all government and private hospitals.
9. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana has implemented through which of the following organisations?
    A. Scheduled Commercial Banks B. Post office C. LIC D. Regional Rural Banks

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above. LIC of India has been given the sole privilege to operate this scheme.
10. Which of the following terms is/are used to define allocation of a loss between all of the insurance companies that insure a piece of property.
    A. Apportionment B. Concealment C. Deferment D. Endorsement

Answer - Option A
Explanation - An apportionment is the allocation of a loss between all of the insurance companies that insure a piece of property. This allocation is used to determine a percentage of liability for each insurer.
11. ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’ was launched to provide insurance coverage to the farmers in the event of crop failure. What is the rate of premium for Kharif Crops?
    A. 2% B. 2.5% C. 1.5% D. 5%

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (Prime Minister’s Crop Insurance Scheme) was launched by Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi on 18 February 2016. It envisages a uniform premium of only 2 per cent to be paid by farmers for Kharif crops, and 1.5 per cent for Rabi crops. The premium for annual commercial and horticultural crops will be 5 per cent.
12. A form of insurance that pays damages equal to the replacement value of damaged property minus depreciation is known by which of the following term?
    A. Survival Benefit B. Actual Cash Value C. Surrender Value D. Sub-standard Value

Answer - Option B
Explanation - In the property and casualty insurance industry, Actual Cash Value (ACV) is a method of valuing insured property, or the value computed by that method. Actual Cash Value (ACV) is not equal to replacement cost value (RCV). ACV is computed by subtracting depreciation from replacement cost.
13. Limit of an insurance company’s liability under a particular insurance policy is called ______.
    A. Premium B. Surplus C. Accrual D. Sum Insured

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Limit of an insurance company’s liability under a particular insurance policy is called ‘Sum Insured’.
14. Which of the following is NOT true regardingthe life insurance cover scheme PMJJBY?
    A. PMJJBY stands for ‘Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana’ B. People in the age group of 18 to 60 having bank account are eligible for scheme C. The premium payable is Rs.330/- per annum per subscriber. D. The scheme offers a risk Coverage of Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) – Scheme for Life Insurance Cover
Eligibility: Available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank account.
Premium: Rs.330 per annum. It will be auto-debited from account in one installment.
Risk Coverage: Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason.
The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with participating banks for this purpose.
15. The International Association of Insurance Supervisors (IAIS) is a voluntary membership-driven standards-setting organization of insurance supervisors and regulators. The headquarters of IAIS is located at which place?
    A. Vienna B. Brussels C. New York D. Basel

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The IAIS (International Association of Insurance Supervisors) is a nonprofit organization headquartered in Basel, Switzerland. The IAIS is hosted by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).
16. What do you mean by “Ceding Company” used in insurance field?
    A. Insurance Company that passes its risk to government. B. Insurance company that passes its risk to reinsurance firms. C. Insurance Company that only cover non-life policies D. Insurance Company that covers Agriculture sector

Answer - Option B
Explanation - A ceding company is an insurance company that passes the part or all of its risks from its insurance policy portfolio to a reinsurance firm.
17. When was United India Insurance Company Limited Incorporated?
    A. 12 September 1947 B. 22 November 1972 C. 18 February 1938 D. 1 September 1956

Answer - Option C
Explanation - United India Insurance Company Limited was incorporated as a Company on 18th February 1938. General Insurance Business in India was nationalized in 1972.
18. Insurance regulator ‘IRDAI’ has recently constituted a panel to analyse the feasibility of payment of claims in installments. Who was appointed the head of this panel?
    A. Manjunath Bavuri B. P.J. Joseph C. Suresh Mathur D. G.R. Surya Kumar

Answer - Option C
Explanation - In October, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) formed a panel to examine claims in installments. This panel will be headed by Suresh Mathur. It will look in to the feasibility of the proposal of general and health insurance companies for payment of claims in installments as against lump sum payments.
19. Who is the present chairman-cum-Managing Director of National Insurance Company of India?
    A. Naina Lal Kidwai B. T. L. Alamelu C. MR Kumar D. Tajinder Mukherjee

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Ms. Tajinder Mukherjee is the chairman and Managing director of National Insurance Company of India.
20. Institute of Insurance and Risk Management (IIRM) is located in which among the following cities?
    A. Manila B. New Delhi C. Singapore D. Hyderabad

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Institute of Insurance and Risk Management (IIRM) is located in Hyderabad. It is promoted by IRDAI with the sole aim of developing the required workforce for the entire Insurance Sector. 21. Who took charge as the Flag Officer Commanding-in Chief of the Western Naval Command at Mumbai?
    A. Harish Singh B. Ajit Kumar C. Dhinesh Gupta D. Sachin Rathore D. None of these

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Vice Admiral Ajit Kumar P took over as the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command at Mumbai. He succeeds Vice Admiral Girish Luthra who retires upon superannuation, after an career spanning nearly four decades in the Indian Navy.
22. Which bank announced the appointment of Ajai Kumar as interim MD-CEO of the bank for one month?
    A. Federal Bank B. HDFC Bank C. Axis Bank D. Yes Bank

Answer - Option E
Explanation - Yes Bank announced the appointment of Ajai Kumar as interim MD-CEO of the bank for one month or till Ravneet Gill assumes office as MD-CEO, whichever is earlier.
23. Who was appointed as new Ambassador to the Republic of Colombia?
    A. Rajeev Tripati B. Sanjiv Ranjan C. Somnath Chaterji D. Amith Barou

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Ministry of External Affairs announced that Sanjiv Ranjan appointed as new Ambassador to the Republic of Colombia. Ranjan is the current Ambassador to Argentina, is expected to take up the assignment shortly. He was 1993 batch Indian Foreign Service officer holds a bachelor in Economics from Delhi University and an M.A. in International Relations from Jawaharlal Nehru University.The government also appointed Dinesh Bhatia, the present Consul General, Consulate General of India at Toronto as the next Ambassador of India to Argentina.
24. World Cancer Day takes place every year on 4 February to increase awareness of cancer. What is the theme of the day for the year 2019?
    A. I am and I will B. We can. I can C. Not Beyond Us D. Debunk the Myths

Answer - Option A
Explanation - World Cancer Day takes place every year on 4 February to increase awareness of cancer, and to encourage its prevention, early detection and treatment.This year, Union for International Cancer Control, which organizes World Cancer Day, is launching a new 3-year campaign with the theme: “I Am and I Will.” ‘The campaign is an empowering call-to-action urging for personal commitment and represents the power of individual action taken now to impact the future.
25. Which state government declared the endangered Indus river dolphins, one of the world’s rarest mammals, as the state’s aquatic animal?
    A. Punjab B. Manipur C. Delhi D. Jharkhand

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Punjab government declared the endangered Indus river dolphins, one of the world’s rarest mammals, as the state’s aquatic animal.The decision was taken at the meeting of the state board for wildlife chaired by chief minister Captain Amarinder Singh. At present, there are only around 1,800 of these in the Indus in Pakistan. Their population in the Beas is between 8 to 10.The chief minister also gave approval to declare the Kanjli Wetland and the holy Kali Bein River as a wildlife conservation reserve to mark the historic 550th birth anniversary of Sikhism founder Guru Nanak Dev.
26. Which Indian state has become the first State to set up a price monitoring and research unit (PMRU) to track violation of prices of essential drugs and medical devices under the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO)?
    A. Rajasthan B. West Bengal C. Kerala D. Karnataka

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Kerala has become the first State to set up a price monitoring and research unit (PMRU) to track violation of prices of essential drugs and medical devices under the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO).The move comes more than five years after the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) proposed such a system for the States and the Union Territories.
27. "Sopan 2019" The Festival of Young Musicians and Dancers held in which city?
    A. Bangalore B. Hyderabad C. Chennai D. New Delhi

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Music and dance festival ‘Sopan 2019’ has started, to encourage young and upcoming artistes to take up traditional art, in New Delhi. It is organised by Sahitya Kala Parishad and the Delhi government in association with New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC). These six day long festival is an opportunity for upcoming talents from vocals and instruments to dance forms to set an audience base for themselves.
28. Ministry of Coal, Government of India, signed an MoU with Ministry of Energy of which country to foster relations in the field of coal mining and clean coal technologies?
    A. Switzerland B. Germany C. Poland D. Australia

