1. The World Trade Organisation, of late, has been facing the crisis of ________. Its members are largely divided into two groups-the Developed and the Developing countries with divergent interests leading to recurring ________ in the decisions of the WTO. Rich countries bring new issues or _______ around those issues which serve their own interests only. I. stalemate II. harp III. impunity IV. germaneness V. relevance VI. dwell

A. III, V, VI B. IV, II. I C. V, I, II D. I, III, VI E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation: Relevance – the quality or state of being closely connected or appropriate.
Stalemate – a situation of a deadlock, no productive conclusion
Harp – talk or write persistently and tediously on (a particular topic).
2. In the post-cold war era, with the rise of India and China, general _______ growth in East Asia shifted global strategic attention to Asia. this phenomenon was __________ in such notions as ‘Asan Century’ or ‘the Rise of Asia’ thesis advanced by many scholars. However within these grand _________, there was another shift caused by the expanding and diversifying interests of rising India and China, and that was the importance of Indian ocean and the western Pacific ocean dominance. I. rendering II. encapsulated III. robust IV. sinewy V. narratives VI. succinctly

A. IV, III, I B. III, II, V C. VI, I, IV D. III, V, I E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Robust – strong and healthy; vigorous.
Encapsulated – express the essential features of (something) succinctly.
Narrative – a spoken or written account of connected events
3. Fringe elements, in the name of cow protection has appeared to be(A) / on the prowl and operating with impunity in some of the states(B) /. The unchecked manner in that they are unleashing violence(C) / without the fear of law and order is a matter of serious concern.(D)

A. BC B. AC C. AD D. BD E. No error

Answer: B
Explanation: Replace ‘has appeared’ with ‘appear’
Replace ‘that’ with ‘which’
4. Incidents of stubble burning following the harvests of paddy crop in Punjab and Haryana(A)/ cannot be avert from imposing fines,(B)/ or giving notice or giving farmers capital subsidy(C)/. Instead, the issue require long term vision and strategic policy interventions.(D)

A. AC B. BD C. AC D. BD E. No error

Answer: B
Explanation: Replace ‘avert from’ with ‘averted by’
Replace ‘require’ by ‘requires’
5. Had he worked hard he would pass the examination in first attempt itself(A)/. All he needed was to focus(B)/ on his own preparations and not bothering about(C)/ what others were recommending him to.(D)

A. AB B. AC C. BD D. BC E. No error

Answer: B
Explanation: Replace ‘would pass’ with ‘would have passed’
Replace ‘bothering’ with ‘bother’
6. That was the most unique opportunity he got in his life(A)/, however he squandered it as he doesn’t (B)/seeming to be interested in working(C)/ in any other field than architecture and designing.(D)

A. BD B. AB C. AC D. CD E. No error

Answer: C
Explanation: Replace – ‘most unique’ with ‘unique’
Replace ‘seeming’ with ‘seem’
7. What makes a celebrity wedding so crackling is the way …………..if they were a part of it, participating in the romance and glamour.

A. it could make millions feel as the B. it would making millions feels as C. that can makes millions feel so D. this can made millions feel as E. it can make millions feel as

Answer: E
Explanation: it can make millions feel as is the best suited alternative.
8. There is mutual and public interest ………….. and curbing arbitrariness, in this instance the governor or President’s space to act in a partisan manner.

A. on reviewing such the loopholes B. for reviewed such loopholes C. at reviewing such loophole D. in reviewing such loopholes E. of reviewing such as loopholes

Answer: D
Explanation: in reviewing such loopholes is the best suited alternative.
9. The unprecedented deluge in Kerala unleashed by heavy rain, overflowing rivers, brimming dams and massive landslips has overwhelmed the State government and rescue agencies, as they struggle to make a complete assesment of the devastation

A. unprecedented B. assesment C. overwhelmed D. devastation E. All are correct

Answer: B
10. Japan and India are fevorishly bridging gaps and repaving roads in the Indo-Pacific to establish a giant corridor.The gigantic effort will merge two parallel initiatives- the New Delhi led India-Myanmar-thailand trilateral highway and the East- West Economic corridor.

A. gigantic B. fevorishly C. parallel D. repaving E. All are correct

Answer: B
11. The history of the ‘hero’ as a category of description in popular imagination is surprisingly fragile and also complex. It is fragile because a hero is born of a marriage of circumstance and wilful action, and is midwived into this world by a fleeting rearrangement of what is considered possible.

A. circumstance B. fragile C. description D. wilful E. All are correct

Answer: D
12. A study in Science of termites in a Bornean forest showed their activity and abundance increased during a drought. This resulted in quicker litter decomposition, more soil moisture and heterogenety of soil nutrients and higher seedling survival rates.

A. decomposition B. heterogenety C. termites D. seedling E. All are correct

Answer: B
13. Vindicate

A. depose B. accuse C. vilify D. absolve E. censure

Answer: D
Explanation: Vindicate – to clear someone of blame or suspicion, absolve
14. Qualms

A. relaxation B. restive C. misgiving D. satisfaction E. clarity

Answer: C
Explanation: Qualms – an uneasy feeling of doubt, worry, or fear, especially about one’s own conduct; a misgiving
15. Tenure

A. relaxation B. probable C. criticize D. allure E. avoidance

Answer: E
Explanation: Tenure – the conditions under which land or buildings are held or occupied.
avoidance – the action of keeping away from or not doing something.
16. Conviction

A. overturning B. ingredient C. inclination D. aligned E. avoidance

Answer: A
Explanation: Tenure – Conviction – a formal declaration by the verdict of a jury or the decision of a judge in a court of law that someone is guilty of a criminal offence.
overturning – the action of keeping away from or not doing something.
Directions (Q.17-18):Five statements are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Among these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
17.

