1. Statements: All engineers are villagers. No villager is a nurse. All nurses are managers. Conclusions: No engineer is a manager. All villagers being managers is a possibility

A. If only conclusion II follows. B. If both conclusions I and II follow. C. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. D. If either conclusion I or II follows. E. If only conclusion I follows.

2. Statements: Some paints are shoes. Some shoes are sleepers. All sleepers are shirts. Conclusions: At least some shirts are paints. No shirt is paint. Some tables are chairs.

A. If only conclusion II follows. B. If both conclusions I and II follow. C. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. D. If either conclusion I or II follows. E. If only conclusion I follows.

3. Statements: Some chairs are desks. No desk is a bench. Conclusions: All benches being tables possibility. At least some desks are tables.

A. If only conclusion II follows. B. If both conclusions I and II follow. C. If neither conclusion I nor II follows. D. If either conclusion I or II follows. E. If only conclusion I follows.

4. Statements: Some cows are camels. All camels are buffaloes. No buffalo is a fox. Conclusions : Some camels are foxes. No buffalo is a cow. No cow is a fox.

A. if only conclusion I does not follow. B. if only conclusion II does not follow. C. if only conclusion III does not follow. D. if only conclusions I and II do not follow. E. None of these

5. If all the even digits are skipped from the sequence then which of the following elements is fifth to the right of '@'?

A. A B. U C. W D. Y E. #

6. What is the sum of the second prime number from right end and the third composite number from left end?

A. 18 B. 16 C. 11 D. 20 E. None of these

7. Which of the following elements is [latex]17^{th}[/latex] from the left end?

A. % B. 9 C. # D. 8 E. A

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

A. 7*K B. L93 C. J@4 D. $UT E. Y^A

9. What will be the difference between the third last digit and fourth digit from the left end of the number ‘947823165’ after arranging all its digits in ascending order?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 7 E. None of these

10. What will be the addition of the third digit from the right end and the fourth digit from the left end of the number ‘768395241’ after arranging all its digits in descending order?

A. 8 B. 12 C. 17 D. 15 E. None of these

11. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters A, D, E and R using all the letters, and each letter only once in each word?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. Four

12. What is second letter of the meaningful English word that can be formed from the first , third, fourth and seventh letter of the above given word? If no such word can be formed then mark your answer as 'N', if more than one words can be formed then mark your answer as 'M'.

A. O B. R C. S D. M E. N

Directions(13–17): Read the following information to answer these questions :
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a circle facing at the center and playing cards. (ii) E is a neighbor of A and D. (iii) G is not between F and C. (iv) F is to the immediate right of A.
13. Which of the following does not have the pair of persons sitting adjacent to each other?

A. BA B. CB C. DE D. GD E. None of these

14. Which of the following pairs has the 2nd person sitting immediately to the right of the 1st?

A. AB B. CB C. EA D. DG E. None of these

15. What is the position of F?

A. 3rd to the left of C B. 2nd to the right of C C. To the immediate left of A D. To the immediate right of B E. None of these

16. Who are the neighbors of B?

A. A and F B. C and D C. F and C D. Data inadequate E. None of these

17. Which of the following persons are sitting adjacent to each other from left to right in the order as shown?

A. BGC B. FBC C. CDG D. EDG E. None of these

18. Statement: M ≥ P T = M Conclusions: I. V > P II. T ≥ H

A. If only conclusion I is true B. If only conclusion II is true C. If either conclusion I or II is true D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true E. If both conclusions I and II are true

19. Statements: A > B = C ≥ D, V ≥ G ≤ H = D Conclusion: I. C ≥ D II. A > H III. B ≥ G IV. C < V

A. Only I and II are true B. Only III and IV are true C. Only I, II and III are true D. All I, II and III are true E. None of these

20. Statement: Should selection tests be of the objective rather than of the descriptive type? Arguments: I, Yes, The assessment of answers to objective type questions is fair and Impartial. II. No. The descriptive type test is certainly a better tool than the objective type test.

A. Only I is strong B. Only II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong E. Both I and II are strong

21. Statement: Should state lotteries be stopped? Arguments: I. Yes. Government should not promote gambling habits. II. No, Government will lose a large amount of revenue.

A. Only I is strong B. Only II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong E. Both I and II are strong

Direction(22–26): In this type of questions, some particular words are assigned certain substituted names. Then a question is asked that is to be answered in the substituted code language.
22. If 'light' is called 'morning', 'morning' is called 'dark', 'dark' is called 'night', 'night' is called 'sunshine', and 'sunshine' is called 'dusk', when do we sleep ?

A. night B. sunshine C. dusk D. dark E. none of these

23. If 'orange' is called 'butter', 'butter' is called 'soap', 'soap' is called 'ink', 'ink' is called 'honey' and 'honey' is called 'orange', which of the following is used for washing clothes ?

A. honey B. butter C. orange D. soap E. ink

24. If 'sky' is 'star', 'star' is 'cloud', 'cloud' is 'earth', 'earth' is 'tree', and 'tree' is 'book', then where do the birds fly ?

A. cloud B. sky C. star D. data inadequate E. none of these

25. If 'dust' is called 'air', 'air' is called 'fire', 'fire' is called 'water', 'water' is called 'colour', 'colour' is called 'rain', and 'rain' is called 'dust', then where do fish live ?

A. fire B. water C. colour D. dust

26. If 'books' is called 'watch', 'watch' is called 'bag', 'bag' is called 'dictionary' and 'dictionary' is called 'window', which is used to carry the books ?

A. dictionary B. bag C. books D. watch E. none of these

Directions(27–31): Study the following questions carefully and answer the questions given below.
27. Looking at a picture of a boy, Hemant said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son. Brothers and sisters I have none.” At whose picture was Hemant looking?

A. His son B. His cousin C. His uncle D. His nephew E. None of these

28. When Anup saw Sandeep, he recalled, “He is the son of the father of my daughter’s mother.” Who is Sandeep to Anup?

A. Brother-in-law B. Brother C. Cousin D. Uncle E. Nephew

29. Pointing to Kalyan, Shreya said, “His mother’s brother is the father of my son Manish.” How is Kalyan related to Shreya?

A. Sister-in-law B. Nephew C. Niece D. Aunt E. None of these

30. Pointing to a lady, Shahrukh said, “She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother.” How is the lady related to Shahrukh?

A. Sister B. Niece C. Cousin D. Data inadequate E. None of these

31. If Neha says, “priyanka’s father Omveer is the only son of my father-in-law Chandrapal”, then how is Ruchi, who is the sister of Priyanka, related to Chandrapal?