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The Ministry of Coal, Government of India signed an MoU with Ministry of Energy, Republic of Poland in-order to foster relations in the field of coal mining and clean coal technologies. The MoU was signed between Sh. Haribhai Parathibhai Chaudhary, Hon’ble Minister of State for Coal and Mines and Mr. Grzegorz Tobiszowski, Secretary of State, Ministry of Energy, Republic of Poland.
29. India’s fiscal deficit has touched what percent of the FY19 Budget target of Rs. 6.24 lakh crore during the period of 9 months from April to December 2018?
    A. 58% B. 112% C. 76% D. 137%

Answer - Option B
Explanation - India’s fiscal deficit has touched 112% of the FY19 Budget target of Rs. 6.24 lakh crore during the period of 9 months from April to December 2018. The data was presented by the Controller General of Accountant (CGA) which manifested that fiscal deficit of previous fiscal was 13.6%. Fiscal deficit was at 7 lakh crores during this financial year. This is 112.4% of the Budget estimates for FY19, while for exact figures, it was 113.6% for 2017-2018. Fiscal Deficit is the gap between income and expenditure of the government.
30.The largest Krishi Kumbh of Eastern India is launched in which state?
    A. Bihar B. Meghalaya C. Manipur D. Sikkim

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Bihar Governor Lalji Tandon and Union Agriculture Minister Radha Mohan Singh jointly inaugurated the Krishi Kumbh in Bihar. This is the largest Krishi Kumbh of Eastern India. Over fifteen thousand farmers across different states and about two hundred agricultural scientists are participating in the Kumbh. There will be 14 technical sessions during three day Krishi Kumbh. The objective of Krishi Kumbh is to promote modern techniques and diversification in agriculture that could help in doubling farmer’s income.
31. Who laid foundation stone of a Mega Food Park in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh?
    A. Narendra Singh Tomar B. Harsimrat Kaur Badal C. Radha Mohan Singh D. Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Union Minister for Food Processing Industries Harsimrat Kaur Badal laid foundation stone of a Mega Food Park in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. The Mega Food Park is being set up in over 57 acre of land at a cost of around 121 crore rupees. The Centre has also approved a financial assistance of 50 crore rupees to the project.The Park will provide direct and indirect employment to five thousand persons and benefit about 25,000 farmers.
32.Name the second indigenously developed, propulsion based missile system was successfully flight tested in Odisha by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
    A. Solid Fussion Ducted Ramjet B. Solid Furnance Ducted Ramjet C. Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet D. Solid Flamable Ducted Ramjet D. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The second indigenously developed ‘Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR)’ propulsion-based missile system was successfully flight tested in Odisha by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Unlike conventional rockets that carry propellant and oxidizer, Ramjet uses the air as an oxidizer just like a jet engine. Therefore the weight of the fuel required is eliminated. The first flight of SFDR, developed under a joint Indo-Russian R&D project, was tested in 2018. It had achieved the speed of Mach 3.
33. WWho clinched Chennai Open ATP Challenger title?
    A. Quentin Halys B. Corentin Moutet C. Elliot Benchetrit D. Ugo Humbert

Answer - Option B
Explanation - France’s Corentin Moutet has clinched the Chennai Open ATP Challenger tournament title after beating Andrew Harris of Australia 6-3,6-3 in the singles final. It was the second Challenger title for Moutet, who received $7,200 and 80 ATP points.
34. Fifth International Dam Safety Conference to be held in which city?
    A. Ahemadabad B. Kolkata C. Bhubaneshwar D. Jodhpur

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The 5th International Dam Safety Conference 2019 is held in Bhubaneswar as a joint initiative of the Government of India, Government of Odisha and the World Bank under aegis of the ongoing World Bank assisted Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) as a part of institutional strengthening. Dam Safety Conferences are being organized as an annual event in different DRIP States in collaboration with the Implementing Agencies and leading academic institutes to provide a common platform for all stakeholders including non-DRIP States. Globally India ranks third after China and the USA in terms of the number of large dams with 5264 large dams in operation and 437 large dams under construction.
35. Which government boby signed Statement of Intent with the MSDF to document systemic transformation in education?
    A. RBI B. NITI AAYOG C. SEBI D. Ministry of Finance

Answer - Option B
Explanation - NITI Aayog signed a Statement of Intent with the Michael & Susan Dell Foundation (MSDF) to codify, document and share best practices to improve learning outcomes in public school education through systemic reforms, based on their collective experiences of working with various state governments in India. The SOI was signed in the presence of NITI Aayog CEO Amitabh Kant, by Alok Kumar, Adviser (HRD), NITI Aayog and Barun Mohanty, Managing Director (International), MSDF.
36. Kerala government inaugurated the Ascend 2019 conference in which city?
    A. Thiruvananthapuram B. Kochi C. Kozhikode D. Thrissur

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Kerala government inaugurated the Ascend 2019 conference in Kochi. ‘ASCEND KERALA 2019’ is an event planned to showcase the various initiatives undertaken by the Government of Kerala as part of the Ease of Doing Business reforms. The initiatives would make the state a top investment destination and empower entrepreneurs to launch their enterprises in a speedy and hassle-free manner. Kerala chief minister Pinarayi Vijayan released the ‘Invest Kerala Guide’ at the inaugural session of the event. Union minister of commerce & industries and civil aviation Suresh Prabhu was the chief guest at the opening ceremony. The government also launched the two software applications, Kswift (Kerala single window interface for fast, transparent clearances) and intelligent building plan management system (IBPMS).
37. The Government of India, Government of Himachal Pradesh and the World Bank signed a _______ Million dollar Loan Agreement to help bring clean and reliable drinking water to the citizens of the Greater Shimla area.
    A. $35 B. $40 C. $45 D. $50

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Government of India, Government of Himachal Pradesh and the World Bank signed a $40 Million Loan Agreement to help bring clean and reliable drinking water to the citizens of the Greater Shimla area. The Shimla Water Supply and Sewerage Service Delivery Reform Programmatic Development Policy Loan is expected to improve water supply and sanitation (WSS) services in and around the iconic hill city of Shimla. The $40 Million Loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a 4-year grace period and a maturity of 15.5 years.
38. William Barr sworn in as Attorney General of which country?
    A. USA B. UK C. Canada D. Germany

Answer - Option A
Explanation - William Barr was sworn for second time as the nation’s Attorney General. Mr. Barr was also served as the Attorney General from 1991 to 1993 during President George H.W. Bush’s administration. The Senate voted 54-45 to confirm his appointment and he succeeds Jeff Sessions. He was 85th attorney general of the United States.
39. Kerala government inaugurated the Ascend 2019 conference in which city?
    A. Thiruvananthapuram B. Kochi C. Kozhikode D. Thrissur

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Kerala government inaugurated the Ascend 2019 conference in Kochi. ‘ASCEND KERALA 2019’ is an event planned to showcase the various initiatives undertaken by the Government of Kerala as part of the Ease of Doing Business reforms. The initiatives would make the state a top investment destination and empower entrepreneurs to launch their enterprises in a speedy and hassle-free manner. Kerala chief minister Pinarayi Vijayan released the ‘Invest Kerala Guide’ at the inaugural session of the event. Union minister of commerce & industries and civil aviation Suresh Prabhu was the chief guest at the opening ceremony. The government also launched the two software applications, Kswift (Kerala single window interface for fast, transparent clearances) and intelligent building plan management system (IBPMS).
40. The Government of India, Government of Himachal Pradesh and the World Bank signed a _______ Million dollar Loan Agreement to help bring clean and reliable drinking water to the citizens of the Greater Shimla area.
    A. $35 B. $40 C. $45 D. $50

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Government of India, Government of Himachal Pradesh and the World Bank signed a $40 Million Loan Agreement to help bring clean and reliable drinking water to the citizens of the Greater Shimla area. The Shimla Water Supply and Sewerage Service Delivery Reform Programmatic Development Policy Loan is expected to improve water supply and sanitation (WSS) services in and around the iconic hill city of Shimla. The $40 Million Loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a 4-year grace period and a maturity of 15.5 years.
41. “Revere all the Buddhas, revere the dharma, revere the sangha” Which among the following quotes this _________?
    A. Allahabad Pillar Inscription B. Asoka Edict XII C. Asoka Edict X D. Mathura Lion capital

Answer - Option D
42. Which of the following states were created in 1987?
    A. Maharastra, Goa & Arunanchal Pradesh B. Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh C. Goa Only D. Arunanchal Pradesh only

Answer - Option B
43. What is the equity of Reserve bank of India in National Housing Bank ?
    A. 49% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

Answer - Option D
44. If a non profit organization is converted into a profit earning company, the process will be called as:
    A. Dematerialization B. Rematerialization C. Demutualization D. Decentralization