A. Over the years, the MBBS course, set in tertiary care institutions which often deal with exotic and rare disorders, has not equipped students to deal with the health needs of local communities. B. This will ensure that overall health and health care needs, rather than narrow professional interests, are the focus. C. The explosion in medical knowledge has resulted in the introduction of new specialties. D. But there has been a marked reduction in the time spent for training in each subject and for acquiring practical skills during internship. E. The focus of undergraduate education has shifted from training basic doctors to manage common diseases to learning medical theory. This pattern has made them less skilled and much less capable of managing basic conditions.

Answer: B
18.
A. It will take a decade or more to create a research environment in the existing law schools, particularly for cutting-edge research that contribute to law reform and development. B. Meanwhile, the recommendation of the Knowledge Commission to set up a few advanced research centres that can attract available talent to plan and develop legal research is worthy of immediate attention. C. This is where the Central government should invest, as it did in the field of scientific and industrial research in the early 1960s and 1970s. D. They can be networked with the law schools of the region: this will be of mutual advantage. E. The shortage of teachers can be addressed partly through a flexible approach in faculty
Answer: E
Directions (Q.19-20):Five statements are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
19.

A. Agriculture that emphasizes sustainability, local resources and stewardship of the environment to expand its global impact beyond food supply and into ecological health can go a long way in reducing environmental impacts on agriculture. B. It is found that organic farming practices generally have positive impacts on the environment per unit of area, but not necessarily per product unit C. In the post-independence era, the Green revolution has shown the way of self-sufficiency but sustaining agricultural production against finite natural resources demands a shift from degrading chemical agriculture to resource protective culture. D. Program on organic farming should be linked with certification along with public awareness. E. It is a holistic and philosophical approach to agriculture, to protect and conserve the land for future generations.

Answer: D
Explanation: All the options except 4 relates organic farming to its benefits with regard to environment. Option 4 states about implementation.
20

A. Moral thinking in practically every known culture, tells not to place undue emphasis on material concerns. B. The value of a rising standard of life lies not just in concrete improvements it brings, but in how it shapes the social, political and ultimately the moral character of the people C. Philosophers since the time of Aristotle have drawn a line separating economic life from a life that is well-lived. D. No amount of material development can justify the moral deficit that comes along with it. E. Development, as it is defined and understood today, does not coexist with morality in all political scenarios.

Answer: C
Explanation: Option 3 talks of a different aspect while the rest of the statements emphasize material and moral development.
21. Directions: Five statements are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Agriculture that emphasizes sustainability, local resources and stewardship of the environment to expand its global impact beyond food supply and into ecological health can go a long way in reducing environmental impacts on agriculture. B. It is found that organic farming practices generally have positive impacts on the environment per unit of area, but not necessarily per product unit C. In the post-independence era, the Green revolution has shown the way of self-sufficiency but sustaining agricultural production against finite natural resources demands a shift from degrading chemical agriculture to resource protective culture. D. Program on organic farming should be linked with certification along with public awareness. E. It is a holistic and philosophical approach to agriculture, to protect and conserve the land for future generations.

Answer: D
Explanation: All the options except 4 relate organic farming to its benefits with regard to the environment. Option 4 states about implementation.
22. The single company that stayed in the fray could submit a cheaper offer because it already runs similar voting systems in a number of countries — where the system has been accused of malfunction or vulnerability to tinkering.

A. submit a cheaper offer because it already runs B. submit a cheaper offer because it already runs C. submit a cheaper offer because it already runs D. submit a cheaper offer because it already running E. No correction required

Answer: E.
23. The BCCI’s elbow room has shrunk, and it is expected that the chastised board will toe the line, though this has time till October 6 to file a reply in the Supreme Court.

A. though it has time till B. though this have time until C. though it has time till D. though it has time until E. no correction required

Answer: C.
24. One of the most noteworthy characteristics of the modern workplace is ‘remote working’. Many organizations today allow employees to connect remotely or from their homes, enabling flexibility, freedom and even better quality of living and working. ___________. Video calls, collaboration and communication apps are all common and make it possible for teams in different locations and time zones to come together.

A. Reduced commuting and less stress, and the ability to balance their lives and work better. B. Along with the advantages remote working brings with it, there are a few hiccups, which both employers and employees grapple with. C. Technology has made remote working much easier. D. For many professionals, this translates into not having to move from their city for the sake of a job. E. Connecting remotely also raises important questions on productivity.

Answer: C.
25. __________. The sun’s energy can be used to generate electricity, which can heat as well as cool buildings without creating pollution. Wind energy has been used for centuries to pump groundwater in Europe. Biogas plants can utilize human and animal waste to produce fuel for cooking and other use, reducing dependence on other sources. What’s more, these sources of energy are almost unlimited

A. Reliable energy is essential for economic growth. B. Unlike coal, oil and natural gases, whose reserves are limited, sources like the sun, wind and vegetative waste can be used to generate energy in a suitable way. C. With the development of better technology, per unit cost of extracting energy from renewable sources has dropped appreciably. D. The costs are incurred only in the initial phase of installation. E. With a few exceptions, renewable energy technologies are eco-friendly.

Answer: B.
Directions (Q.26-27):Five statements are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
26.

A. Over the years, the MBBS course, set in tertiary care institutions which often deal with exotic and rare disorders, has not equipped students to deal with the health needs of local communities. B. This will ensure that overall health and health care needs, rather than narrow professional interests, are the focus. C. The explosion in medical knowledge has resulted in the introduction of new specialties. D. But there has been a marked reduction in the time spent on training in each subject and for acquiring practical skills during the internship. E. The focus of undergraduate education has shifted from training basic doctors to manage common diseases to learning medical theory. This pattern has made them less skilled and much less capable of managing basic conditions.