A. Niece B. Daughter C. Wife D. Daughter-in-law E. None of these

Directions(32–36): Which word will come in the middle if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?
32. A. Animate B. Animosity C. Angusih D. Ankle E. Announce

A. Animate B. Animosity C. Anguish D. Ankle E. Announce

33. A. Heaven B. Hillock C. Hawker D. Hilt E. History

A. Heaven B. Hillock C. Hawker D. Hilt E. History

34. A. Leprosy B. Lessen C. Lesson D. Language E. Languid

A. Leprosy B. Lessen C. Lesson D. Language E. Languid

35. A. Haste B. Haphazard C. Host D. Hang E. Handkerchief

A. Haste B. Haphazard C. Host D. Hang E. Handkerchief

36. A. Rumbustious B. Rumanian C. Rumour D. Ruminate E. Rumple

A. Rumbustious B. Rumanian C. Rumour D. Ruminate E. Rumple

37. Statement: “Do not lean out of the door of the bus.” - a warning in a school bus. Assumptions: I. Leaning out of a running bus is dangerous. II. Children do not pay any heed to such warnings.

A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if either I or II is implicit D. if neither I nor II is implicit E. if both I and II are implicit

38. Statement: “If you are a mechanical engineer, we want you as our supervisor.” - an advertisement by company X. Assumptions: I. Mechanical engineers are expected to be better performers by company X. II. The company X needs supervisors.

A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if either I or II is implicit D. if neither I nor II is implicit E. if both I and II are implicit

39. Statement: Be humble even after being victorious. Assumptions: I. Many people are humble after being victorious. II. Generally, people are not humble.

A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if either I or II is implicit D. if neither I nor II is implicit E. if both I and II are implicit

40. Statement: A sentence in the letter to the candidates called for written examinations – ‘You have to bear your expenses on travel etc.’ Assumptions: I. If not clarified, all the candidates may claim reimbursement of expenses. II. Many organisations reimburse expenses on travel to candidates called for written examinations.

A. if only assumption I is implicit B. if only assumption II is implicit C. if either I or II is implicit D. if neither I nor II is implicit E. if both I and II are implicit

Answer & Explanation:
1. Answer: Option A
Explanation: No villager is a nurse (E) + All nurses are managers (A) = E + A = O = Some managers are not villagers (O). Thus, the possibility in II exists. Hence conclusion II follows. Again, All engineers are villagers (A) + No villager is a nurse (E) = A + E = E = No engineer is a nurse (E) + All nurses are managers (A) = E + A = O Some managers are not engineers. Hence, the conclusion I do not follow.
2. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Some shoes are sleepers (I) + All sleepers are shirts (A) = A + I = I = shoes are shirts (I). Now, Some paints are shoes (I) + Some shoes are shirts (I) = I + I = No conclusion. But both I and ll make a complementary pair (I-E). Hence, either conclusion I nor II follows.
3. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Some chairs are desks (I) + No desk is a bench (E) = I + E = O = Some chairs are not benches (O). Now, Some tables are chairs (I) + Some chairs are not benches (O) = I + O = No conclusion But the possibility in I exists. Hence conclusion I follow. Again, Some tables are chairs (I) + Some chairs are desks (I) = I + I = No conclusion. Hence conclusion II does not follow.
4. Answer: Option D
Explanation: All camels are buffaloes (A) + No buffalo is a fox (E) = A + E = E = No camel is a fox (E). Hence conclusion I do not follow. Now, some cows are camels (I) + No camel is a fox (E) = I + E = O = Some cows are not foxes (O). Hence, the conclusion I do not follow. Again, some cows are camels (I) + All camels are buffaloes (A) = I + A =I = Some cows are buffaloes (I). Hence, II does not follow. Thus, the conclusion I and II do not follow.
5. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Given Sequence: T $ 6 U K 7 % * 4 J O @ 2 3 L P 9 8 A # Y ^ 5 W & New Sequence: T $ U K 7 % * J O @ 3 L P 9 A # Y ^ 5 W & Clearly 'A' is fifth to the right of '@'.
6. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Given Sequence: T $ 6 U K 7 % * 4 J O @ 2 3 L P 9 8 A # Y ^ 5 W & Second prime number from right end is 3 Third composite number from left end is 9. Required sum = 12.
7. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Given Sequence: T $ 6 U K 7 % * 4 J O @ 2 3 L P 9 8 A # Y ^ 5 W & Evidently, 9 is 17th from the left end.
8. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Given Sequence: T $ 6 U K 7 % * 4 J O @ 2 3 L P 9 8 A # Y ^ 5 W & Logic: Second element is second to the right of first element and third element is immediate left of the first element. Thus option E 'Y^A' does not follow the logic.
9. Answer: Option C
Explanation: 947823165 After arranging all the digits of the given number in ascending order, we have: 123456789 The third last digit = 7 The fourth digit from the left end = 4 The difference between the third last digit and fourth digit from the left end = 7 – 4 = 3
10. Answer: Option E
Explanation: The given number: 7 6 8 3 9 5 2 4 1 After arranging all its digits in descending order, we get: 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Now, The third digit from the right end = 3 The fourth digit from the left end = 6 Now, Addition of the third digit from the right end and the fourth digit from the left end = 3 + 6 = 9
11. Answer: Option D
Explanation: The given letters are A, D, E and R. At this point three meaningful words can be formed using these letters. “DARE” which means “have the courage to do something.” “DEAR” which means “regarded with deep affection.” “READ” which means “look at and comprehend the meaning of (written or printed matter) by interpreting the characters or symbols of which it is composed.”
12. Answer: Option D
Explanation: First, third, fourth and seventh letters of ONEROUS are O,E,R and S. Meaningful English words are – ROSE - A flower. SORE - Painful, Aching. As two meaningful English words can be formed, thus M would be the answer.
13. Answer: Option A
Explanation:

As per the final diagram given above, each one of CB, DE and GD is a pair of persons sitting adjacent to each other, while BA is not
14. Answer: Option C
15. Answer: Option E
16. Answer: Option C
17. Answer: Option B
18. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Given statement: M ≥ P T = M …… (ii) Combining all statements, we get V > T = M ≥ P P is true. Again, T ≥ H is not true.
19. Answer: Option C
Explanation: Given statements: A > B = C ≥ D …..(i) V ≥ G ≤ H = D ……(ii) Combining both statement, we get A > B = C ≥ D = H ≥ G ≤ V Thus, C ≥ G is true. A > H is true. B ≥ G is true. C < V is not true.
20. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Argument I is strong. Judgment in subjective tests depends upon the individual who judges while that in objective tests is fair and impartial. So argument II is weak.
21. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Both are strong. It is true that the government should promote gambling habits which it does through its lotteries. It is also true that the government would lose a major source of revenue if lotteries were stopped.
22. Answer: Option B
Explanation: We sleep in the 'night'. but 'night' is called 'sunshine'. So, we sleep in the 'sunshine' .
23. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Clearly, 'soap' is used for washing the clothes . But a 'soap' is called 'ink'. So, 'ink' is used for washing the clothes.
24. Answer: Option C
Explanation: Birds fly in the 'sky' and as given 'sky' is 'star'. So, birds fly in the 'star'.
25. Answer: Option C
Explanation: Fishes live in 'water' and as given, 'water' is called 'color'. so fishes live in 'color' .
26. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Clearly. a 'bag' is used to carry the books but a 'bag' is called 'dictionary'. So, a dictionary will be used to carry the books.
27. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Since Hemant has no brother or sister, so he is his father’s only son. So, wife of Hemant’s father’s son — Hemant’s wife. Thus, Hemant’s wife is the boy’s mother or the boy is Hemant’s son.
28. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Anup’s daughter’s mother — Anup’s wife; Anup’s wife’s father — Anup’s father-in-law; Father-in-law’s son — Anup’s brother-in-law. So, Sandeep is Anup’s brother-in-law.
29. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Father of Shreya’s son — Shreya’s husband. So, Kalyan is the son of sister of Shreya’s husband. Thus, Kalyan is Shreya’s nephew.
30. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Only child of Shahrukh’s grandmother — Shahrukh’s father/mother. Daughter of Shahrukh’s father/mother — Shahrukh’s sister.
31. Answer: Option E
Explanation: Only child of Shahrukh’s grandmother — Shahrukh’s father/mother. Daughter of Shahrukh’s father/mother — Shahrukh’s sister.
32. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Anguish, Animate, Animosity, Ankle, Announce
33. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Hawker, Heaven, Hillock, Hilt, History
34. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Language, Languid, Leprosy, Lessen, Lesson
35. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Handkerchief, Hang, Haphazard, Haste, Host.
36. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Rumanian, Rumbustious, Ruminate, Rumour, Rumple
37. Answer: Option A
Explanation: Leaning out of a running bus must be dangerous, otherwise, the warning would not have been there. Hence I is implicit. But II is not implicit. If the authorities would have assumed that children do not pay any heed to such warning, they would not have put it up there.
38. Answer: Option B
Explanation: I is not implicit. The company wants mechanical engineers. One reason could be that the company expects mechanical engineers to be good performers, as I suggest. But there could be another reason; for example, the company’s supervisory job could be such that only a mechanical engineer could perform it. But one thing is certain. The advertisement was for supervisors; this means supervisors are needed. Hence II is implicit.
39. Answer: Option D
Explanation: The statement asks a man to be humble even after being victorious. This implies that people are usually not humble after victory. I is just the opposite of it. II is not implicit because of it generalities the statement. Generally, people may be humble; the point is if they are humble or not after victory.
40. Answer: Option E
Explanation: If the letter mentions expenses to be borne by candidates, those who sent the letter must have assumed that the candidates may demand for reimbursement if the point is not clarified to them. Also, the candidates would not demand reimbursement if it was not a prevalent practice. So I and II both are implicit.

Directions(1-5): Study the following graph carefully & answer the questions given below it.
Production of Steel (in lakh tonnes) by different companies for three consecutive years 2000, 2001, 2002
1. How many times minimum production and maximum production in any of the given years is equal to the ratio 2 : 3?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

2. What is the difference of average production of 2001 & 2002 in lakh tonnes?

A. 2 B. 3.3 C. 4.5 D. 5 E. None of these

3. Total production of A type company is what percentage of total production of E type company?

A. 66.5 B. 67.3 C. 68.9 D. 70.4 E. None of these

4. Average production of A, D & E is approximately how much percentage of average production of B, C & F ?

A. 121% B. 144% C. 134% D. 164.3% E. None of these

5. What is the average of three highest productive (who has maximum production) companies in lakh tonnes?

A. 125 B. 165 C. 185 D. 193 E. None of thes

6. A box contains 21 balls numbered 1 to 21. A ball is drawn and then another ball is drawn without replacement. What is the probability that both balls are even numbered?

A. [latex]\frac{2}{7}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{8}{21}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{3}{14}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{5}{21}[/latex] E. None of these

7. There are 3 green, 4 orange and 5 white color bulbs in a bag. If a bulb is picked at random, what is the probability of having either a green or a white bulb?

A. [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{4}{3}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{2}{5}[/latex] E. None of these

8. 16 persons shake hands with one another in a party. How many shake hands took place?

A. 124 B. 120 C. 165 D. 150 E. None of these

9. How many 3 - letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the word, 'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters is not allowed?

A. 720 B. 420 C. 5040 D. 120 E. None of these

10. 2, 3, 6, 15, 45, 156.5, 630

A. 3 B. 45 C. 15 D. 6 E. 156.5

11. 36, 20, 12, 8, 6, 5.5, 4.5

A. 5.5 B. 6 C. 12 D. 20 E. 8

12. 1, 3, 9, 31, 128, 651, 3913

A. 651 B. 128 C. 31 D. 9 E. 3

13. 2, 3, 10, 40, 172, 885, 5346

A. 3 B. 855 C. 40 D. 172 E. 10

14. 5, 8, 16, 26, 50, 98, 194

A. 8 B. 26 C. 50 D. 16 E. 98

15. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question: 323.46 + 23.04 – 43.17 – ? = 303

A. 0.33 B. 1.33 C. 1.23 D. 0.21 E. 0.51

16. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question: 48.2 × 2.5 × 2.2 + ? = 270

A. 6.5 B. 2.8 C. 4.9 D. 3.4 E. 1.2

17. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B is

A. 4 : 3 B. 3 : 4 C. 1 : 1 D. 2 : 3

18. In a certain school, the ratio of boys to girls is 7 : 5. If there are 2400 students in the school, then how many girls are there?

A. 500 B. 700 C. 800 D. 1000

19. The ratio of zinc and copper in a brass pieces is 13 : 7. How much zinc will be there in 100 kg of such a piece?

A. 20 kg B. 35kg C. 55kg D. 65kg

20. 42% of a number is 2457. What is the number?

A. 5750 B. 5800 C. 5825 D. 5875 E. None of these

21. In an examination, 30% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% failed in both the subjects. Find the percentage of those who passed in both subjects.

A. 35.7% B. 35% C. 40% D. 45% E. 44%

22. There are 14 people in a family and the average age of all the family members is 30 years. A new baby born in a family, After 4 years what will be the average age of the all family members?

A. 30 years B. 35 years C. 28 years D. 33 years E. None of these

23. Mahima bought 20 kg pasta for Rs 30 per kg, m kg pasta for Rs 35 per kg and (m + 4) kg pasta for Rs 25 per kg. She mixed all type of pasta together and the average cost price of 1 kg pasta is Rs 29.6. Find the quantity of pasta that is bought at Rs 25 per kg.

A. 12 kg B. 20 kg C. 13 kg D. 22 kg E. None of these

24. The MRP of a article is 60% above its manufacturing cost. The article is sold through a retailer, who earns 19% profit on his purchase price. What is the approx. profit percentage for the manufacturer who sells his article to the retailer? The retailer gives 15% discount on MRP.

A. 15.2% B. 14.2% C. 13% D. 12.5% E. None of these

25. A costs twice as much as B. A is sold at a loss of 10% and B is sold at 7/5th of its price. If selling price of A is Rs. 1200 more than selling price of B, what is the cost price of A?

A. Rs. 2400 B. Rs. 3000 C. Can't be determined D. Rs. 6000 E. None of these

26. 6 women can complete a piece of work in 10 days, whereas 10 children alone take 15 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 6 women and 10 children together take to complete the piece of work?