Answer - Option C
45. Which among the following types of dunes are most rare?
    A. Crescentic B. Linear C. Star D. Dome

Answer - Option D
46. Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?
    A. Gram Sabha B. Three Tier System C. State Election Commission D. State Planning Commission

Answer - Option D
47. The Xinjiang province of China is experiencing ethnic turmoil for the past several years because of which of the following tribes protesting against the increasing settlements of Han Chinese?
    A. Uyghurs B. Mosuo C. Yuezhi D. Wuhan

Answer - Option A
48. What is the relationship between the magnetisation of a paramagnetic material and the absolute temperature?
    A. they are directly proportional to each other B. they are inversely C. they are independent of each other D. None

Answer - Option B
49. What is the effect of increase in concentration on the Molar conductivity?
    A. It increases B. It decreases C. It remains constant D. None of the above

Answer - Option B
50. “Gresham’s Law” in Economics relates which of the followings?
    A. Supply and demand B. Circulation of currency C. Consumption and supply D. Distribution of goods and services

Answer - Option B
Direction(1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H like different mobile phones viz. Lenovo, Redmi, Vivo, Oppo, Panasonic, Moto, LeEco and Asus but not necessarily in same order. All of them are sitting around a rectangular table. Four persons sits on each middle side of rectangular table, while other four persons on the corner of table. All of them are facing towards the centre. D is sitting second to the right of the one, who likes Panasonic mobile. F and G are sitting opposite to each other. C is sitting opposite to the one, who likes Redmi mobile. B is sitting to the immediate right of the one, who likes LeEco mobile. The one who likes Moto mobile is sitting second to the right of the one, who likes Vivo mobile and second to the left of A, who is not sitting near the one, who likes Redmi mobile. G is sitting on the smaller side and to the immediate right of the one, who likes Moto mobile who is sitting third to the right of the one, who likes Oppo mobile, who is not sitting opposite to the person, who likes Lenovo mobile. The one who likes Moto mobile is sitting third to the left of C . F sits second to the left of H. The one who likes Lenovo mobile sits opposite to the one who likes Vivo mobile.
1. Who is sitting third to the right of the one, who likes Panasonic mobile?
    A. The one, who likes Oppo mobile B. A C. The one who likes Redmi mobile D. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation [1-5]- Eight persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.
Mobile phones: Lenovo, Redmi, Vivo, Oppo, Panasonic, Moto, LeEco and Asus.
Note:
i) Four persons sits on each middle side of rectangular table, while other four persons on the corner of table.
ii) All of them are facing towards the centre. v1) G is sitting on the smaller side and to the immediate right of the one, who likes Moto mobile who is sitting third to the right of the one, who likes Oppo mobile, who is not sitting opposite to the person, who likes Lenovo mobile.

2) F and G are sitting opposite to each other. The one who likes Moto mobile is sitting second to the right of the one, who likes Vivo mobile and second to the left of A, who is not sitting near the one, who likes Redmi mobile.

3) The one who likes Moto mobile is sitting third to the left of C.
4) The one who likes Lenovo mobile sits opposite to the one who likes Vivo mobile.

5) C is sitting opposite to the one, who likes Redmi mobile.
6) F sits second to the left of H.

7) D is sitting second to the right of the one, who likes Panasonic mobile.

8) B is sitting to the immediate right of the one, who likes LeEco mobile. Therefore, G likes Asus and E likes Moto.

(Hence, the final arrangement thus becomes)

Clearly, the one who likes Redmi mobile is sitting to the third right of the one, who likes Panasonic mobile.
2. Who is sitting opposite to D?
    A. G B. B C. The one who likes Oppo mobile D. The one who likes Lenovo mobile

Answer - Option D
3. Who among the following is sitting third to the left of H?
    A. E B. D C. C D. B

Answer - Option D
4. A likes which of the following mobile?
    A. Asus B. Lenovo C. LeEco D. Moto

Answer - Option B
5. Panasonic mobile is liked by which of the following one?
    A. B B. C C. D D. E

Answer - Option A
Direction(6-10): In the following question, some statements are followed by some conclusions. Assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions follow the given statements and choose appropriate answer choice.
6. Statements: D ≥ E; F > A; D ≥ C; E ≥ F; B = E Conclusions: I. F > C II. C > E III. E > A IV. B > D
    A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. Either I or II true D. Only III is true

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
7. Statements: A ≥ B; C = B; E > F; A ≤ D; B ≥ F Conclusions: I. C D
    A. Only II is true B. Only III is true C. II and III are true D. Either I or II true

Answer - Option C
Explanation - II and III are true
8. Statements: A > E; K ≥ M; E ≤ L; L = K; G < L Conclusions: I. A ≥ M II. M ≤ L III. K ≤ A IV. A < L
    A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. Either I or II true D. Neither I nor II is true

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Only II is true
9. Statements: I=K; M≤O; Q>M; K<O Conclusions: I. O Q III. I > Q IV. I > M
    A. Only II is true B. Only I and II are true C. Only II and III are true D. None is true

Answer - Option D
Explanation - None is true
10. Statements: C ≥ A; E = G; K < I; C< E; C< M; G ≥ I Conclusions: I. G < K II. A ≥ E III. I < M IV. A < E
    A. Only I is true B. Only IV is true C. Only III is true D. None is true

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Only IV is true
Directions(11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven boys A, D, Y, U, P, Q and J live in three different buildings- Ashiana, Top-view and Ridge. Each of them is flying kites of different colours i.e. Red, Green, Blue, White, Black, Yellow and Pink not necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. Q is flying a pink kite and lives in the same building as only J. i.e. Ashiana. Y is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. U does not live in the same building as A or P and is flying a yellow coloured kite. D lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite. None in the Top-view building flies a white kite. P does not fly a blue kite.
11. Who live in Ridge building?
    A. D, U B. D, A, P C. Y, A, P D. A, P

Answer - Option a
Explanation [1-5]-
12. Who is flying the blue kite?
    A. A B. J C. P D. K

Answer - Option A
13. Who flies the red kite?
    A. A B. J C. P D. R

Answer - Option C
14. Who stay in Top-view building?
    A. Y, J, P B. Y, A, P C. A, P, D D. Y, U, J

Answer - Option B
15. What coloured kite is J flying?
    A. Blue B. White C. Black D. Data inadequate

Answer - Option B
16. Statements: Some brown are blue. All blue is black. Some black is yellow. Conclusions: I. Some brown are black II.Some yellow is not black.
    A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either conclusion I or II follows D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer - Option A
Explanation -
17. Statements: Some cups are slates. No slate is a book. Some books which are cups are pens. Conclusions: I. All slates can be pens is a possibility. II. some slates are pens. III. some cups are not books
    A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Only III follows D. Both I and III follow

Answer - Option C
Explanation -
18. Statements: No lawyer is a teacher. No teacher is a doctor. Some doctors are police Conclusions: I. No lawyer is doctor II. All teachers are police is a possibilit III. Some police are not teachers
    A. Only II follows B. Only III follows C. Either II or III follows D. Both II and III follow.

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
19. Statements: Some rats are cats. All cats are bats. No bat is a dog Conclusions: I. Some rats are definitely not dogs II. No rat is dog III. Not cat is a dog
    A. Only I follows. B. Only II follows. C. Both I and II follow. D. Both I and III follow.