Answer: B
27.

A. Indian historians were also polite as though belonging to the Oxbridge club was more critical than compassion for the victims. B. Between the middle ground of silence and an illiteracy about the event, the narrative split into two. C. One strand merged into folklore and people’s memory and became a tale told by old men and women to their families. D. The British tended to explain it away as one of the sideshows of history, an act of contingency of an imperial Winston Churchill too busy with winning the war. E.In the other what one sees is a banalisation, a ritualisation of the event.

Answer: D
Directions – In each of the following questions, a word has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
28. Aversion

A. I was not averse to fighting with any boy who challenged me. B. She had a deep aversion to getting up early in the morning. C. They were averse to the very idea of going out on a rainy day. D. He seems to be aversing to hard work E. All are correct

Answer: D
29. Resentment

A. Many urbanites would resent additional competition for school places. B. I resent the way he sneers at our efforts. C. She was filled with deep resentment at being passed over for promotion. D. I resent paying extra for my drink just because it’s in a posey bottle E. All are correct

Answer: E
30. He has a —– for writing.

A. flare B. flairs C. flair D. fare E. BOth A&C

Answer:C

1. Which of the following equations has real roots ?

A. (x - 1)(2x - 5) = 0 B. [latex]{x}^{2} [/latex] + x + 4 = 0 C. 2[latex]{x}^{2} [/latex] - 3x + 4 = 0 D. 3[latex]{x}^{2} [/latex] + 4x + 5 = 0 E. None of these

Answer: A Explanation: Given equation (x - 1)(2x - 5) = 0
[latex]\Rightarrow 2{x}^{2} - 7x + 5 = 0[/latex]
i.e, D = [latex]{(-7)}^{2} - 4 \times 2 \times 5 [/latex] = (49 - 40) = 9 > 0
i.e, Given equation has real roots.
2. For what values of k, the equation [latex]{x}^{2} [/latex] + 2(k - 4)x + 2k = 0 has equal roots ?

A. 6, 4 B. 10, 4 C. 8, 2 D. 12, 2 E. None of these

Answer: C Explanation: Since the roots are equal, we have D = 0
i.e, 4[latex]({k - 4})^{2} [/latex] - 8k = 0 [latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] [latex]({k - 4})^{2} [/latex] - 2k = 0
[latex]{k}^{2} [/latex] + 16 - 10k = 0 [latex]{k}^{2} [/latex] - 10k + 16 = 0
[latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] (k - 8) (k - 2) = 0 [latex]\Rightarrow [/latex] k = 8 or k =2
3. If a and b are the roots of the equation [latex]{x}^{2} [/latex] - 6x + 6 = 0, then the value of ([latex]{a}^{2} [/latex] + [latex]{b}^{2} [/latex] ) are :

A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 36 E. None of these

Answer: C Explanation: (a + b) = 6 and ab = 6
i.e, ([latex]{a}^{2} [/latex] + [latex]{b}^{2} [/latex] ) = [latex]{(a + b)}^{2} [/latex] - 2ab = [latex]{6}^{2} - 2 \times 6[/latex] = (36 - 12 ) = 24
4. 120.001 × 45.995 + 145.002 + 14.995 ÷ 4.995

A. 5440 B. 5670 C. 6450 D. 6240 E. None of these

Answer: B Explanation: 120 × 46 + 145 + 15 ÷ 5
= 5520 + 145 + 3
= 5668
= 5670(approx.)
5. 125.0046 ÷ 24.9982 + 14.9985 = ? + 13.9985

A. 15 B. 145 C. 241 D. 6 E. None of these

Answer: D Explanation: 125 ÷ 25 + 15 = x + 14
5 + 15 = x + 14
20 = x + 14
X = 20 - 14
X = 6
6. 65% of 9780.0245 - 48% of 499.982 = x + 25% of 9827.992

A. 4520 B. 3660 C. 3150 D. 2450 E. None of these

Answer: B Explanation: 65% × 9780 - 48% × 500 = x + 9828 × 25%
= 6357 - 240 = x + 2457
= 6357 - 240 - 2457 = x
= X = 3660
7. The list price of an article is Rs.65. A customer pays Rs.56.16 for it. He was given two successive discounts, one of them being 10%. The other discount is?

A. 3% B. 4% C. 5% D. 6% E. None of these

Answer: B Explanation: 65[latex]\times (\frac {90}{100}) \times (\frac {(100 - x)}{100})[/latex] = 56.16
= 4%
8. A single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%, 10% and 5% is?

A. 25% B. 30% C. 31.6% D. 33.5% E. None of these

Answer: C Explanation: 100[latex]\times (\frac {80}{100}) \times (\frac {90}{100}) \times (\frac {95}{100})[/latex] = 68.4
100 - 64.4 = 31.6%
9. A trader bought a car at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it at a 40% increase on the price he bought it. What percent of profit did he make on the original price?