A. 7 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4 E. None of these

27. A and B together can finish a work in 9 days. A alone can finish the work in 12 days. In how many days will B alone finish the work?

A. 24 B. 28 C. 32 D. 36 E. None of these

28. A, B and C together earn Rs. 300 per day, while A and C together earn Rs. 188 and B and C together earn Rs. 152. The daily earning of C is:

A. Rs. 40 B. Rs. 68 C. Rs. 112 D. Rs. 150

29. A man takes 5 hours 40 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have taken 3 hours less by riding both ways. What would be the time he would take to walk both ways?

A. 4 hours 35 minutes B. 8 hours 35 minutes C. 10 hours D. 8 hours 40 minutes E. None of these

30. Prem and Shyam decide to go on a trip to Point Y on a particular day from Point X. Prem leaves for Point Y at 11:00 am at a speed of 72 km/hr. Shyam leaves for Point Y at 11 : 30 the same day as Prem left. At what speed should Shyam travel to catch up with Prem in 4 hours? (in km/hr)

A. 85 B. 80 C. 81 D. 82 E. None of these

31. A cyclist covers a distance of 750 m in 2 min 30 sec. what is the speed in km /hr of the cyclist ?

A. 12 km/hr B. 15 km/hr C. 18 km / hr D. 20 km / hr

32. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs. 200 after 5 yr. In the next 5 yr, principal is tripled. What will be the total interest at the end of the 10th yr?

A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 850 C. Rs. 800 D. Can't be determined E. None of these

33. A sum of Rs, 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rate is increased by 3%, it would amount to how much?

A. Rs.652 B. Rs.752 C. Rs.992 D. Rs. 562

34. The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 15 years at S.I, will be:

A. 12% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25%

35. Find the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at 20% per annum for 6 months. compounded quarterly.

A. Rs.4353 B. Rs. 1329 C. Rs. 1025 D. Rs. 2649

36. If the simple interest on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 1400, find the compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate.

A. Rs. 1023 B. Rs. 1435 C. Rs. 3232 D. Rs. 1255

37. Amit borrowed Rs. 20,000 from his friend at 15% per annum simple interest he lent it to Tarun at the same but rate compounded annually. Find his gain after 2 years.

A. 324 B. 604 C. 450 D. 572

38. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 liter mixture is to be distributed in Milk & Water in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 liter milk & 3 liter water will be added in the mixture then what will be the new ratio of water and milk?

A. 5 : 6 B. 3 : 10 C. 4 : 5 D. 7 : 8 E. 10 : 3

39. 48 liter of Glycerin is mixed with 144 liter Rose water. D liter of total mixture is taken out and 32 liter Glycerin and 48 liter Rose water are added in the mixture. The final mixture contains 30% Glycerin, find the quantity of the mixture that is taken out.

A. 24 liter B. 32 liter C. 40 liter D. 20 liter E. None of these

40. A solution of ‘THANDA SHARBAT’ has 15% sugar. Another solution has 5% sugar. How many liters’ of the second solution must be added to the 20 L of first solution to make a solution of 10 % sugar?