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
20. Statements: Some tables are chairs. No chair is a pen. All pens are books Conclusions: I. Some chairs are definitely not books II. Some pens are not tables. III. Some tables being not books is a possibility
    A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Both I and II follow

Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
‘festival celebrate happy home india’ is written as ‘ti cu ko mo je’, ‘india Biggest festival’ is written as ‘de cu ko’, ‘Biggest growth india’ is written as ‘cu pa de’ ‘festival happy watch india’ is written as ‘cu ti ko su’.
21. Which of the following is the code for ‘home’?
    A. je B. ti C. mo D. either (a) or (c)

Answer - Option D
Explanation [1-5]-
22. What does ‘ti’ stand for?
    A. festival B. happy C. home D. watch

Answer - Option B
23. Which of the following will be the code for ‘india watch festival’?
    A. su cu ti B. su ko cu C. ti ko cu D. ko mo su

Answer - Option B
24. Which of the following may be the possible code for ‘festival should happy watch india’?
    A. cu ti ko su ye B. ye ti su ko mo C. cu ti mo su ye D. ti ko cu ye je

Answer - Option A
25. Which of the following is the code for ‘Biggest’?
    A. mo B. je C. ko D. de

Answer - Option D
26. X introduces Y saying, "He is the husband of the granddaughter of the father of my father ". How is Y related to X?
    A. Brother B. Brother-in-law C. Son-in-law D. Son

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Father's father [latex]\rightarrow[/latex] Grandfather; Grandfather’s granddaughter [latex]\rightarrow[/latex] Sister; Sister's husband [latex]\rightarrow[/latex] Brother-in-law.
So, Y is X's Brother-in-law.
27. Arun said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother." Who is Arun to the girl?
    A. Grandfather B. Father C. Husband D. Father-in-law

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Mother's grandson — Son, Son's wife — Daughter-in.law
28. Deepak is the brother of Ravi. Rekha is the sister of Atul. Ravi is the son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha?
    A. Son B. Brother C. Father D. Nephew

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Deepak is the son of Ravi, who is the son of Rekha. Thus, Deepak is the son of Rekha
Directions (28-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P%Q (32)- P is 8m in north of Q P$Q (24)- P is 6m in south of Q P#Q (48)- P is 12m in east of Q P&Q (16)- P is 4m in west of Q D#H (12), L%O (28), P&T (44), M%L (4), D&I (36) I$J (64), W&O(44), J&P(4), T%W(40)
29. What is the direction and shortest distance of point L with respect to point I?
    A. 2√349m, North-East B. 28m, North-East C. √789m, South-West D. 27m, North-East

Answer - Option A
Explanation [29-33]-
30. What is the direction of point J with respect to point M?
    A. South-east B. North-east C. South D. None of these

Answer - Option D
31. If Point S is 7m south of point J then What is the Shortest distance between S and H?
    A. 14m B. 17m C. 11m D. 15m

Answer - Option D
32. If X is mid-point of J and T, then what is the distance between X and P?
    A. 6m B. 7m C. 5m D. 9m

Answer - Option C
33. If point Y is 3m west of point I and 7m south of point Z then What is the direction of point O with respect to point Z?
    A. East B. North-east C. South-East D. North

Answer - Option C
Directions (34-38): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight Persons are going to attend seminar on two different dates-13th and 28th of the four different months starting from March to June.
Only three persons attend seminar between V and U, who goes in the month which has an even number of days. More than four persons attend seminar after P. Only two persons attend seminar between P and T, who attends on an even number date. V attends seminar immediate after R, but not in the same month. Q and W attend seminar on the same date but in different month. More than one person attend seminar between S and W. U and T doesn’t attend seminar in the same month.
34. Who among the following attends seminar on 28th May?
    A. T B. Q C. P D. S

Answer - Option B
Explanation [34-38]-
35. V attends seminar on which of the following month?
    A. April B. June C. March D. May

Answer - Option A
36. How many persons are going in between R and Q?
    A. Two B. One C. Three D. More than Three

Answer - Option C
37. Which of the statement is true about W?
    A. W attends seminar on an odd number date B. W attends seminar on the month which has even number of days C. Only two persons are attending seminar between T and W D. Q attends seminar immediate before W

Answer - Option B
38. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, which among the following does not belong to that group?
    A. P- 13th March B. Q- 28th May C. U- 13th June D. V- 28th April

Answer - Option D
Directions(39-43): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, In row–1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them facing south while In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. All of them like a different colour.
B is seated second to the right of the person who likes Yellow. C is seated opposite to the person who likes Orange, who is seated second to the left of S. Q is seated immediate left of the person who likes Black. A is seated immediate right of the person who likes Grey. The person who likes White is seated opposite to B. P is seated opposite to the person who likes Green but not at the end. C likes neither Olive nor Blue. The one who likes Blue face south.
39. Who is seated between A and the person who likes Blue?
    A. B B. C C. D D. F

Answer - Option B
Explanation [1-5]-
40. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
    A. Q and the person who likes White B. R and the person who likes Olive C. S and the person who likes Orange D. D and the person who likes Blue

Answer - Option D
41. Who amongst the following faces the person who likes Olive?
    A. The person who likes Green B. The person who likes Blue C. The person who likes Grey D. The person who likes Yellow

Answer - Option D
42. Who amongst the following likes Blue?
    A. B B. C C. D D. A

Answer - Option A
43. Who amongst the following likes White?
    A. R B. C C. D D. A

Answer - Option A
Directions(44-45): Study the following information and answer the given questions A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranged them following a particular rule in each step.The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement .
Input : round 42 pot 25 16 blue 38 arrogant Step 1: pot round 42 25 16 blue 38 arrogant Step 2: pot round 25 16 blue 38 arrogant 42 Step 3: pot blue round 25 16 38 arrogant 42 Step 4: pot blue round 25 16 arrogant 42 38 Step 5: pot blue round arrogant 25 16 42 38 Step 6: pot blue round arrogant 16 42 38 25 Step 7: pot blue round arrogant 42 38 25 16
44. Input : ear walking 10 23 above head 59 37 better 14 derivation 41 How many steps will be required to complete the above input ?
    A. 7 B. 10 C. 8 D. 12

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Input : ear walking 10 23 above head 59 37 better 14 derivation 41
Step 1: ear head walking 10 23 above 59 37 better 14 derivation 41
Step 2: ear head walking 10 23 above better 14 derivation 41 37 59
Step 3: ear head above walking 10 23 better 14 derivation 41 37 59
Step 4: ear head above walking 10 23 better 14 derivation 37 59 41
Step 5: ear head above better walking 10 23 14 derivation 37 59 41
Step 6: ear head above better walking 10 23 14 derivation 59 41 3
Step 7: ear head above better walking derivation 10 23 14 59 41 37
Step 8: ear head above better walking derivation 10 14 59 41 37 23
Step 9: ear head above better walking derivation 10 59 41 37 23 14
Step 10: ear head above better walking derivation 59 41 37 23 14 10
45. What will be the 4th step for the given input ? Input : pound 42 red 27 15 girl 29 element
    A. red girl pound 27 15 29 element 42 B. red girl pound element 15 42 29 27 C. red girl pound element 27 15 42 29 D. red girl pound 27 15 element 42 29

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Input : pound 42 red 27 15 girl 29 element
Step 1: red pound 42 27 15 girl 29 element
Step 2: red pound 27 15 girl 29 element 42
Step 3: red girl pound 27 15 29 element 42
Step 4: red girl pound 27 15 element 42 29
46. If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written?
    A. SFUDBSCID B. SFUDBEBID C. SFUBIDDBS D. SFUDBSBID

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Write the word in reverse order and then shift one place forward
CHARACTER = RETCARAHC (in reverse order) = SFUDBSBID (+1 forward)
47. If in certain code CERTAIN is written as DGUTXGM then in the same code how REVERSE is written?
    A. SGYEOQS B. SGXEQOD C. SGYEOQD D. SGYEQOD

Answer - Option C
Explanation - +1, +2, +3, same, -3, -2, -1
48. If in certain code COMPUTER is written as RCOW then in the same code how DOCUMENT is written?
    A. SXRH B. SXHR C. XSRH D. SXGR

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Divide the word in equal groups of two like in DOCUMENT
DO, CU, ME and NT and now add their respective positions in English alphabet like DO = 4 + 15 = 19
CU = 3 + 21 = 24, ME = 13 + 5 = 18 and NT = 14 + 20 = 34.
Now, 19 is equivalent to S, 24 is equivalent to X, 18 is equivalent to R and 34 is equivalent to 26 + 8 = H
49. If in certain code TRANSLATE is written as SQBMRKBSF then in the same code how VERIZON is written?
    A. UFQJYUM B. UFQJXPM C. FUQJYPM D. UFQJYPM

Answer - Option D
Explanation - UFQJYPM (vowels are increased one step forward and consonants are moved one step backward)
50. If in certain code SOFTWARE is written as TOGUXASE then in the same code how WEDNESDAY is written?
    A. XEEMETEAZ B. XEEOETEAZ C. XEFOETEAZ D. XEEOETEAY

