Sample Questions
Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it:
In a SAARC meeting eight delegates A, B C, D, E, F, G, and H of different countries are sitting around a square table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is belongs to different countries India, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan.
F sits second to the right of the delegate of Sri Lanka. Bangladesh is an immediate neighbour of delegate of Sri Lanka. Two people sit between the delegate of Bangladesh and B. C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or delegate of Sri Lanka. The delegate of Pakistan sits second to the right of D, who is the delegate of Maldives. G and the delegate of India is immediate neighbour of each other. B is not the delegate of India. Only one person sits between C and D. H sits third to left of the delegate of Bhutan. The delegate of Nepal sits second to left of the delegate of Afghanistan.
1. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

A. E is an immediate neighbour of the delegate of India B. E is the delegate of Maldives C. The delegate of India is an immediate neighbour of F D. The delegate of Bhutan sits between F and delegate of Nepal E. Shopkeeper sits second to the right of the teacher

Answer: D
2. H is the delegate of which country?

A. India B. Pakistan C. Sri Lanka D. Afghanistan E. Bhutan

Answer: C
3. What is the position of delegate of Afghanistan with respect to delegate of Bangladesh?

A. Immediately to the left B. Third to the left C. Second to the right D. Fourth to the left E. Second to the left

Answer: B
4. Who sit/s exactly between the delegate of Maldives and C?

A. H B. Delegate of Pakistan C. Delegate of Nepal D. Cannot be determined E. F

Answer: C
5. What is the position of delegate of Pakistan when counted anti-clock wise direction from C?

A. Immediately to the left B. Third to the left C. Second to the right D. Fourth to the left E. None of these

Answer: E
Directions (6-8): Read the following information and answer the given questions. In the following question, a statement a statement is followed by two Assumption/ Course of Action I and II. Give your answer as: A. If only I follow. B. If only II follows. C. If either I or II follows. D. If neither I nor II follows. E. If both I and II follows.
6. Statement: While presenting a stage show in a Saifai (Uttar Pradesh), the famous actor and actress declared that they have a practice of either taking full payment or none for their stage shows.
Assumptions: I. They took full payment for their recent show. II. They did not take any money for his recent show. Answer: C
7. Statement: The Delhi court has directed the government to respond to a PIL alleging that politicians were misusing government’s fund's worth crores in the name of sports on advertisement for their publicity.
The course of Action: I. The government should respond to the PIL and ensure that this type of incident does not occur in the future. II. The government should identify those politicians and must warn them not to do this again. Answer: E
8. Statement: ‘We are here to announce that you are appointed as a Content Manager with a probation period of six months and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation’ – A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions: I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of joining. II. Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period. Answer: E
Directions (9-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. (i) A X B means “A is the father of B” (ii) A + B means “B is the sister of A” (iii) A – B means “B is the mother of A” (iv) A ÷B means “A is the brother of B”
9. Which of the following means P is the nephew of R? (I) R x K ÷ P (II) R – N + P – K (III) R ÷ K x P + M

A. Only I B. Only II C. Only III D. Either II or III E. None of these

Answer: E
10. If it is given K x P ÷ R + S – Q. then which of the following is true?

A. R is the brother of P B. K is the husband of S C. Q is the wife of K D. R is the sister of S E. None of these

Answer: C
Directions (11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
11. How is ‘never’ written in a code language? I. ‘never ever go there’ is written as ‘na ja ni ho’ in that code language. II. ‘go there and come back’ is written as ‘ma ho sa ni da’ in that code language. Answer: D
12. Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who is lighter than only the heaviest? I. P is heavier than M and T. II. W is heavier than P but lighter than J who is not the heaviest. Answer: E
13. What does ‘S’ mean in a code language? I. ‘5 $ # 3’ means ‘flowers are really good’. II. ‘7 # 3 5’ means ‘good flowers are available’. Answer: E
14. How is P related to J? I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P. II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters. Answer: E
15. How many students are there between Suresh and Mohan in a row of fifty students? I. Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is seventeenth from the right end. II. Suresh is six places away from Jayesh who is twentieth from the left end. Answer: A

Sample Questions
Directions (1-5): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 1. 8 10 18 44 124 (?)

A. 344 B. 366 C. 354 D. 356 E. None of these

Answer: B
2. 13 25 61 121 205 (?)