A. 10 L B. 5 L C. 15 L D. 20 L E. None of these

Answer & Explanation:
1. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Comp. Min Max Ratio A → 40 : 60 ⇒ 2 : 3 B → 40 : 70 ⇒ 4 : 7 C → 30 : 35 ⇒ 6 : 7 D → 40 : 70 ⇒ 4 : 7 E → 80 : 90 ⇒ 8 : 9 F → 30 : 45 ⇒ 2 : 3 Only twice minimum production and maximum production have the ratio of 2 : 3.
2. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Average production in the year 2001 – [latex]\frac{60 + 60 + 40 + 80 + 50 + 40}{6}[/latex] [latex]\frac{330}{6}[/latex]= 55 Average production in the year 2002 – [latex]\frac{40 + 70 + 35 + 70 + 90 + 45}{6}[/latex]= 55 [latex]\frac{350}{6}[/latex]= 58.3 Difference ⇒ 58.3 - 55 = 3.3.
3. Answer: Option C
Explanation: Total production of A type company - ⇒ 50 + 60 + 40 ⇒ 150 Total production of E type company - ⇒ 80 + 50 + 90 ⇒ 210 According to question [latex]\frac{150}{200}[/latex] x 100= [latex]\frac{750}{11}[/latex]=68.9
4. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Average production of A, D & E [latex]\frac{150 + 190 + 220}{3}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{560}{3}[/latex] Average production of B, C & F [latex]\frac{170 + 105 + 115}{3}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{390}{3}[/latex]= 130 According to question – [latex]\frac{56000}{390}[/latex]= 143.58% ≈ 144%
5. Answer: Option D
Explanation: A → 150 B → 170 C → 105 D → 190 E → 220 F → 115 Average of three highest production which is clearly of company B, D and E [latex]\frac{170 + 190 + 220}{3}[/latex] 193.34 ⇒ 193 lakh tonnes
6. Answer: Option C
Explanation: There are 10 even numbers in the group 1-21. The probability that the first ball is even-numbered =[latex]\frac{10}{21}[/latex] Since the ball is not replaced there are now 20 balls left, of which 9 are even-numbered. The probability that the second ball is even numbered =[latex]\frac{9}{20}[/latex] Required probability =[latex]\frac{10}{21}[/latex]x[latex]\frac{9}{20}[/latex]=[latex]\frac{3}{14}[/latex]
7. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Let E1, E2 be the event of picking a green bulb and white bulb respectively. Total no. of bulbs in a bag = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 E1= [latex]\frac{3}{12}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] E2= [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex] P(E1 or E2) = P(E1) + P(E2) = [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex]
8. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Total possible ways =[latex]16_{{c}_{2}}[/latex] [latex]\frac{16 x 15}{2 x 1}[/latex]= 120
9. Answer: Option A
Explanation: The word 'LOGARITHMS'' has 10 different alphabets Hence, the number of 3-letter words (with or without meaning) formed by using these letters = [latex]10_{{p}_{3}}[/latex] = 10 x 9 x 8 = 720
10. Answer: Option E
Explanation: The series pattern is x1.5, x2, x2.5, x3, x3.5, x4.
11. Answer: Option A
Explanation: The series is –16, –8, –4, –2, –1, –0.5, and so on.
12. Answer: Option B
Explanation: The series is x1 + 2, x2 + 3, x3 + 4, and so on.
13. Answer: Option C
Explanation: The series is ×1+[latex]1^{2}[/latex], ×2+[latex]2^{2}[/latex], ×3+[latex]3^{2}[/latex], and so on.
14. Answer: Option D
Explanation: The series is x2–2.
15. Answer: Option A
Explanation: 323.46 + 23.04 – 43.17 – ? = 303 or, ? = 303.33 – 303 = 0.33
16. Answer: Option C
Explanation: 48.2 × 2.5 × 2.2 + ? = 270 or, ? = 270 – 48.2 × 2.5 × 2.2 = 270 × 48.2 × 5.5 = 270 – 265.1 = 4.9
17. Answer: Option A
Explanation: From the equation, we get 5% of A + 4% of B = [latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex](6% of A + 8% of B) ⇒ 15% of A + 12% of B = 12% of A + 16% of B ⇒ [15 – 12] % of A = [16 – 12] % of B ⇒ 3 % of A = 4% of B ⇒[latex]\frac{A}{B}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{4}{3}[/latex] Therefore, A : B = 4 : 3.
18. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Let the number of boys and girls are 7x and 5x, respectively. Given, total number of students = 2400 ⇒ 7x + 5x = 2400 ⇒ 12x = 2400 x = 200 Required number of girls = 5x = 5 × 200 = 1000.
19. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Amount of zinc = (100*[latex]\frac{13}{20}[/latex])kg = 65 kg
20. Answer: Option E
Explanation: If x% of Number (N) is y, then the number (N) =[latex]\frac{y}{x}[/latex]*100 N= [latex]\frac{2457}{42}[/latex]*100= 5850
21. Answer: Option D
Explanation: In an examination x% failed in A and y% failed in B. If z% of students failed in both the subjects, the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects is 100 – (x + y – z). Given, In first subject failed students = x = 30%, In second subject failed students = y = 45% In both subject failed students = z = 20% By the short trick approach, we get 100 – (x + y – z) = 100 – (30 + 45 – 20) = 100 – (55) = 45%.
22. Answer: Option E
Explanation: The total age of all family members = 30 × 14 = 420 New baby born and after 4 years the total age of all the members = 420 + 15 × 4 = 420 + 60 = 480 Reqd average = [latex]\frac{480}{15}[/latex]= 32 years
23. Answer: Option E
Explanation: According to the question, 20 x 30 + m x 35 + (m + 4) x 25 = 29.6 × (20 + m + m + 4) 600 + 35m + 25m + 100 = 29.6 x (24 + 2m) 700 + 60m = 710.4 + 59.2m 710.4 – 700 = 60m – 59.2m 10.4 = 0.8m m = 13 Quantity of pasta that is bought at Rs 25 per kg = 13 + 4 = 17 kg
24. Answer: Option B
Explanation: The manufacturer sells the product to retailer, and then retailer sells to the customer. Assume manufacturing cost = 100 and manufacturer profit = x As Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of a product is 60% above its manufacturing cost, MRP = 160% of 100 = 160 The retailer gives 15% discount on MRP. So, customer price is 85% of MRP. Buyer Price = 85% of 160 = 136 The manufacturer makes x rupees profit, and then the retailer makes 19% profit. So, 119% of (100 + x) = 136 ⇒ 119 (100 + x) = 13600 ⇒ (100 + x) = 114.28 ⇒ x = 14.28 Hence, Manufacturer profit = 14.2%
25. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Let the cost of B be 100 x ( for the sake of ease in computation) So cost of A becomes 200 x Now SP of A becomes 90% of 200 x = 180 x And SP of B becomes 100 x x [latex]\frac{7}{5}[/latex]= 140 x The difference between both of them is 40 x Since this difference corresponds to Rs. 1200, 40 x = 1200 or x = 30 There cost of A becomes 200 × 30 = Rs. 6000
26. Answer: Option C
Explanation: 6 Women's 1 day's work = [latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex] 10 Children's 1 day's work = [latex]\frac{1}{15}[/latex] (6 women + 10 children)'s 1 day's work= ([latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex]+[latex]\frac{1}{15}[/latex])= [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] 6 women and 10 children will complete the work in 6 days
27. Answer: Option D
Explanation: If A and B together can do a piece of work in x day and A alone can do it in y days, then B alone can do the work in [latex]\frac{xy}{y – x}[/latex]days Given: Time taken by A and B together to finish a piece of work = x = 9 days Time taken by A alone to finish the same piece of work = y = 12 days. By the short trick approach: B alone can do the whole work in =[latex]\frac{12 x 9}{12 – 9}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{108}{3}[/latex]= 36 days
28. Answer: Option A
Explanation: B's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 188) = Rs. 112. A's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 152) = Rs. 148. C's daily earning = Rs. [300 - (112 + 148)] = Rs. 40.
29. Answer: Option D
Explanation: 1 Bike + 1 Walk = 5 hours 40 minutes 2 Bike = 5 hours 40 minutes – 3 hours = 2 hours 40 minutes Hence, 1 way Bike journey takes time = 2 hours 40 minutes ÷ 2 = 1 hour 20 minutes So, 1 way walk should take (5 hours 40 minutes) – (1 hour 20 minutes) = 4 hours 20 minutes 2 way walk would take time = 4 hours 20 minutes * 2 = 8 hours 40 minutes
30. Answer: Option C
Explanation: During the period 11:00 am to 11:30 am, Distance covered by Prem = 72 ×[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]= 36 km Then in 4 hours Shyam requires to increase the speed to catch up Prem by =[latex]\frac{36}{4}[/latex]= 9 kmph Shyam's speed = 72 + 9 = 81 kmph.
31. Answer: Option C
Explanation: By applying a formula, Speed =[latex]\frac{Distance}{Time}[/latex]Then, Speed =[latex]\frac{750}{150}[/latex] m/sec = 5m/sec = (5x[latex]\frac{18}{5}[/latex]) km/hr ⇒ 18 km / hr
32. Answer: Option C
Explanation: According to the question, SI for first 5 yrs = Rs. 200 SI for next 5 yrs = Rs. 200 x 3 = Rs. 600 Total SI for 10 yr = Rs.(200 + 600) = Rs.800. When the principal is trebled, then SI for 5 yr will also be treble and hence SI for next 5 yr will be Rs. (200 x 3) = Rs. 600
33. Answer: Option C
Explanation: S.I = Rs. (920 – 800) = Rs. 120; P = Rs. 800, T = 3 yrs. So, R = ([latex]\frac{100 × 120}{800 × 3}[/latex])%= 5% New rate (5 +3)% = 8%. New S.I = Rs.([latex]\frac{800 × 8 × 3}{100}[/latex])= Rs 192. So, New amount = Rs. (800 + 192) = Rs 992.
34. Answer: Option C
Explanation: Let principal be x, Amount = 4x then, S.I = 4x – x = 3x Rate = [latex]\frac{100 \times S.I}{x \times 6}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{100 \times 3x}{x \times 15}[/latex]% = 20%.
35. Answer: Option C
Explanation: P = 10000, T = 6 months, R = [latex]\frac{20}{4}[/latex] = 5% (rate of interest apply quarterly) By the net% effect we would calculate the effective compound rate of interest for 6 months = 10.25% (Refer to sub-details) CI = 10.25% of 10000 CI =[latex]\frac{10.25 \times 10000}{100}[/latex]= 1025
36. Answer: Option B
Explanation: SI = rt% (rate of interest & time) and by the net% effect we would calculate the effective compound rate of interest for 2 years = 10.25% (Refer to sub-details) 1400 = (2 x 5)% So, 10% ≡ Rs. 1400 10.25% ≡ Rs. x By the cross multiplication, we get x= [latex]\frac{1400 \times 10.25}{10}[/latex]= Rs. 1435
37. Answer: Option C
Explanation: As we all know, S.I. and C.I. for 1st year is the same. for second year C.I. = R% of S.I. + S.I. By this, The gain of Amit = C.I. of 2 years - S.I. of 2 years. ⇒ S.I. (of 1st year) + (S.I. + R% of S.I.) - 2 S.I. ⇒ R% of S.I. As S.I. for each year is the same So, gain = [latex]\frac{15}{100}[/latex]x[latex]\frac{20,000 \times 15 \times 1}{100}[/latex]= 15 x 15 x 2 ⇒ Rs. 450
38. Answer: Option B
Explanation: In the mixture of 45 liter, Milk = [latex]\frac{45}{5}[/latex]x 4 = 36 liter, Water = [latex]\frac{45}{5}[/latex]x 1 = 9 liter New ratio, = 9 + 3 : 36 + 4 = 12 : 40 = 3 : 10
39. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Total mixture = 48 + 144 = 192 liter % of Glycerin = [latex]\frac{48}{192}[/latex] x 100 = 25% = % of Rose water = 75% In the final mixture glycerin= 30%, Rose water = 70% Ratio = 30 : 70 = 3 : 7 (48 – D x 25% + 32) : (144 – D x 75% + 48) = 3 : 7 7 (48 – D x 25% + 32) = 3 (144 – D x 75% + 48) 7 (80 – 0.25 D) = 3 (192 – 0.75 D) 560 – 1.75 D = 576 – 2.25 D 2.25 D – 1.75 D = 576 – 560 0.5 D = 16 D = 32 liter
40. Answer: Option D
Explanation: Let required amount of second solution to be added = a L Then, [latex]\frac{15 \times 20 + 5a}{20 + a}[/latex]= 10 300 + 5a = 200 + 10a 5a = 100 a = 20