A. 10% B. 11% C. 12% D. 15% E. None of these

Answer: C Explanation: Original price = 100
CP = 80
S = [latex]80 \times (\frac {140}{100})[/latex] = 112
100 - 112 = 12%
10. The average of five number is 42 ,if one number is excluded the average become 35.The excluded number is

A. 7 B. 40 C. 70 D. 20 E. None of these

Answer: C Explanation: [latex]\frac {x}{5} = 42 \Rightarrow 42 \times 5[/latex] = 210
[latex]\frac {x}{4} = 35 \Rightarrow 35 \times 4[/latex] = 140
210 - 140 = 70
11. The average age of 30 students in a class is 20 years. The average age of 25 students is 15. What is the average age of remaining students

A. 42 B. 54 C. 34 D. 45 E. None of these

Answer: D Explanation: Sum of age of 15 Students = [latex] (40 \times 20) - (25 \times 15) [/latex] = 600 - 375 = 225
Average = [latex] \frac {225}{5}[/latex] = 45
12. The average of nine number is x and the average of three of these is y if the average of the remaining three is z, then

A. [latex]3 x = y + z[/latex] B. [latex]2 x = y + z[/latex] C. [latex] x = 3 y + 3 z[/latex] D. x = 4y +5z E. None of these

Answer: A Explanation: [latex] x = \frac {3 y + 3 z}{9} \Rightarrow 3 x = y + z[/latex]
13. Ravi runs 200 metres in 24 seconds. Find his average speed :

A. 20 km/h B. 24 km/h C. 28.5 km/h D. 30 km/h E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Average speed = [latex]\frac {200} {24} * \frac {18}{5}[/latex] = 30 km/hr.
14. A man completes 30 km of a journey at 6 km/hr and the remaining 40 km of the journey in 5 hours his average speed for the whole journey is :

A. 6[latex]\frac {4} {11}[/latex] km/hr B. 7 km/hr C. 7[latex]\frac {1} {2}[/latex] km/hr D. 8 km/hr E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Average speed = [latex]\frac {30 + 40} {\frac {30}{6} + 5} = \frac {70}{10}[/latex] = 7 km/hr.
15. A train with a speed of 60 kmph crosses a pole in 30 seconds. The length of the train is

A. 500 m B. 750 m C. 900 m D. 1000 m E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Length of the train =60 * [latex]\frac {5} {18}[/latex] * 30 = 500 meter
16. Simple Interest on Rs. 500 for 4 years at 6.25% per annum is equal to the Simple Interest on Rs.400 at 5% per annum for a certain period of time. The period of time is

A. 4 years B. 5 years C. 6 [latex]\frac {1} {4}[/latex] D. 8 [latex]\frac {2} {3}[/latex] E. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 500 * 4 * 6.25% = 400 * 5 * t
t = 6.25 years
17. A sum becomes Rs. 2916 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest. The sum is

A. Rs. 2750 B. Rs. 2500 C. Rs. 2625 D. Rs. 2560 E. None of these

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Let the required sum be Rs. x.
x * [latex]\frac {108} {100}[/latex] * [latex]\frac {108} {100}[/latex] = 2916
x = Rs. 2500
18. If 200 becomes 240 in 4 years, then the rate of simple interest per annum is

A. [latex]\frac {25} {6}[/latex]% B. [latex]\frac {25} {3}[/latex]% C. [latex]\frac {25} {2}[/latex]% D. 5% E. None of these

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Given that Rs. 200 becomes Rs. 240 in 4 years, thus it would have become Rs. 210 at the end of first year.
Hence, rate of simple interest = [latex]\frac {10} {200}[/latex] * 100 = 5%
19. A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years when the interest is compounded annually. The number of years when it will become eight times is

A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 20 E. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The money gets doubled in 5 years which means it becomes twice of itself after every 5 years. Hence, it will be increased to 4 times in 10 years and 8 times in 15 years.
20. Compound interest on rupees 8000 for 1 year at 10% per annum compounded half yearly is

A. 800 B. 1680 C. 840 D. 736.20 E. None of these

Answer - Option D
Explanation - 8000 * [latex]\frac {209} {200} * \frac {209} {200}[/latex] = 8736.20
So, interest = 8736.20 − 8000 = 736.20
21. A man purchases some oranges @ Re. 1 for 6 and an equal number @ Re. 1 for 4. He mixed them and sold @ 20 paise each. His gain or loss in percent is

A. loss 5% B. loss 4% C. profit 5% D. profit 4% E. None of these

Answer - Option B
Explanation - CP for 12 eggs = 2 ; SP (24 eggs) = 4.80
Now, [latex]\frac {CP (for 12 eggs)} {CP (for 24 eggs)}[/latex] = [latex]\frac {3} {5}[/latex]
i.e, % Loss = [latex]\frac {20} {5} * 100%[/latex] = 4%
22. By selling an article at Rs. 1250, a gain of 25% is made on the CP. At what price should the article be sold in order that a loss of 20% is made on the selling price ?

A. Rs. 800 B. Rs. 850 C. Rs. 833 [latex]\frac {1} {3}[/latex] D. Rs. 833 [latex]\frac {2} {3}[/latex] E. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - [latex]\frac {120} {100} = \frac {1250} {CP}[/latex]
CP = 1000
Now, 120% of SP = 1000,
SP = 833 [latex]\frac {1} {3}[/latex]
23. Rajan sold his watch for Rs. 75 and got a percentage of profit equal to the cost price. The cost price of the watch is

A. Rs. 40 B. Rs. 60 C. Rs. 50 D. Rs. 52.50

Answer - Option C
24. By selling 15 mangoes, a fruit seller gains the selling price of 3 mangoes. His gain is

A. 25% B. 16% C. 24% D. 27%

Answer - Option A
Explanation - [latex]\frac {3} {12} * 100%[/latex] = 25%
25. Ram sold a cow to Rahim at 20% profit . Rahim sold it to Robert at 25% profit. If Robert paid Rs. 900, then Ram had purchased the cow (in rupees) for

A. 600 B. 700 C. 750 D. 800

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let Ram’s cost price = Rs. 100
i.e, Ram’s selling price
= [latex] Rs.100 * \frac {100 + 20} {20}[/latex]
= Rs. 120
Rahim’s cost price = Rs. 120
i.e, Rahim’s selling price
= [latex] Rs.120 * \frac {100 * 25} {100}[/latex]
= Rs.150
Robert’s cost price = Rs. 150
If Robert’s cost price is Rs. 150, then Ram’s cost price = Rs. 100
Hence if Robert’s cost price is Rs. 900, then Ram’s cost price
= [latex] Rs.900 * \frac {100 } {150}[/latex] = Rs. 600
Direction (26-30): Refer to the following Line Graph and answer the given questions.
26. The number of people who traveled by Train B on Friday is 30% more than the people who traveled by the same train on Thursday. What is the respective ratio between the number of people who traveled on Friday and those who traveled on Saturday by the same train?