A. 323 B. 326 C. 324 D. 313 E. None of these

Answer: D
3. 656 352 200 124 86 (?)

A. 37 B. 59 C. 62 D. 57 E. None of these

Answer: A
4. 454 472 445 463 436 (?)

A. 436 B. 456 C. 454 D. 434 E. None of these

Answer: C
5. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)

A. 1364 B. 1386 C. 1384 D. 1376 E. None of these

Answer: B
Directions (6-10) - Study the information given and answer the following questions.

6. Between 1995 and 2000, in which year has the av-erage employment per factory shown an increment compared to previous year, but decreased in the next year?

A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999 E. None of these

Answer: D
7. If in 1996, 20,100 factories had 659 employments on an average, the remaining factories had average employment of:

A. 559 B. 509 C. 584 D. 534 D. None of these

Answer: B
8. The total employment in 1999 is how many times to that in 1996?

A. 1.45 B. 1.48 C. 1.6 D. 1.42 E. None of these

Answer: A
9. In which of the following five-year period, the number of factories has shown the maximum increase?

A. 1980-85 B. 1985-90 C. 1990-95 D. 1995-00 E. None of these

Answer: D
10. Among the given period, in how many years has the trend of the average employment per factory not changed with respect to the previous year's change?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Can't be determined E. None of these

Answer: D

Sample Questions
1. Which of the following is NOT a direct tax?

A. Corporation Tax B. Income Tax C. Wealth Tax D. Service Tax E. None of the above

Answer: D
2. The World Investment Report has been published annually since 1991 by?

A. UNCTAD B. UNICEF C. WHO D. World Bank E. None of the above

Answer: A
3. What is the full form of ‘CORE’ in core banking services?

A. Channel of Rupee Exchange B. Customer Online Realtime Exchange C. Centralized Online Rupee Exchange D. Centralized Online Realtime Exchange E. Customer Online Rupee Exchange.

Answer: D
4. Which of the following is not an instrument of money market?

A. Money funds B. Share C. Repurchase agreement D. Commercial Paper E. None of the above

Answer: B
5. RBI was nationalized on -

A. 1 July 1949 B. 26 January 1951 C. 1 April 1935 D. 1 July 1955 E. 1 January 1949

Answer: E
6. ‘Project Namaskar’ has been launched by -----------. A. RBI B. PNB C. Bank of India D. Allahabad Bank E. CBI Answer: B

Sample Questions
Directions (Q. 1 - 10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI business is under question because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven't seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programs are focused on customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving the issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, large-scale customer acquisition hasn't translated into large-scale business, with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank's investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents, who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time the initial enthusiasm of applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners don't have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks"' goal of expanding the offering in unbanked markets.
Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programs. Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have a multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide with the off-work hours of the labor class.
Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to be innovative in right-sizing their proposition to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive user application, ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is, therefore, a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various section criteria, the cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost. An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.
1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?

A. People from rural areas have a high perceived value of banking services. B. Cost is not a valid criterion for technological pack selection for financial-inclusion initiatives. C. The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished_ undifferentiated mass. D. The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labor class in urban markets E. All the given statements are true

Answer: D
2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank-‘s goal to expand in the unbanked markets? (a) They do not have an adequate client base to sell their financial products. (b) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills to explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers. (c) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked-market.

A. Only (b) B. Only (c) C. All (a), (b) & (c) D. Only (a) E. Both (b) and (c)

Answer: A
3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?

A. Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut cost) while making a choice of technology to be used. B. The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotivated to pursue their activity as a full-time job. C. The investments made by banks and their delivery partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns. D. Banks do not have an adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market. E. Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programs.