1. World Wetland Day is observed on ………………

A. [latex]21^{st}[/latex] February B. [latex]2^{nd}[/latex] February C. [latex]12^{th}[/latex] February D. [latex]18^{th}[/latex] February E. None of these

2. International Day of Zero Tolerance to Female Genital Mutilation is observed on …………………..

A. [latex]6^{th}[/latex] February B. [latex]12^{th}[/latex] February C. [latex]21^{st}[/latex] February D. [latex]15^{th}[/latex] February E. None of these

3. March [latex]8^{th}[/latex] is observed as ……………………………..

A. World Consumer Rights Day B. World Kidney Day C. World Women’s Day D. International Day of Happiness E. None of these

4. March 24 is observed as ……………………………..

A. International Day of Forests B. World Poetry Day C. World Meteorological Day D. World Tuberculosis Day E. None of these

5. The GST Council has decided to reduce GST Rate on Electrical Vehicles from 12% to __________.

A. 10% B. 9% C. 8% D. 5%

6. The Asian Development Bank has reduced India's growth forecast for the current financial year to __________.

A. 7% B. 6.8% C. 7.1% D. 6.5%

7. How much amount is given as monthly pension under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan?

A. 3000 B. 2500 C. 4200 D. 5000

8. Astana is the capital city of

A. Korea B. Kyrgyzstan C. Kuwait D. Kazakhstan

9. What is the Capital of Australia?

A. Sydney B. Melbourne C. Canberra D. Perth

10. Which country has announced the plan to adopt Chinese yuan as legal tender?

A. Ethiopia B. Liberia C. Nigeria D. Zimbabwe

11. What is the national currency of Portugal?

A. Leki B. Peso C. Peseta D. Euro

12. The currency of Tajikistan?

A. Paise B. Rupee C. Rupiah D. Taka

13. First domestic bank of India to open a branch in Myanmar is_____________.

A. Axis B. HDFC Bank C. SBI D. Bank of India E. HSBC

14. _______was the first private sector bank in India which was founded in 1899 in Kerala.

A. Nainital Bank B. Catholic Syrian Bank C. Karur Vysya Bank D. City Union Bank E. Nedungadi Bank

15. ____________ Bank has introduced first ATM in India.

A. SBI B. ICICI C. HSBC D. Axis E. City Bank

16. A bank which has introduced software Robotics for power banking operations is –

A. City Union Bank B. Federal Bank C. ICICI Bank D. Union Bank of India E. Indian Bank

17. In which state India’s first international exchange INX was inaugurated at International Financial Servce Centre(IFSC)?

A. Maharashtra B. Gujarat C. Hyderabad D. Bangalore E. Chennai

18. First Bank established in India was:

A. Bank of India B. Bank of Hindustan C. General Bank of India D. None of The Above

19. Bank of Hindustan was established in ____:

A. 1700 B. 1770 C. 1780 D. None of The Above

20. Which among the following is correct regarding Bank of Hindustan:

A. The bank was established at calcutta under European management. B. It was liquidated on 1829 - 32. C. Both of Above D. None of The Above

21. ______bank was established in 1786:

A. General Bank B. Reserve Bank of India C. Bank of Bengal D. None of The Above

22. Reserve Bank of India was established under which among the following act:

A. Reserve Bank of India Act 1930 B. Reserve Bank of India Act 1921 C. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 D. None of The Above

23. Monetary Policy is a regulatory policy by which the ______or monetary authority of a country controls the supply of money, availability of bank credit and cost of money that is the rate of interest:

A. Central Bank (RBI) B. SBI C. IBA D. None of These

24. _______controls the supply of money and bank credit:

A. RBI B. Indian Banking Association C. SEBI D. None of These

25. Which of the following is correct:

A. The Central Bank has the duty to see that legitimate credit requirements are met B. And at the same credit is not used for unproductive and speculative purposes. C. RBI rightly calls its credit policy as one of controlled expansion D. All of the Above E. None of These

26. Interim budget is also known as....

A. Mini budget B. Vote on Account C. Both a and b D. None of these

27. Which article of the Constitution envisages Budget?

A. Article 280 B. Article 110 C. Article 360 D. Article 112

28. In budget 2019-20, the government set the target to distribute....... LPG connections under the Ujjawala Yojna.

A. 6 cr B. 10 cr C. 5 cr D. 8 cr

29. The Headquarters of United Nations is at

A. New York B. Geneva C. Rome D. Tokyo

30. The Headquarters of WTO is at

A. New York B. Geneva C. Vienna D. Tokyo

31. The UNESCO’s Headquarters is at

A. Geneva B. Austria C. Paris D. Vienna

32. The Headquarters of SAARC is at

A. New Delhi B. Islamabad C. Kathmandu D. Colombo

33. How many states have initiated Janani Suraksha Yojana?

A. 20 B. 19wrong C. 10 D. All states and Union territories

34. Which committee was related to the policies and programme for Agriculture?

A. Wanchoo Committee B. Boothalingam Committee C. Bhanu Pratap Singh Committee D. Aggarwal Committee

35. Sarkaria Commission had been set up to look into

A. agricultural taxes B. Centre-State relations C. splitting of LIC D. Inter-State relations

36. Union Government has framed a scheme for setting up how many special courts to fast track criminal cases against tainted MP and MLA leaders?