Answer - Option B
Explanation - All vowels are kept same and consonants are increased one step forward
Directions(1-10): Study the following information and answer the given questions
Consecutive prison terms for those convicted of more than one offence in a single trial are infrequent in India. When those who have attracted great public odium by the enormity of their crimes are found guilty, the judges are seen to have the option of awarding sentences that are ‘consecutive’, to be undergone one after another as opposed to concurrently, where the longest jail term subsumes the shorter ones. On rare occasions, for example in the case of self-proclaimed godman Premananda in Tamil Nadu, two life sentences have been ordered to run consecutively. The Supreme Court has now provided clarity on the question of whether two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made to run one after another. It is basically irrational and anomalous, says the Constitution Bench. As life imprisonment is for the remainder of one’s life, unless ended by remission or commutation, multiple life terms should be counted concurrently. Accordingly, judgments that run contrary to this principle have been overruled. Consecutive sentences are still permissible if one is a fixed term and the other is one of life, provided the term sentence is completed first and the life sentence begins later.
Unbelievably lengthy prison sentences are not common in India, unlike in some jurisdictions in the West. However, most of these countries balance it with a robust system of probation or parole. On the other hand, the idea of releasing a prisoner under supervised probation after a part of the sentence has been served is still rare in India; both state and society expect convicts to be imprisoned for as long as possible. This highlights an issue that occasionally crops up in judicial discourse: the absence of sentencing guidelines in India. In theory, sentences can be deterrent, retributive, reformative or restorative. However, the present sentencing paradigm is judge-centric, leaving much to the court’s discretion. Some believe this may be right because no two offences, or even offenders, are likely to be the same. Circumstances (aggravating or mitigating), motive and nature of the crime are all taken into account by judges in sentencing. For heinous crimes, the ideas of deterrence and retribution inform judicial discretion, and hence the more popular verdicts are those that award condign punishment. Until sentencing guidelines are framed by the legislature or the superior judiciary, individual judges will have to carry the burden of awarding punishment that befits the crime. By holding that there shall be no consecutive life terms, the court has offered a ray of hope to even those locked away for life, even if it may not guarantee release. For, justice ultimately cannot be merely retributive.
1. What according to the passage both state and society expect?
    A. the longest jail term subsumes the shorter ones B. Consecutive prison terms for those convicted of more than one offence in a single trial should not be infrequent in India C. balance it with a robust system of probation or parole D. the convicts should be imprisoned for as long as possible

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The convicts should be imprisoned for as long as possible
2. Which among the following is not TRUE according to the passage given above?
    A. one offence in a single trial are infrequent in India B. the idea of releasing a prisoner under supervised probation after a part of the sentence has been served is still frequent in India C. most of the countries balance it with a robust system of probation or parole D. Circumstances , motive and nature of the crime are all taken into account by judges in sentencing

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The idea of releasing a prisoner under supervised probation after a part of the sentence has been served is still frequent in India
3. How according to the passage two life sentences can be run consecutively?
    A. two or more sentences of life imprisonment cannot be made to run one after another B. two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made together C. two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made to run one after another D. Both A and C

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Two or more sentences of life imprisonment can be made to run one after another
4. Which of the following is/are not common in India?
    A. a robust system of probation or parole B. one offence in a single trial C. lengthy prison sentences D. both A and B.

Answer - Option C
Explanation - lengthy prison sentences
5. Which of the following would be a suitable title of the passage?
    A. Consecutive sentences B. Many lives in one jail term C. consecutive jail term D. convicts

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Many lives in one jail term
6. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “odium”?
    A. provoked B. adoring C. demonstrative D. detestation

Answer - Option D
Explanation - detestation – intense dislike.
7. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “subsumes”?
    A. fascinate B. allure C. exclude D. palpation

Answer - Option C
Explanation - exclude – deny (someone) access to a place, group, or privilege.
8. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “deterrent”?
    A. obstacle B. catalyst C. incentive D. dazzled

Answer - Option A
Explanation - obstacle – a thing that blocks one’s way or prevents or hinders progress.
9. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “anomalous”?
    A. atypical B. eccentric C. heteroclite D. standard

Answer - Option D
Explanation - standard – a level of quality or attainment.
10. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “condign”?
    A. appropriate B. dearth C. robust D. timid

Answer - Option A
Explanation - appropriate – suitable or proper in the circumstances.
11. Fringe elements, in the name of cow protection has appeared to be(A) / on the prowl and operating with impunity in some of the states(B) /. The unchecked manner in that they are unleashing violence(C) / without the fear of law and order is a matter of serious concern.(D)
    A. BC B. AC C. AD D. BD

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Replace ‘has appeared’ with ‘appear’
Replace ‘that’ with ‘which’
12. The national Nutrition Mission was supposed to be(A) / game changer in terms of malnutrition in India(B) /. Unfortunately , it act like a governing body which measures malnutrition(C)/ rather than it worked in a holistic way.(D)
    A. BC B. AD C. CD D. AB

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Replace ‘act’ with ‘acts’
Replace ‘it worked’ with ‘working’
13. Farming is not just a job, it is a way of life.(A) / The political class in India is largely responsible for the plight farmers(B)/ in India today today find themselves in.(C)/ Enabling adequate water resources and popularising organic farming are some workable solutions.(D)
    A. AC B. BD C. AD D. No error

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The sentence is correct
14. Neither of them were able to accomplish their target before deadline,(A)/ however they were able to compensate by(B)/ assist their subordinates complete theirs,(C)/ who were quite new to the job with minimal or no experience.(D)
    A. AB B. CD C. BD D. AC

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Replace ‘were’ with ‘was’
Replace ‘assist’ with ‘assisting’
15. Incidents of stubble burning following the harvests of paddy crop in Punjab and Haryana(A)/ cannot be avert from imposing fines,(B)/ or giving notice or giving farmers capital subsidy(C)/. Instead, the issue require long term vision and strategic policy interventions.(D)
    A. AC B. BD C. AC D. BD

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Replace ‘avert from’ with ‘averted by’
Replace ‘require’ by ‘requires’
Directions(15-25): In the passage given below there are 5 blanks. Every blank has four alternative words or Sentences given in options (1),(2),(3) and (4). You have to tell which word/Sentence will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the work given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e. “No change required”.
The Supreme Court is currently hearing oral arguments in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala, in which rules that bar the entry of women aged between 10 and 50 years into the Sabarimala temple in Kerala (1)_____________. At a purely (2)________ level the case might well appear to us to be an easy one to resolve. To prohibit women from entering a public space, from worshiping in a (3)___________, one would think, ought to be anathema to the tenets of a constitutional democracy. But, as a study of the rival (4)_______ made before the five-judge Bench that heard arguments shows us, the religious freedom clauses in the Constitution are possessed of a special complexity, which the court’s own past jurisprudence has turned into a (5)__________ of contradictions. Were the court to enter into an analysis of these rival claims, by conducting something akin to a trial on whether there exists a tradition as claimed that is essential to the practice of religion, it would be exceeding the remit of its authority, effectively causing it to shoulder (6)_____________. Therefore, what we need is a subtler yet more profound inquiry. Once the court finds that the Sabarimala temple does not represent a separate denomination the court must ask itself whether it should yield to the temple’s view on an assumption that there does exist a time-honored custom prohibiting any women aged between 10 and 50 years from praying at the shrine. On such a study, the court will undoubtedly notice that most policies of exclusion in India’s history have been defended as being (7)______________________ of faith, of being rooted in culture and tradition. To defer to an association’s leaders in matters such as these can only, therefore, have the effect of immortalizing discrimination. Given the (8)_______ relationship in India between religion and public life, it’s time the court (9)___________ of the public and the private. If the court can look beyond the essential practices doctrine and see this case for what it really is — a denial to women not only of their individual rights to freedom of religion but also of equal access to public space — it can help set the tone for a radical re-reading of the Constitution. This can help the court re-imagine its jurisprudence in diverse areas, making a meaningful difference to people’s civil rights across spectrum of caste, class, gender and religion. Ultimately, the Constitution must be seen as representing not a (10)______________ conception of boundaries between the state and the individual, but as a transcendental tool for social revolution.
16. 1
    A.placing reliance on these rules B. have been called into question C. from entering the shrine D. would affect the idol’s “celibacy” and “austerity”

Answer - Option B
Explanation - have been called into question
17. 2
    A. screeching B. berating C. unreflecting D. revile

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Unreflecting- not engaging in reflection or thought
18. 3
    A. shrine of their choice B. the case is a clash between a series of apparently conflicting C. how its religious affairs ought to be managed D. rights of a community of devotees

Answer - Option A
Explanation - shrine of their choice
19. 4
    A. glut B. contentions C. sardonic D. epigram

Answer - B
Explanation - Contentions- heated disagreement
20. 5
    A. furtive B. vituperate C. voluptuous D. quagmire

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Quagmire- an awkward, complex, or hazardous situation
21. 6
    A. pray at the shrine B. rights to be recognized as equals under the Constitution C. seeking to assert not only their freedom to unreservedly enter D. dogmatic power over theology