Answer: C
4. In the passage, the author has specified which of the following characteristics of the customer on-boarding process? A. It involves the collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details. B. It involves the issuance of smart cards to the customers. C. It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after the submission of documents by the customer D. It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford. E. All of the given characteristics have been specified Answer: E
5. What did the author try to highlight in the passage? (a) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present (b) Strategies that may help banks expand in the unbanked market (c) Role of government in modifying the existing financial-inclusion policies

A. Both a & b B. All a, b, & c C. only C D. Only A E. Only B

Answer: A
6. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks sustain the interest of their customers after hooking them? (a) Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers (b) Increasing the number of delivery partners in the rural market (c) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application

A. Only (a) B. Only (c) C. Only (b) D. All (a), (b) and (c) E. Both (a) and (c)

Answer: E
Directions (7-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
7. Multitude

A. Impoverished B. Handful C. Acknowledged D. Plenty E. Solitude

Answer: D
8. Ubiquitous

A. Quintessential B. Popular C. Omnipresent D. Simplified E. Abnormal

Answer: C
Directions (9-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Dormant

A. Emaciated B. Pertinent C. Cornered D. Rejected E. Active

Answer: E
10. Delayed A. Perturbed B. Popularised C. Expedited D. Stabilized E. Represse Answer: C
Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(a) The pressure on land is high and the workers on land also are compelled to go to the city to find a job there.
(b) Today, with the establishment of factories, the commodities produced by the village craftsmen cannot compete in quality or price with those produced in factories with the result that the village industries suffer a loss and after some time close down.
(c) The joint family system in India flourished in the days of yore when agriculture and trade in the villages were in a sound position.
(d) With the closing down of the village industry, the workers move to the city.
(e) Besides the decline of agriculture and trade, there are other causes which induce people to move to the city.
(f) Owing to the inrush of people from the villages to the cities, the Hindu joint family system breaks down.
11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. a B. b C. d D. c E. f

Answer: D
12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. e B. b C. d D. c E. a

Answer: B
13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

A. c B. a C. b D. e E. d

Answer: E
14. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement? A. e B. f C. b D. a E. c Answer: B
15. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? A. d B. e C. a D. c E. b Answer: C

Sample Questions
1. Which among the following is not a mobile Operating System?

A. Bada B. Safari C. Symbian D. MeeGo E. WebOS

Answer: B
2. Which among the following key can be used as a shortcut to rename a folder in Microsoft Windows 8 and higher versions?

A. F2 B. F4 C. F6 D. F9 E. F11

Answer: A
3. AT& T designed its first commercial modem, specifically for converting digital computer data to analog signals for transmission across its long distance network. What is the name of the modem?

A. Telex B. Memex C. CompuServe D. Bell 103 dataset E. Dataphone

Answer: E
4. Integrated Chips or IC’s were started to be in use from which generation of Computers?

A. 1st Generation B. 2nd Generation C. 3rd Generation D. 4th Generation E. 5th Generation

Answer: C
5. In Computer programming there is set of subroutine definitions, protocols, and tools for building software and applications. Which among the following is a term for sets of requirements that govern how one application can talk to another?

A. UPS B. API C. CGI D. J2EE E. OLE

Answer: B

Sample Questions
1. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1.Presentation 2.Recommendation 3. Arrival 4.Discussion 5.Introduction

A. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 B. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 C. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 D. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: C
2. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A related to D? A. Grandfather B. Grandmother C. Daughter D. Granddaughter Answer: D
3. A blend of letter sets and/or numbers followed by four options A, B, C and D is given. Pick the option which most nearly looks like the mirror-picture of the given blend.

A.
B.
C.
D. Answer: C
4. Find the number of cubes in the given figure.
A. 15 B. 18 C. 20 D. 12 Answer: A
5. Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives of answer set, which when placed in the blank space of problem figure would complete the pattern. Answer: A

Sample Questions
1. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the no of questions he attempts correctly is: A. 35 B. 38 C. 40 D. 42 Answer: B
2. What was the day on 15th august 1947? A. Friday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Thursday Answer: A
3. A bag contains 50 P, 25 P and 10 P coins in the ratio 5: 9: 4, amounting to Rs. 206. Find the number of coins of each type respectively. A. 360, 160, 200 B. 160, 360, 200 C. 200, 360,160 D. 200,160,300 Answer: C
4. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards.what is the probability that either both are black or both are queen? A. 52/221 B. 55/221 C. 55/190 D. 19/221 Answer: B
5. The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% every year. It was purchased 3 years ago. If its present value is Rs. 8748, its purchase price was: A. 10000 B. 12000 C. 14000 D. 16000 Answer: B