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15

37. The maximum age at entry for Gram Santosh Rural postal life insurance scheme is ____?

A. 35 years B. 40 years C. 45 years D. 50 years

38. Bihar Government launched which scheme for checking crimes against women?

A. Safe City Surveillance Scheme B. Safe City Surveillance Yojana C. Safe City Surveillance Plan D. Safe City Surveillance Program

39. UP became the first state to endorse which draft law?

A. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act B. Hindu Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act C. Buddhist Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act D. Parsi Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act

40. Runa Upasamanam” programme is related to?

A. Children Safety B. Loan Waiver C. Women Education D. Protection of Rivers

Answer & Explanation:
1. Answer: Option B
2. Answer: Option A
3. Answer: Option C
4. Answer: Option D
5. Answer: Option D
6. Answer: Option A
7. Answer: Option A
8. Answer: Option D
9. Answer: Option C
10. Answer: Option D
11. Answer: Option D
12. Answer: Option D
13. Answer: Option C
14. Answer: Option E
15. Answer: Option C
16. Answer: Option C
17. Answer: Option B
18. Answer: Option B
19. Answer: Option B
20. Answer: Option C
21. Answer: Option A
22. Answer: Option C
23. Answer: Option A
24. Answer: Option A
25. Answer: Option D
26. Answer: Option C
27. Answer: Option D
28. Answer: Option D
29. Answer: Option A
30. Answer: Option B
31. Answer: Option C
32. Answer: Option C
33. Answer: Option D
34. Answer: Option C
35. Answer: Option B
36. Answer: Option A
37. Answer: Option C
38. Answer: Option A
39. Answer: Option A
40. Answer: Option B

Direction(1–5): At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.
1. According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its

A. history B. international position C. politics D. present character

2. The need for a greater understanding between nations

A. was always there B. is no longer there C. is more today than ever before D. will always be there

3. The character of a nation is the result of its

A. mentality B. cultural heritage C. gross ignorance D. socio-political conditions

4. According to the author his countrymen should

A. read the story of other nations B. have a better understanding of other nations C. not react to other actions D. have vital contacts with other nations

5. Englishmen like others to react to political situations like

A. us B. themselves C. others D. each others

Direction(6–10): What needs to be set right is our approach to work. It is a common sight in our country of employees reporting for duty on time and at the same time doing little work. If an assessment is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is the standard which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forgot the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What do top bureaucrats do? What do the below down officials do? The administration set up remains week mainly because the employees do not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than doing work.
6. The employees in our country

A. are quite punctual but not duty conscious B. are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work C. are somewhat lazy but good nature D. are not very highly qualified

7. According to the writer, the administration in India

A. is by and large effective B. is very strict and firm C. is affected by red tape D. is more or less ineffective

8. The word 'assessment' means

A. enquiry B. report C. evaluation D. summary

9. The leadership in administration

A. sets a fine example to the employees B. is of a reasonably high standard C. is composed of idealists D. is of a very poor standard

10. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following

A. The employee outlook towards work is justified B. The employee must change their outlook towards work C. The employees would never change their work culture D. The employer-employee relationship is far from healthy

Direction(11–15): His talk used to be full of wit and humors. He liked reading. He was a ...(1)... reader and would pore over books ...(2)... a wide range of interest as ...(3)... he got them. He had ...(4)... a standing order to two bookshops ...(5)... city.
11. Choose the correct answer

A. voracious B. fervent C. anxious D. enthusiastic

12. Choose the correct answer

A. covering B. barring C. including D. containing

13. Choose the correct answer

A. firmly B. quickly C. soon D. urgent

14. Choose the correct answer

A. offered B. proclaimed C. intimated D. given

15. Choose the correct answer

A. at B. in C. within D. inside

Direction(16–20): Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.
16. We were still standing in the queue when the film was beginning.

A. film began B. film had begun C. beginning of the film was over D. film begins E. No correction required

17. If I would have realized the nature of job earlier, I would not have accepted it.

A. If I have had B. In case I would have C. Had I been D. Had I E. No correction required

18. The crime has growth rapidly in Russia since the disintegration of the communist system.

A. rapid crime has grown B. crime has grown rapidly C. crimes grow rapidly D. crimes have been rapidly grown E. No correction required

19. They failed in their attempt to repair the demolished portion of that building.

A. for their attempt to repair B. in their attempting to repair C. with their attempt to repair D. in their attempt for repairs E. No correction required

20. I earnestly believe that you will visit our relatives during your forthcoming trip to Mumbai.

A. had hardly believe that B. sincerely would believe C. certainly believing that D. could not believe E. No correction required

Direction(21–25): Synonyms
21. Zealous

A. Ardent B. Jealous C. Jealous D. Impatient

22. Wander

A. Ride B. Desire C. Roam D. Treat

23. VORACIOUS

A. very bad B. insatiable C. stingy D. malicious

24. Unbearable

A. Unpleasant B. Tolerable C. Acceptable D. Undefeated

25. Turmoil

A. Tranquility B. Peace C. Chaos D. Quiet

Direction(26–30): Antonyms
26. Iconoclast

A. Adherent B. Demagogue C. Saboteur D. Elite

27. Hideous

A. Abominable B. Grotesque C. Alluring D. Macabre

28. Garrulous

A. Facile B. Taciturn C. Gracious D. Plangent

29. Facetious

A. Sarcastic B. Sanctimonious C. Humorless D. Flippant

30. Ebullient

A. Eccentric B. Sanguine C. Spiritless D. Macabre

Direction(31–35): Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. 1. After examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe. 2. Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor. 3. That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school 4. Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore he was fine 5. Therefore; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.
31. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

32. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

33. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

34. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

35. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Direction(36–40): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
36. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.

A. with B. over C. on D. round

37. The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

A. avidly B. admiringly C. thoughtfully D. earnestly

38. Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.

A. chance B. luck C. possibility D. occasion

39. I saw a ...... of cows in the field.

A. group B. herd C. swarm D. flock

40. The grapes are now ...... enough to be picked.

A. ready B. mature C. ripe D. advanced

Answer & Explanation:
1. Answer: Option A
2. Answer: Option C
3. Answer: Option D
4. Answer: Option B
5. Answer: Option B
6. Answer: Option A
7. Answer: Option D
8. Answer: Option C
9. Answer: Option D
10. Answer: Option B
11. Answer: Option A
12. Answer: Option A
13. Answer: Option C
14. Answer: Option D
15. Answer: Option B
16. Answer: Option B
17. Answer: Option A
18. Answer: Option B
19. Answer: Option E
20. Answer: Option E
21. Answer: Option A
22. Answer: Option C
23. Answer: Option B
24. Answer: Option A
25. Answer: Option C
26. Answer: Option A
27. Answer: Option C
28. Answer: Option B
29. Answer: Option C
30. Answer: Option C
31. Answer: Option B
32. Answer: Option D
33. Answer: Option A
34. Answer: Option E
35. Answer: Option C
36. Answer: Option C
37. Answer: Option A
38. Answer: Option A
39. Answer: Option B
40. Answer: Option C

1. A report generator is used to

A. update files B. print files on paper C. data entry D. All of the above E. None of the above

2. Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?