A. 14 : 15 B. 13 : 14 C. 15 : 16 D. 13 : 14 E. 13 : 16

Answer: Option E
Explanation: 30% of 200 = 60
People traveled by Train B on Friday = 260
260 : 320 = 13 : 16
27. What is the difference between the total number of people who traveled by Train B on Saturday and Sunday together and the total number of people who traveled by Train A on Saturday and Sunday together?

A. 20 B. 30 C. 10 D. 50 E. 40

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Train B on Saturday and Sunday together = 320 + 310 = 630
Train A on Saturday and Sunday together = 350 + 270 = 620
Difference = 630 – 620 = 10
28. What is the average number of people traveling by Train B on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday?

A. 160.5 B. 130.5 C. 172.5 D. 165.5 E. 164.5

Answer: Option C
Explanation: 200 + 170 + 120 + 200 = 172.5
29. The number of people who traveled by Train A decreased by what percent from Saturday to Wednesday?

A. 30% B. 60% C. 30% D. 42% E. 33%

Answer: Option B
Explanation: [[latex]\frac{(350 – 140)}{350}[/latex] ] × 100
= [[latex]\frac{210}{350}[/latex] ] × 100 = 60%
30. The total number of people who traveled by both the given trains together on Monday is approximately what percent more than the total number of people who traveled by both the given trains together on Wednesday?

A. 68% B. 63% C. 62% D. 69% E. 65%

Answer: Option D
Explanation: [latex]\frac{(440 – 260)}{260}[/latex] × 100
= [latex]\frac{180}{260}[/latex] × 100
= 69%
Directions [31-35]: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Classification of 100 Students Based on the Marks Obtained by them in Physics and Chemistry in an Examination.

31. What is the different between the number of students passed with 30 as cut-off marks in Chemistry and those passed with 30 as cut-off marks in aggregate?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 10

Explanation - Required difference
= (No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Chemistry) - (Number of students scoring 30 and above marks in aggregate)
= 27 - 21
= 6.
32. If at least 60% marks in Physics are required for pursuing higher studies in Physics, how many students will be eligible to pursue higher studies in Physics?

A. 27 B. 32 C. 34 D. 41 E. 45

Answer - Option B
Explanation - We have 60% of 50 = [latex](\frac {60}{100} \times 50)[/latex] = 30
i.e, Required number
= No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Physics
= 32
33. The percentage of number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry over those getting at least 40% marks in aggregate, is approximately?

A. 21% B. 27% C. 29% D. 31% E. 45%

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry
= Number of students getting 30 and above marks in Chemistry
= 21.
Number of students getting at least 40% marks in aggregate
= Number of students getting 20 and above marks in aggregate
= 73.
Required percentage = [latex](\frac {21}{73} \times 100)[/latex]%
= 28.77%
≈ 29%.
34. The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate is?

A. 13 B. 19 C. 20 D. 27 E. 25

Answer - Option D
Explanation - We have 40% of 50 = [latex](\frac {40}{100} \times 50)[/latex] = 20
i.e, Required number
= Number of students scoring less than 20 marks in aggreagate
= 100 - Number of students scoring 20 and above marks in aggregate
= 100 - 73
= 27.
35. If it is known that at least 23 students were eligible for a Symposium on Chemistry, then the minimum qualifying marks in Chemistry for eligibility to Symposium would lie in the range?

A. 40-45 B. 30-40 C. 20-30 D. Below 20 E. Below 30

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Since 66 students get 20 and above marks in Chemistry and out of these 21 students get 30 and above marks, therefore to select top 35 students in Chemistry, the qualifying marks should lie in the range 20-30.

Direction[1-5]: Read the following information and answer the questions.
In a certain code language,

• ‘Keep Volume High’ is written as 8I8, 11E16, 22O5 • ‘Enjoy the Film’ is written as 20H5, 5N25, 6I13 • ‘Let Her Dance’ is written as 12E20, 4A5, 8E18 • ‘Enjoy High Mountains’ is written as 5N25, 13O19, 8I8

1. The code for the word ‘Love’ is

A. 12E20 B. 8I12 C. 12O6 D. 12O5 E. None of these

Answer - Option D
Explanation [1-5]- The position of first letter of the word in English alphabet is the first part of code. The second part is same as second character of the word. The third part is the position of the last character in the English alphabet. Using this, the questions can be solved easily.
2. The code for the word ‘Studio’ is

A. 20T6 B. 19T15 C. 4Y18 D. 15Y21 E. None of these

Answer - Option B
3. The code ‘19T20’ denotes which of the following word?

A. Street B. Smart C. Boxed D. Keep E. Spirit

Answer - Option A
4. If a code contains ‘8’ then which of the following can be the word?

A. Elephant B. Fish C. Horse D. Either (C) or (B) E. None of these

Answer - Option D
5. What will be the code for ‘Let Parcel Arrive’?