Sample Questions
1. ‘Project Namaskar’ has been launched by -----------. (a) RBI (b) PNB (c) Bank of India (d) Allahabad Bank (e) CBI Answer: b
2. Open unemployment refers to people - (a) Who are not willing to work (b) Who are willing but do not get work (c) Who leave their jobs in search of better jobs (d) Who have been dismissed because of corrupt practices (e) None of the above Answer: b
3. ‘Open Market Operation’ is a part of - (a) Income Policy (b) Fiscal Policy (c) Credit Policy (d) Labour Policy (e) None of the above Answer: c
4. SDR, the currency of the IMF, is in the form of - (a) Paper Currency (b) Gold (c) Silver and Gold both (d) Book keeping entry only (e) None of the above Answer: d
5. Indian Stock Market deals in --------------. (a) Shares (b) Debentures (c) Forward Contracts (d) Mutual Funds (e) All of the above Answer: e

Sample Questions
1. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
1) A small aircraft made an emergency landing / 2) on National Highway 69 and take off / 3) from the same place / 4) a couple of hours later. / 5) No error A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: B
2. The two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) are suggested. Out of these only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.
I. He had realized the mistake he had made and was now ________ himself. II. Does this institution have any ________ features? A. redressing B. compensating C. recovering D. redeeming E. changing Answer: D
3. Choose the word meaning SIMILAR to the word: RAMBUNCTIOUS A. Boisterous B. Silent C. Introverted D. Meek Answer: A
4. Directions: Which of the phrases A, B, C, and D gave below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given, mark E as the answer.
The failure to quickly recapitalize PSBs has adversely impacted the economy in a number of ways. A. in a lot of ways B. in so many ways C. in many ways D. many ways E. No Correction Required Answer: C
5. Pick out the most appropriate pair of words to complete the given sentences. The draft Bill has __ modified the earlier Bill and suggested various measures to fortify the use of uncontaminated DNA samples for investigation __ and for identifying missing persons. A. mainly, objectives B. significantly, targets C. substantially, purposes D. abstractly, motives E. None of these Answer: C

Sample Questions
1. BSoDs can be caused by poorly written device drivers or malfunctioning hardware, such as faulty memory, power supply issues, overheating of components, or hardware running beyond its specification limits. Which color screen is displayed when encountered a BSOD Error? (a) Red (b) Grey (c) Black (d) Blue (e) Green Answer: d
2. Which among the following is the smallest unit in an image in a computer screen? (a) Unit (b) Pixel (c) Array (d) Resolution (e) Clip Answer: b
3. Microsoft Word is a word processor developed by Microsoft. In MS Word Spelling Check is a feature available in which tab? (a) File (b) Home (c) Insert (d) Review (e) References Answer: d
4. There is a network that can connect networks ranging from small location or area to a bigger range including public packet network and large corporate networks. That network's enterprise allows users to share access to applications, services and other centrally located resources. Its ability for a huge geographical access has transformed networking. Which among the following is that network? (a) SAN (b) CAN (c) LAN (d) WAN (e) MAN Answer: d
5. Which among the following is not an Object Oriented Programming Language? (a) Python (b) PASCAL (c) Java (d) C++ (e) Ruby Answer: b

Topics
The section on Proffessional Knowledge will be based on the post you are applying to. There are six different posts (i.e. Information Technology Officer, Chartered Accountant, Law Officer, Treasury Manager, Marketing Officer and Agricultural Officer) under the IBPS RRB Specialist Officer Scale II grade positions. These, alongwith the nature of Professional Knowledge.

Sample Questions
1. To access the services of the operating system, the interface is provided by the:

A. system calls B. API C. library D. assembly instructions E. none of the above

Answer: A
2. Which one of the following is not true?

A. kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system B. kernel is the first part of the operating system to load into memory during booting C. kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system D. kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session E. all are correct

Answer: C
3. By operating system, the resource management can be done via:

A. time division multiplexing B. space division multiplexing C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the mentioned E. code division multiplexing

Answer: C
4. In an operating system, each process has its own:

A. address space and global variables B. open files C. pending alarms, signals and signal handlers D. all of the mentioned E. none of the above

Answer: D
5. What is the ready state of a process?

A. when process is scheduled to run after some execution B. when process is unable to run until some task, has been completed C. when process is using the CPU D. none of the mentioned E. all of the above

Answer: A