A. tree B. relational C. network D. chain E. All of the above

3. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?

A. database design B. backing up the database C. performance monitoring D. user coordination E. All of the above

4. Primitive operations common to all record management systems include

A. Print B. Sort C. Look-up D. All of the above E. None of the above

5. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file.

A. File structure B. Records C. Fields D. Database E. None of the above

6. After you _____ a record, many data management the environments require you to issue a command to save the changes you made.

A. Delete B. Update C. Sort key D. Index E. None of the above

7. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data?

A. High level language B. Query language C. SQL D. 4GL E. None of the above

8. Data item characteristics that are important in data management include

A. punctuation B. language C. spelling D. width E. None of the above

9. In SQL, which command is used to make permanent changes made by statements issue since the beginning of a transaction?

A. ZIP B. PACK C. COMMIT D. SAVE E. None of the above

10. Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called file

A. Updating B. upgrading C. restructuring D. renewing E. None of the above

11. In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as

A. adaptive equalizer B. impairment equalizer C. statistical equalizer D. compromise equalizer E. None of the above

12. Alex is required to provide information on how many people are using the network at any one time. Which network will enable him to do so?

A. Server-based B. Token-Ring C. Ethernet D. Star E. Peer-to-peer

13. Now-a-days computers all over the world can talk to each other. Which is one of the special accessories essential for this purpose?

A. Keyboard B. Modem C. Scanner D. Fax E. None of the above

14. To make possible the efficient on-line servicing of many teleprocessing system users on large computer systems, designers are developing

A. communication systems B. multi programming systems C. virtual storage systems D. All of the above E. None of the above

15. Which of the following best describes the scopes on each DHCP server, in the absence of configuration problems with DHCP addresses, if you use multiple DHCP servers in your environment?

A. Unique to that sub net only B. For different sub nets C. For no more than two subn ets D. For no sub nets E. None of the above

16. RS-449/442-A/423-A is

A. a set of physical layer standards developed by EIA and intended to replace RS-232-C. B. a check bit appended to an array of binary digits to make the sum of all the binary digits C. a code in which each expression conforms to specific rules of construction so that if certain errors occur in an expression the resulting expression will not conform to the rules of construction and thus the presence of the errors is detected D. the ratio of the number of data units in error to the total number of data units E. None of the above

17. Which of the following digits are known as the area code of the Network User Address (NUA)?

A. 5-7 B. 1-4 C. 8-12 D. 13-14 E. None of the above

18. End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in:

A. Network layer B. Session layer C. Data link layer D. Transport layer E. None of the above

19. A form of modulation In which the amplitude of a carrier wave is varied in accordance with some characteristic of the modulating signal, is known as

A. Aloha B. Angle modulation C. Amplitude modulation D. modem E. None of the above

20. CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is

A. a method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any time B. a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media. C. a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO. D. network access standard for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network E. None of the above

21. What was the total number of UNIVAC-I sold eventually and by which company?

A. 30, British Tabulating Machine Co. (BTM) B. 40, International Business Machines (IBM) C. 48, Remington Rand D. 40, International Computer Ltd. (ICL) E. None of the above

22. A file containing relatively permanent data is

A. Random file B. Transaction file C. Master file D. Sequential file E. None of the above

23. Communication that involves computers, establishing a link through the telephone system is called

A. Teleprocessing B. Micro processing C. Telecommunications D. All of the above E. None of the above

24. Dot-matrix is a type of

A. Tape B. Printer C. Disk D. Bus E. None of the above

25. Which kind of devices allows the user to add components and capabilities to a computer system?

A. System boards B. Storage devices C. Input devices D. Output devices E. Expansion slots

26. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is applied to a NOT gate, its output signal is

A. 01011 B. 10001 C. 10101 D. 00101 E. None of the above

27. The first practical commercial typewriter was invented in 1867 in the United States by

A. Christopher Latham Sholes B. Carlos Glidden C. Samuel Soule D. All of the above E. None of the above

28. What is meant by quad-density (QD) diskette?

A. It is double-sided disk B. It is double density disk C. It has double the number of tracks per inch D. All of the above E. None of the above

29. Large computer system typically uses:

A. Line printers B. Ink-jet printers C. Dot-matrix printers D. Daisy wheel printers E. None of the above

30. First generation computers are characterized by

A. Vaccum tubes and magnetic drum B. Minicomputers C. Magnetic tape and transistors D. All of the above E. None of the above

31. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is

A. Operation code B. Address C. Locator D. Flip-Flop E. None of the above

32. Which of the following refers to the associative memory?

A. the address of the data is generated by the CPU B. the address of the data is supplied by the users C. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address D. the data are accessed sequentially E. None of the above

33. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their critical section is

A. 8 B. 1 C. 16 D. 0 E. None of the above

34. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution

A. assembler B. linking loader C. cross compiler D. load and go E. None of the above

35. Process is

A. program in High level language kept on disk B. contents of main memory C. a program in execution D. a job in secondary memory E. None of the above

36. What is the jumper setting on a SCSI device to configure it to use the fourth SCSI id? Remember, SCSI ids start with zero.

A. 010 B. 110 C. 011 D. 101 E. 001

37. What tool is used to test serial and parallel ports?

A. high volt probe B. cable scanner C. loop backs (wrap plugs) D. sniffer E. None of the above

38. Which best describes a fragmented hard drive:

A. The platters are bad B. Data files are corrupted C. Clusters of data are damaged D. Files are not stored in consecutive clusters E. None of the above

39. What device prevents power interruptions, resulting in corrupted data?

A. Battery back-up unit B. Surge protector C. Multiple SIMMs strips D. Data guard system E. Turn off the AC power

40. ISDN stands for:

A. internal select data nulls B. integrated services digital network C. interval set down next D. interior sector direct none E. inferior sector data net

Answer & Explanation:
1. Answer: Option B
2. Answer: Option D
3. Answer: Option E
4. Answer: Option C
5. Answer: Option A
6. Answer: Option B
7. Answer: Option B
8. Answer: Option D
9. Answer: Option C
10. Answer: Option A
11. Answer: Option A
12. Answer: Option A
13. Answer: Option B
14. Answer: Option D
15. Answer: Option B
16. Answer: Option A
17. Answer: Option A
18. Answer: Option D
19. Answer: Option C
20. Answer: Option B
21. Answer: Option C
22. Answer: Option C
23. Answer: Option C
24. Answer: Option B
25. Answer: Option E
26. Answer: Option A
27. Answer: Option D
28. Answer: Option D
29. Answer: Option A
30. Answer: Option A
31. Answer: Option A
32. Answer: Option C
33. Answer: Option B
34. Answer: Option B
35. Answer: Option C
36. Answer: Option C
37. Answer: Option C
38. Answer: Option D
39. Answer: Option A
40. Answer: Option B