A. 12E20 16A12 4RT B. 1R5 4T6 23T5 C. 12E20 16A12 5R20 D. 16A12 1R5 12E20 E. None of these

Answer - Option D
Direction[6-10]: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Twelve friends are seated along the two rows such that they face each other. A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in the first row and facing south. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated in the second row and facing north. Q is on the immediate right of S and facing A. D is on the immediate left of A. F and C are at extreme ends and nobody is seated on the right of F. Only V is seated between P and T and he is not facing B. Q is on the immediate left of R. C faces P.
6. Who is facing A?

A. P B. V C. T D. Q E. None of these

Answer - Option D
Explanation [1-5]-

7. Which of the following pairs is at one of the extreme ends?

A. F, T B. C, T C. P, B D. R, C E. None of these

Answer - Option E
8. Who is facing V?

A. B B. A C. D D. Can't say E. None of these

Answer - Option E
9. If A is related to R in a certain way and E is related to P in the same way, then which of the following is related to D?

A. Q B. T C. P D. V E. None of these

Answer - Option B
10. Who is Facing T?

A. A B. C C. D D. B E. None of these

Answer - Option D
11. If in a certain Code BOOKLET is written as DSUSVQH , then how ANSWER written in that code ?

A. AQYFBP B. CRYEOD C. DERSDY D. BPZFPC

Answer - Option B
Explanation - BOOKLET [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] D(+2) S(+4) U(+6) S(+8) V(+10) Q(+12) H(+14)
ANSWER [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] CRYEOD
12. AEC BFD GKI ?

A. MJN B. HJM C. MNJ D. None of these

Answer - Option D
Explanation - AEC [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] Position 153
BFD [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] 264 so on
So next will be HLZ
13. DIFFICULT is coded as WRUURXFOG, then what will be the code for EXTREME ?

A. VEJHFDV B. WFGINVF C. VFCIUNG D. VCGIVNV

Answer - Option B
Explanation - DIFFICULT [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] WRUURFOG
Based on position from last D(4) in alphabetical order, W(4) from Z
EXTREME [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] VCGIVNV
14. If in a certain Code HEADER is written as IDBCFQ , then how FOOTER written in that code ?

A. GNPSFQ B. GNORFR C. EGOPRF D. FMORFP

Answer - Option A
Explanation - HEADER [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] IDB CFQ
FOOTER [latex]\Rightarrow[/latex] GNP SFQ
15. LIVE: ? :: CARE: WGLK

A. FOPK B. GPOL C. FPOK D. EOPK

Answer - Option A
Explanation - LIVE: F(-6) O(+6) P(-6) K(+6)
CARE: W(-6) G(+6) L(-6) K(+6)
Direction (16-20): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
‘P × Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’. ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’. ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
16. In the expression ‘K + H – P ? Q’, what will come in place of ? if Q is mother of K?

A. + B. - C. ÷ D. × E. None of these

Answer - Option E
Explanation - K daughter of H, H father of P, so K and P siblings, now Q to be mother of K – P must be son or daughter of Q. so both × and +
17. Which of the following relation is true with regard to expression ‘B ÷ P × Z – K + O’?

A. P is brother of O B. B is daughter-in-law of K C. B is daughter-in-law of O D. O is daughter of Z E. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - B wife of P, P son of Z, Z father of K – so P and K siblings, K daughter of O
So Z and O husband wife, P and K brother sister, B wife of P
So B is daughter-in-law of O
18. Which of the following pairs represent the first cousins in the expressions – ‘L ÷ V – J + P’ and ‘S × A – D + F – E + K’ – if it is given that A is the sister of J?

A. LP B. SP C. SK D. SF E. Cannot be determined

Answer - Option B
Explanation - J father of P, and S son of A now given that A is the sister of J,
Now A and J siblings. P is J’s child, and S is A’s, so both first cousins
19. If it is provided that M is grandmother of P, then what will come in place of ? in expression – ‘P – H ÷ T ? M’?

A. + B. _ C. ÷ D. × E. None of these

Answer - Option E
Explanation - P father of H, H wife of T.
Now for M to be grandmother of P, there is no relation given between T and M.
20. A told to B, “Yesterday I met the only daughter of my grandmother.” Whom did A meet?

A. Cousin B. Mother C. Sister D. Nephew E. None of these

Answer - Option E
Explanation - He met his aunt, i.e. his father’s sister
21. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Constellation B. Galaxy C. Star D. Cluster

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Constellation is a a group of stars forming a recognizable pattern that is traditionally named after its apparent form or identified with a mythological figure.
Galaxy is a system of millions or billions of stars, together with gas and dust, held together by gravitational attraction.
Cluster is a group of similar things or people positioned or occurring closely together.
All except option (C) are group of stars in different form.
Hence, option C is different from others.
22. In the following question, select the odd letter group from the given alternatives.

A. DFH B. QSU C. MOQ D. VWX

Answer - Option D
23. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 43-6 B. 28-4 C. 50-7 D. 36-5

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 43: 6 * 7 +1
28: 4 * 7 +0
50: 7 * 7 +1
36: 5 * 7 +1
Clearly, 28 is different from others.
24. Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Moon B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Mars, Saturn and Jupiter are planets whereas Moon is the satellite.
Thus Moon is the odd word.
25. Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 13 B. 17 C. 21 D. 23

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Here 13, 17 and 23 are prime numbers whereas 21 is the composite number.
Thus 21 is the odd number.
26. Profit :: Income :: Loss : ?

A. Sale B. Balance C. Expenditure D. Reciepts

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Opp of Income-Expenditure(profit opp is loss)
27. Wave : Air :: Ripples : ?

A. Smoke B. Water C. Storm D. Wind

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 2nd travel in 1st
28. Friendship : Goodwill :: Corruption : ?

A. Enemy B. Money C. Greed D. Fraud

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 2nd leads to first.
29. Blare : Sound :: Glint : ?