Answer - Option D
Explanation - dogmatic power over theology
22. 7
    A. the disabilities imposed by custom B. extensions of a prescription C. usage on certain classes of Hindus D. broad exceptions to the freedom of religion

Answer - Option B
Explanation - extensions of a prescription
23. 8
    A. inexorable B. cadence C. exorable D. epicurean

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Inexorable- impossible to stop or prevent
24. 9
    A. in the interests of social welfare and reform B. intrinsic facet of a liberal democracy C. shattered the conventional divides D. crucially, to the guarantee of other fundamental rights

Answer - Option C
Explanation - shattered the conventional divides
25. 10
    A. hoary B. cloy C. revivify D. dispel

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Hoary- overused and unoriginal
Directions (26-35) Which of the following phrases given against each sentence can replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence grammatically and contextually? if none of the phrases can replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence , select ‘None’ as your answer.
26. Empiricists were more interested in epistemology and determining precisely what and how we can know, arguing that experience is the only sure guide to substantial knowledge about the world. I. works for II. initiates for III. lead to
    A. II , III B. III C. I D. II

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Lead to – cause to go
27. Interference and diffraction really should be treated simultaneously as they are both effects due to the combining of waves by to the principle of superposition. I. be abrogated II. to be furnished III. be conducted
    A. III B. II C. I, II D. I

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Be conducted – organized
28. The idea of the Indian Ocean as a demilitarised area is not anachronistic. In 2014, National Security Adviser Ajit Doval evoked the idea of the zone of peace in his speech at the Galle Dialogue in Sri Lanka. I. induced the II. complimented the III. excruciated the
    A. II B. I, III C. I D. III

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Induced – succeed in persuading
29. The United States is seeking a negotiated end to North Korea’s nuclear weapons program and U.S. officials believe there was some dissension in the military about Kim’s approaches to South Korea and the United States. I. few compunctions II. some contention III. bombastic
    A. III B. I, II C. I D. II

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Some contention – heated disagreement
30. A judiciary which reflects the composition of the society it serves enjoys a greater degree of legitimacy , as it signals an equality of opportunity for marginalised groups. I. it provides II. it falls III. it accords
    A. II B. I C. II, III D. III

Answer - Option B
31. Historians agree unanimously that the French Revolution was a watershed event that changed Europe irrevocably, following in the footsteps of the American Revolution, which had occurred just a decade earlier. I. permit submerging II. submit perchance III. comply collectively
    A. II B. I C. II, III D. III

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Comply collectively – act as a group in agreement
32. Recognising the diminished tempo of globalisation, India’s economic policymakers must address the growth in the home market, which is the demand for goods and services emanating from within the country. I. empowering of II. emerging from III. consenting to
    A. III B. I C. II D. I, II

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Emerging from – become apparent or prominent
33. The draft policy as well as many other reports have paid great attention to the fact that data collection is increasingly being done by contractual employees and for-profit organisations. I. is progressively II. is accidently III. is endorsing
    A. I B. II C. III D. I, II

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Is progressively- forward looking
34. Where two or more crops are taken normally, it is time to begin preparation for a good rabi crop by assembling the seeds, soil nutrients, and other agronomic inputs needed for timely sowing and good plant population. I. by presuming II. by congregating III. by authorizing
    A. III B. II C. I D. I, II

Answer - Option B
Explanation - by congregating – bringing together
35. Private companies often have rules that protect them from being transparent in hiring policies, in affirmative action or even making public the salaries of all their employees. I. performing act II. anonymous deal III. assenting plan
    A. I B. I, III C. I D. III

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Assenting plan – approval
36. From the time Albert Einstein proposed his general theory of relativity and existence of black holes, an unseeable frontier has captivated the human mind. Now that there is a photographic evidence, it makes it all the more real and facinating.
    A. unseeable B. captivated C. facinating D. proposed

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Correct spelling is fascinating
37. Coupled with the momentuous discovery of gravitational waves, generated by two black holes, in 2015 by LIGO, the black hole image of M87 is a testament to engineering skills. It will help to form international collaborations to pool the capabilities of disparate scientific instruments and perceive phenomena that cannot be comprehended by individuals.
    A. disparate B. testament C. capabilities D. momentuous

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Correct spelling is momentous
38. The past year and a half has been an inflection point in cybersecurity with the battle against lack of awareness among busineses and the public sector largely being won, mainly following the two global ransomware attacks – Wannacry and Notpeya
    A. busineses B. inflection C. awareness D. cybersecurity

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Correct spelling is businesses
39. The treatment of tuberculosis is becoming more difficult as most patients don’t adhere to the treatment regimen which includes six to nine months of daily antibiotics. This also contributes to emergence of multi-drug resistant bacteria.
    A. emergence B. regimen C. adhere D. All are correct

Answer - Option D
Explanation - All are correct
40. For more than hundred years now, scientists and writers of science fiction alike have fosterred the illusion that someday humankind will have weapons so terrible that the fear of its impact will end war for all times.
    A. scientists B. terrible C. fosterred D. illusion

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Correct spelling is fostered
41. Given the prohibitively expensive nature of space projects, India and other countries must utilise the increased presence in space to legitimately advance the well-being of their people. This is morally and pragmatically in keeping with India’s power projection.
    A. prohibitively B. pragmatically C. projection D. All are correct

Answer - Option D
Explanation - All are correct
42. The rising popularity of air travel and space exploration are fuelling opportunities in the field of aerospace engineering. It is a challenging and covetted branch, that includes the design,construction,testing,and maintenance of air and space crafts.
    A. fuelling B. covetted C. popularity D. maintenance

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Correct spelling is coveted
43. Western education is more practical, application based and has more room for creativity. This approach, if woven into the Indian system, will make it unparaleled globally. Focus is needed on encouraging free thinking and creativity, coupled with experiential learning.
    A. unparaleled B. experiential C. coupled D. woven

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Correct spelling is unparalleled
44. Terrorism is a well-recognised form of asymetric warfare, and has been around for centuries. Some terror strikes tend to resonate more than others, for reasons that are inexplicable.
    A. asymetric B. terrorism C. inexplicable D. resonate

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Correct spelling is asymmetric
45. Social media has produced a number of paper tigers who do not give any thought to the wider repercusions, especially a divide on the communal front, while forwarding undesirable messages. What is required is self-discipline and dissemination of information on a rational basis.
    A. dissemination B. rational C. communal D. repercusions

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Correct spelling is repercussions
46. Abstinence
    A. meter B. cadence C. sobriety D. flush

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Abstinence- the practice of restraining oneself from indulging in something
47. Affectation
    A. adage B. maxim C. flaunt D. mannerism

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Affectation- behaviour, speech, or writing that is pretentious and designed to impress
48. Belligerent
    A. pugnacious B. figurative C. despicable D. Ingenious

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Belligerent – hostile and aggressive
49. Peculiar
    A. customary B. familiar C. common D. natural

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Peculiar – different to what is normal or expected; strange, unusual
50. Disdainful
    A. mocking B. sneering C. respectful D. cheerful

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Disdainful – showing contempt or lack of respect
Direction(1-5): Refer to the following Line Graph and answer the given questions.

1. In 2013, out of the total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together, only 30% were accepted. What was the total number of applications accepted for Universities P and Q together in 2013?
    A. 132 B. 135 C. 141 D. 123

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Total number of applications accepted by P and Q together in 2013 = [latex](130 + 280) \times \frac {30}{100}=123 [/latex]
2. In 2012, 30% of applications received for University P and 20% of applications received for University Q were from international students. What was the total number of International applicants for University P and Q together in 2012?
    A. 91 B. 97 C. 89 D. 93

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Total Number of International applicants for University P and Q together = [latex]210 \times \frac {30}{100} + 140 \times \frac {20}{100} [/latex]
= 63 + 28 = 91
3. If the respective ratio of total number of applications received for University P and Q together in 2016 and 2017 is 3:4. What was the total number of applications received for University P and Q together in 2017?
    A. 456 B. 560 C. 540 D. 530

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together in 2016 = 230 + 190 = 420
Total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together in 2017 = 420 [latex]\times \frac {4}{3} = 560[/latex]
4. What is the average number of applications received for University P in 2013, 2015 and 2016?
    A. 190 B. 180 C. 179 D. 200

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Average number of applications received for University A in 2013, 2015 and 2016
= [latex]\frac {(130 + 210 + 230)} {3} = 190[/latex]
5. Number of applications received for University Q increased by what percent from 2012 to 2014?
    A. [latex]\frac {100}{7}[/latex]% B. [latex]\frac {200}{7}[/latex]% C. [latex]\frac {300}{7}[/latex]% D. [latex]\frac {400}{7}[/latex]%

Answer - Option D
Explanation - % [latex]= \frac {(220-140)}{140} \times 100 = \frac {400}{7} [/latex]%
Direction(6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give answer:–
6. Bipul, Vijay and Rahul are three friends dividing Rs.310 among themselves. What will be the share of Bipul? I. Vijay gets Rs.16 more than Rahul II. Bipul gets Rs.3 more than Rahul III. Bipul gets Rs.13 less than Vijay
    A. Only II and III B. All are sufficient C. III and either I or II are sufficient D. Any two are sufficient

Answer - Option D
Explanation - B + V + R = 310
From I, V = 16+R
From II, B = 3+R
From III, B = V-13
Three equations three variables so answer can be obtained from any two alone.
7. A branch has a manager, a clerk and a sub staff. What is the salary of the sub staff?
    A. Only I and II B. Only II and III C. Only III D. Either I or III

Answer - Option A
Explanation - From I, C + S = 38000
From II, C = S + 14000
S + 14000 + S = 38000
S = [latex]\frac {24000}{2} [/latex] = 12000
8. How many articles were sold? I. Total profit earned was Rs. 3000 II. Cost-price per article was Rs. 670 III. Selling price per article was Rs. 820
    A. II and III only are Sufficient B. I and II only are Sufficient C. All I, II and III are Sufficient D. Any two of the three are Sufficient

Answer - Option C
Explanation - From statements II and III
Profit on each article = 820 – 670 = 150
From statements I, II and III
Number of articles sold
= [latex]\frac {3000}{150} [/latex] = 20
9. What is the average age of six members Mani, Naveen, Priya, Pavi, Venu and Ravi ? I. Total age of Naveen and Ravi are 16 years II. Average age of Mani,Pavi are 12 years III. The sum of ages of Priya and Venu are 62 years
    A. Only II is sufficient B. Only III is sufficient C. Any two of the three are sufficient D. All I , II, III are needed

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Three equations, three variables so we can find easily.
N + R = 16
M + P = 24
Priya + Venu= 62
Avearge = [latex]\frac {16 + 24 + 62}{6}[/latex]
10. How much time will the train A take to cross another train B running in opposite direction? I. Train A crosses a signal pole in 7s II. Ratio of the speed of trains A and B is 3:5 III. Length of two trains together is 500m
    A. Only II B. Only II C. Only III D. All the given statements are Insufficient

Answer - Option E
Explanation - From Statement I, Time taken by Train A crosses a signal pole = 7s
From Statement II, Speed of Train A and Train B = 3x and 5x,Relative speed= 8x
From Statement I and Statement II. A Train’s length = 21x
B Train’s length = 500 – 21x
Time taken by A to cross B = [latex]\frac {[500-21x]+21x}{8x}[/latex]
All the given statements are Insufficient to answer the question.
Direction(11-15): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following number series?
11. 2, 8, 26, ?, 242
    A. 78 B. 72 C. 82 D. 80

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Series is × 3 + 2, × 3 + 2, ×3 +2,...
Next number 26 × 3 + 2 = 80
80 × 3 + 2 = 242
12. 3, 4, 12, ?, 196,
    A. 45 B. 40 C. 41 D. 49

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Series is × 1 [latex]+{(1)}^{2}, × 2 + {(2)}^{2} × 3 + {(3)}^{3} × 4 + {(4)}^{2}[/latex]
13. 9, 17, ?, 65, 129
    A. 32 B. 24 C. 35 D. 33

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Series is × 2 - 1, × 2 - 1, × 2 - 1,....
14. 7, 13, ?, 35, 54
    A. 22 B. 25 C. 24 D. 35

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Series is × 2 [latex]-{(1)}^{2}, × 2 - {(2)}^{2} × 2 - {(3)}^{3} × 2 - {(4)}^{2}[/latex]
15. 5, 3, 6, ?, 64.75
    A. 15 B. 15.5 C. 17.5 D. 17.25

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Series is × 0.5 + 0.5, × 1.5 + 1.5, × 2.5 + 2.5, × 3.5 + 3.5
16. 456 ÷ 24 * 38 – 958 + 364 = ?
    A. 126 B. 127 C. 128 D. 138

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 19 × 38 – 958 + 364 = 128
17. 5616 ÷ 18 ÷ 8 = ?
    A. 34 B. 39 C. 38 D. 37

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 5616 ÷ 18 = 312
[latex]\frac {312}{8}[/latex] = 39
18. (85410 + 36885 + 24705) ÷ 1600 = ?
    A. 92.875 B. 91.875 C. 93.675 D. 92.675

Answer - Option B
Explanation - (85410 + 36885 + 24705) = 147000; [latex]\frac {147000}{1600}[/latex] = 91.875
19. 12.5 × 14 ÷ 8.75 + 12 = 20 + ?
    A. 14 B. 11 C. 12 D. 18

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 12.5 × 1.6 = 20 ; 20 + 12 – 20 = 12
20. 5610 ÷ 35.0625 × 25 = ?
    A. 3000 B. 2000 C. 5000 D. 4000

Answer - Option D
Explanation - 5610 ÷ 35.0625 = 160; 160 × 25 = 4000
21. If the amount received at the end of 2nd and 3rd year at Compound Interest on a certain Principal is Rs 24200, and Rs 26620 respectively, what is the rate of interest?
    A.10 percent B. 5 percent C. 20 percent D. 16 percent

Answer - A
Explanation -
Let the rate of interest = r
Principal amount = p
Amount = [latex]P({1 + \frac{r}{100} }^{t})[/latex]
Amount at the end of two year = 24200 = [latex]P({1 + \frac{r}{100} }^{2})[/latex] equation 1
Amount at the end of 3 year = 26620 = [latex]P({1 + \frac{r}{100} }^{3})[/latex] equation 2
Divide equation 2 by equation 1
[latex](\frac{26620}{24200}) = 1 + \frac{r}{100}[/latex]
[latex]\frac{r}{100} = \frac{26620}{24200} - 1 = \frac{2420}{24200}[/latex]
[latex]\frac{r}{100} = \frac{1}{10}[/latex]
r = 10%
so required rate of interest = 10%
22. An engineering student has to secure 25% marks to pass. He gets 47 and fails by 43 marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination?
    A.385 marks B. 410 marks C. 360 marks D. 435 marks

Answer - D
Explanation -
Let the maximum marks be max.
According to the question,
Passing marks = Marks of student + 43
25% of max = 47 + 43
([latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]) × max = 90
max = 360 marks
23. A number consists of two digits and the digit in the ten’s place exceeds the digit in the units place by 5. If 5 times the sum of the digits be subtracted from the number, the digits of the number are reversed. Then the sum of digits of the number is
    A. 11 B. 7 C. 9 D. 13

Answer Option C
Explanation :
Let unit’s digit be x.
Ten’s digit = x + 5
Number = 10 (x + 5) + x = 11x+ 50
Again,
= 11x + 50 - 5 (2x + 5) = 10x + x + 5
[latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] 11x + 50 - 10x - 25 = 11x + 5
[latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] 10x = 20 [latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] x = 2
i.e, Required sum
= 2x + 5 = 2 [latex]\times [/latex] 2 + 5 = 9
24. A discount of 20% on one article is the same as a discount of 25% on another article. The cost price of the two articles can be:
    A. Rs. 90 and Rs. 40 B. Rs. 50 and Rs. 40 C. Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 D. Rs. 50 and Rs. 90

Answer Option B
Explanation :
20% of x = 25% of y
[latex]\Rightarrow \frac {x}{y} = \frac {25}{20} = \frac {5}{4}[/latex]
So ,x and y must be in the ratio of 5 : 4.
Rs. 50 and Rs. 40
25. If the cost price of 15 tables be equal to the selling price of 20 tables, the loss percent is :
    A. 30 B. 37.5 C. 25 D. 20

Answer Option C
Explanation : Let C. P. of 1 table = X Rs
Hence C. P. of 15 tables = 15X Rs
S.P. of one table = Y Rs
Hence S. P. of 20 tables = 20Y Rs
Given: 15X = 20Y
Y = [latex] \frac {3}{4}[/latex]X
Loss in one table = X -Y = X -([latex] \frac {3}{4}[/latex]) X = [latex] \frac {X}{4}[/latex]
Hence loss % = [latex] \frac {(\frac {X}{4}) \times 100}{X} = (\frac {100}{4})[/latex] = 25%
26. If a shirt costs Rs. 64, after 20% discount is allowed, what was its original price in Rs. ?
    A. 76.80 B. 80 C. 86 D. 86.80