A. Light B. Shade C. Whift D. Wave

Answer - Option A
Explanation - 1st is related to second.
30. Chocolate : Sweet :: Encyclopaedia : ?

A. Dicitionary B. Book C. Library D. Composition

Answer - Option B
Explanation - 1st is the enlarged form of second
Direction (31-35): In each of the following questions there are four statements. Which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.
31. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats. Conclusions: 1. No door is cat. 2. No cat is door. 3. Some cats are dogs. 4. All the cats are dogs.

A. Only (2) and (4) B. Only (1) and (3) C. Only (3) and (4) D. Only (3) E. All the four

Answer - Option D
32. Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Conclusions: 1. All men are mammals. 2. All mammals are men. 3. Some vertebrates are mammals. 4. All vertebrates are men.

A. Only (1) and (2) B. Only (1) and (3) C. Only (1) and (4) D. Only (2) and (4) E. None of these

Answer - Option A
33.Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Conclusions: 1. All men are mammals. 2. All mammals are men. 3. Some vertebrates are mammals. 4. All vertebrates are men.

A. Only (4) B. Only (2) C. Only (3) D. Only (1) E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer - Option C
34. Statements: All the phones are scales. All the scales are calculators. Conclusions: 1. All the calculators are scales. 2. All the phones are calculators 3. All the scales are phones. 4. Some calculators are phones.

A. Only (1) and (4) B. Only (3) and (4) C. Only (2) and (4) D. Only (1) and (2) E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer - Option C
35. Statements: Some tables are T.V. Some T.V. are radios. Conclusions: 1. Some tables are radios. 2. Some radios are tables. 3. All the radios are T.V. 4. All the T.V. are tables.

A. Only (2) and (4) B. Only (1) and (3) C. Only (4) D. Only (1) and (4) E. None of the four.

Answer - Option E

1. Which of the following public sector banks has the largest number of branches in foreign countries?

A. Bank of India B. Bank of Baroda C. Punjab National Bank D. Corporation Bank E. BOth A&B

Answer: B
2.The only merger of two public sector banks took place between -

A. Bank of India and New Bank of India B. Punjab National Bank and New Bank of India C. Allahabad Bank and United Bank of India D. Punjab National Bank and Bank of Rajasthan E. Corporation Bank

Answer:B
3.Which of the following banks was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919?

A Bank of Maharashtra B. Bank of Baroda C. State Bank of Saurashtra D. Union Bank of India E. BOth A&C

Answer: D
4.After State Bank of India, which of the following banks has the largest number of offices?

A Punjab National Bank B Bank of India C Andhra Bank D Canara Bank E. BOth A&D

Answer:A
5.Which of the following is the apex institution which handles refinance for agriculture and rural development in India?

A. RBI B. SIDBI C. NABARD D. SEBI E. BOth A&C

Answer: C
6.Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for the Finance Commission?

A. Article 323 B. Article 280 C. Article 256 D. Article 378 E. BOth A&B

Answer: B
7. Which of the following roles/functions/responsibilities are NOT under the purview of the Financial commission?
1. Sharing of net proceeds of taxes between the Center and States 2. Recommending principles for governing the grants-in-aid to the states by the Center 3. Recommendations on matters referred to it by the President for the interest of sound finance 4. Preparation and periodical revision of electoral rolls

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Only 3 and 4 D. Only 4 E. None of the above

Answer: D
8. Who was the Chairman of the First Finance Commission of India that was appointed in 1951?

A. K.C. Neogy B. K.Santhanam C. Y.V. Reddy D. K.C. Pant E. None of the above

Answer: A
9. What is the prescribed limit for bank loans sanctioned to education under priority sector?

A. upto Rs. 1 million B. upto Rs. 11 million C. upto Rs. 10 million D. upto Rs. 1 lakh E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: Loans to individuals for educational purposes including vocational courses upto Rs. 1 million irrespective of the sanctioned amount are eligible for classification under priority sector
10. Choose the wrong statement about the prescribed limit for housing loans under priority sector?

A. Up to Rs.4.5 million loans to individuals in metropolitan centres is prescribed B. Housing loans to banks’ own employees are eligible for classification under priority sector C. Only a D. Only b E. Both a & b

Answer: E
Explanation:

• Loans to individuals up to Rs.3.5 million in metropolitan centres (with population of ten lakh and above) are allowed under PSL provided the overall cost if Rs.4.5 million.


• Loans to individuals up to Rs.2.5 million in non-metropolitan centres (with population of less than ten lakh) are allowed under PSL provided the overall cost if Rs.3 million.


• Housing loans to banks’ own employees are not eligible for classification under priority sector.

11. Bank credit to registered NBFCs for on-lending will be eligible for classification as priority sector subject to conditions. For the ‘term lending’ component of ‘Agriculture’ the limit is Rs.10 lakh per borrower. For MSE borrowers, it is _____________.

A. Rs.10 lakh B. Rs.15 lakh C. Rs.20lakh D. Rs.25 lakh E. None of these& b

Answer: C
Explanation: Bank credit to non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) for on-lending to the agriculture, micro and small enterprises (MSE) and housing categories under priority sector lending (PSL) will be allowed up to a limit of 5 per cent of the individual bank’s total PSL on an ongoing basis.
Limits:

• Agriculture: On-lending by NBFCs for ‘Term lending’ component under Agriculture will be allowed up to Rs.10 lakh per borrower.
• Micro & Small enterprises: On-lending by NBFC will be allowed up to Rs. 20 lakh per borrower.
• Housing: Enhancement of the existing limits for on-lending by HFCs from Rs. 10 lakh per borrower to Rs.20 lakh per borrower.