Answer Option B
Explanation :
Discount = 20 %
After discount price of shirt= 64
Hence selling price = market price – discount
Let Market price = X ?
Hence X - 20% of X = 64
64 = X – ([latex] \frac {20X}{100}[/latex]) = X – ([latex] \frac {X}{5}[/latex]) = 4X/5
X = ([latex] \frac {64 \times 5}{4}[/latex]) = 16 × 5 = 80
Hence original price of shirt = 80
27. If Nishu can swim downstream at 6kmph and upstream at 2kmph. What is his speed in still water ?
    A. 5 km/hr B. 4 km/hr C. 8km/hr D. 7km/hr

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Basic Formula:
If the speed download stream is a km/ hr and the speed upstream is b km/ hr then Speed in still water is = ½ (a+b) km / hr [memory tool last 2 L cross and make +]
Given : speed downstream a = 6 km ph
Speed upstream b = 2kmph
Speed in still water = ½ (a+b) kmph
= ½ (6+2)
= [latex]\frac {8}{2}[/latex] = 4kmph
speed in still water = 4kmph
28. Sham can row a boat at 10kmph in still water. IF the speed of the stream is 6kmph, the time taken to row a distance of 80km down the stream is
    A. 4 hours B. 5 hours C. 3 hours D. 2 hours

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Basic Formula:
Speed of stream = ½ (a-b) km/hr
Speed in still water = ½ (a+b) km/hr
Explanation:
Given:
Speed in still water, ½ (a+b) = 10 km/hr
a + b = 20 km/hr…………….(1)
speed of the stream, ½ (a-b) = 6km/hr
a-b = 12 km/hr …………….(2)
(1)+(2 ) we get 2a = 32
a = 16 km/hr
speed downstream =distance traveled / time taken
time taken = 80/16 = 5 hours
29. A boat can travel 4.2km upstream in 14min. If the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 7:1. How much time will the boat take to cover 17.6km downstream ?
    A. 56min B. 44min C. 32min D. 48min

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Speed = 7x : x
Downstream = 8x; upstream = 6x
Upstream speed = [latex]\frac {4.2 \times 60}{14}[/latex] = 18kmph
6x = 18
X = 3
Downstream = 8*3 = 24
Time taken for 17.6km = 17.6*60/24 = 44min
30. A man can row at 4 kmph in still water. If the velocity of the current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back. how far is that place.
    A. 1.8 km B. 2.6 km C. 1.5 km D. 3.5 km

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let the distance is x km
Rate downstream = 4 + 1 = 5 kmph
Rate upstream = 4 – 1 = 3 kmph
then
[latex]\frac {x}{5} + \frac {x}{3}[/latex] = 1
3x + 5x = 15
x = [latex]\frac {15}{8} = 1.8 km[/latex]
31. How many 3 digit number can be formed with the digits 5, 6, 2, 3, 7 and 9 which are divisible by 5 and none of its digit is repeated?
    A. 12 B. 16 C. 20 D. 24

Answer - Option C
Explanation - _ _ 5
first two places can be filled in 5 and 4 ways respectively so,
total number of 3 digit number = 5*4*1 = 20
32. There are 4 bananas, 7 apples and 6 mangoes in a fruit basket. In how many ways can a person make a selection of fruits from the basket.
    A. 269 B. 280 C. 279 D. 256

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Zero or more bananas can be selected in 4 + 1 = 5 ways (0 orange, 1 orange, 2 orange, 3 orange and 4 orange)
similarly apples can be selected in 7 +1 = 8 ways
and mangoes in 6 +1 = 7 ways
so total number of ways = 5*8*7 = 280
but we included a case of 0 orange, 0 apple and 0 mangoes, so we have to subtract this, so 280 – 1 = 279 ways
33. In how many ways 4 Indians, 5 Africans and 7 Japanese be seated in a row so that all person of same nationality sits together
    A. 4! 5! 7! 3! B. 4! 5! 7! 5! C. 4! 6! 7! 3! D. can’t be determined

Answer - Option A
Explanation - 4 Indians can be seated together in 4! Ways, similarly for Africans and Japanese in 5! and 7! respectively. So total ways = 4! 5! 7! 3!
34. If the area of a square is equal to the area of that rectangle whose width is double of the one side of the square then the ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle will be?
    A. 1:2 B. 1:4 C. 1:6 D. 1:8

Answer - Option B
35. The length of a park is four times of its breadth. A playground whose area is 1600 m² covers 1/4th part of the park. The length of the park is?
    A. 108 m B. 140 m C. 120 m D. 160 m

Answer - Option D
36. A passenger train leaves Calcutta at 4 PM and travels at the rate of 30 kilometres an hour. The mail train leaves Calcutta at 9 PM and travels, on a parallel line of rails, at the rate of 45 km an hour, when will the second train overtake the first?
    A. 10 hrs after the first train start B. 12 hrs after the second train starts C. 10 hrs after the second train starts D. 12 hrs after the first train starts

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Distance travelled by passenger train(9 - 4) = 5 hours
Time required to cross the passenger train = [latex]\frac{150}{45 - 30}[/latex]
So, second train will overtake the first, 10 hours after the second train starts
37. -24, -18, -11, -2, 10, 26, 52
    A. -2 B. -11 C. -18 D. 52

Answer - Option D
38. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
    A. 4 B. 8 C. 10 D. 14

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let the ages of children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6), (x + 9) and (x + 12) years.
Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50
5x = 20
x = 4.
Age of the youngest child = x = 4 years.
39. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
    A. 14 B. 19 C. 33 D. 38

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let the son's present age be x years. Then, (38 - x) = x
2x = 38.
x = 19.
Son's age 5 years back (19 - 5) = 1
40. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be 27, then how old is B?
    A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Let C's age be x years. Then, B's age = 2x years. A's age = (2x + 2) years.
(2x + 2) + 2x + x = 27
5x = 25
x = 5.
Hence, B's age = 2x = 10 years.
41. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B's share?
    A. 500 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 2500

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x - 3x = 1000
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.
42. If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to:
    A. 1.12 B. 1.2 C. 1.25 D. 1.3

Answer - Option B
Explanation - (x x 5) = (0.75 x 8) [latex]\Rightarrow x = \frac {6}{5} = 1.20[/latex]
43. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000, the new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary?
    A. Rs. 17,000 B. Rs. 20,000 C. Rs. 25,500 D. Rs. 38,000

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Let the original salaries of Ravi and Sumit be Rs. 2x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, [latex]\frac {2x + 4000}{3x + 4000} = \frac {40}{57}[/latex]
57(2x + 4000) = 40(3x + 4000)
6x = 68,000
3x = 34,000
Sumit's present salary = (3x + 4000) = Rs.(34000 + 4000) = Rs. 38,000.
44. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
    A. 9 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less.
Time taken to cover 9 km = [latex]\frac {9}{54}x 60[/latex]min = 10 min.
45. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:
    A. 50 km B. 56 km C. 70 km D. 80 km

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let the actual distance travelled be x km.
Then, = [latex]\frac {X}{10} = \frac {X + 20}{14}[/latex]
14x = 10x + 200
4x = 200
x = 50 km.
46. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:
    A. 120 B. 121 C. 122 D. 123

Answer - Option B
47. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
    A. 625 B. 630 C. 640 D. 650

Answer - Option A
48. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?
    A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Let number of notes of each denomination be x.
Then x + 5x + 10x = 480
16x = 480
x = 30.
Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.
49. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:
    A. 20 B. 80 C. 100 D. 200

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Let the number of students in rooms A and B be x and y respectively.
Then, x - 10 = y + 10 [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] x - y = 20 .... (i)
and x + 20 = 2(y - 20) [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] x - 2y = -60 .... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get: x = 100 , y = 80.
The required answer A = 100.
50. In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man gets Rs. 2.40 per hour for regular work and Rs. 3.20 per hours for overtime. If he earns Rs. 432 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for ?
    A. 160 B. 175 C. 180 C. 190

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Suppose the man works overtime for x hours.
Now, working hours in 4 weeks = (5 x 8 x 4) = 160.
160 x 2.40 + x x 3.20 = 432
3.20x = 432 - 384 = 48
x = 15.
Hence, total hours of work = (160 + 15) = 175.

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