12.The minimum credit rating required to issue “Commercial Paper” is?

A. A-1 B. A-2 C. AAA D. AAAA E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Rating requirements for issuance of CP:

• All eligible participants shall obtain the credit rating for issuance of Commercial Paper either from CRISIL, ICRA, CARE or the FITCH or such other credit rating agency (CRA) as may be specified by the Reserve Bank of India.


• The minimum credit rating shall be A-2 [As per rating symbol and definition prescribed by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)].


• The issuers shall ensure at the time of issuance of CP that the rating so obtained is current and has not fallen due for review.

13. As per the IBBI norms, what is the timeline given for completing the liquidation process for corporate debtors?

A. 2 years B. 60 days C. 1 year D. 5 years E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation: The CoC may recommend the sale of the corporate debtor or sale of the business of the corporate debtor in the process of liquidation. IBBI has now specified to complete all the liquidation processes within one year of its commencement i.e. a model timeline for each liquidation task completion.
14. The government in budget 2019 has decided to borrow overseas sovereign bond in?

A. Foreign currencies B. Domestic currencies C. Both a and b D. Neither a nor b E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: The real interest rate on Indian bonds is attractive as compared to other developed countries, and attracts foreign portfolio investor’s interest in Indian government bonds traded locally but they have to take the currency risk investing in rupee-denominated government bonds.
15. For which purpose DBT portal has been launched by the Ministry of tribal affairs?

A. For sharing beneficiary data by state for faster release of funds B. To enable states to raise query about welfare funds C. Both a and b D. Only a E. Only b

Answer: D
Explanation: DBT Tribal portal, is launched by the ministry of tribal affairs to bring in greater e-Governance in implementation of welfare schemes for STs. It consists of 3 modules-

• Data Sharing module is mainly meant for sharing beneficiary-data by States.


• In Communication module, the States have facility to upload documents, raise query and DBT data uploaded by States is used for faster release of funds.


• Monitoring module has facility of MIS (Management Information System) reports & Dashboards.

16. Relaxation for additional factor of authentication (AFA) requirement is permitted for transactions for a maximum value of ____ per transaction?

A. Rs 1,000 B. Rs 2,000 C. Rs 5,000 D. Rs 10,000 E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Recently, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has removed the so-called two-factor authentication otherwise known as AFA (additional factor of authentication) for online card transactions involving sums up to Rs2,000, in a move aimed at simplifying and encouraging electronic payments. This led to the RBI relaxing the OTP rules for online transactions (or Card Not Present transactions) under the value of Rs.2000.
17. Which regulatory mechanism has been launched by the RBI for Fintech companies?

A. StartBox B. SandBox C. TechBox D. None of these E. Both A and B

Answer: B
Explanation: A regulatory sandbox (RS) refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test regulatory environment will provide the requisite regulatory guidance, so as to increase efficiency, manage risks and create new opportunities for fintech consumers.
18. According to the disclosure norms of SEBI, all listed banks have to disclose the NPAs exceeding ____% of the reported profit before provisions and contingencies?

A. 15% B. 10% C. 20% D. 25% E. None of these

Answer: E
Explanation:

• As per SEBI’s new norm, if the additional provisioning of NPAs identified by RBI exceeds 10% of the reported profit before provisions and contingencies, then all the listed banks have to disclose to the stock exchanges divergences in the asset provisioning and classification.
  
• Earlier, the threshold for the NPAs provisioning was 15% of the reported profit

19. HDFC and Common Service Centres (CSCs) launched which among the following for village-level entrepreneurs (VLEs)?

A. MSME Credit Card B. Small Business Money-Back Credit Card C. All Business Money-Back Credit Card D. Small and Medium Business Money-Back Credit Card E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation:

• The credit card has been launched for small traders, village-level entrepreneurs (VLEs) and VLEsourced customers.


• The card will provide easy access to credit for day-to-day business expenses to them.


• HDFC Bank and CSC has signed a pact in July 2018 in which the bank offered to provide products and services in remote locations to VLEs that are enrolled with CSC

Common Service Centres (CSCs):

• CSCs acts as delivery points of various government and public utility services across the country.


• There are about 3.6 lakh CSCs in the country with transacting the business of about Rs 70,000 crore.


• The services provided include financial services, welfare schemes, health care, digital literacy etc.

20. Budget 2019 announced setting up of a DD channel for which sector among the following?

A. Agriculture B. Education C. Start-ups D. Health E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation:

• The channel will serve as a platform to discuss issues affecting the growth, funding and tax paying and matchmaking with venture capitalists and investors.


• The start-ups will design and execute the channel itself.


• In 2016, the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has suggested setting up a channel dedicated to startups to the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

21. RBI has constituted the a six-member committee on Development of Housing Finance SecuritisationMarket in India. Who is the head of this committee ?

A. Harsh Vardhan B. UK Sinha C. Tapan Ray D. Amitabh Kant E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: Role of the Panel:

• The panel will review the regulations relating to mortgage-backed securitisation (MBS) currently in place, and make specific recommendations on suitably aligning the same with international norms.


• It will assess the role of various counteparties, including servicers, trustees,rating agencies,in the securitisation process and suggest the steps required.

Mortgage-Backed Security (MBS):

• Mortgage-Backed security (MBS) is a type of asset-backed security that is secured by a mortgage or collection of mortgages.

22. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that the time-window for using RTGS service for customer transactions will be extended from 4:30 pm to _____on all working days?

A. 5 PM B. 6 PM C. 7 PM D. 8 PM E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Reason for this decision:

• The decision is after a robust year-on-year increase in the number of transactions by 8% to Rs.1,335 crore in March 2019.


• The aggregate amount of transactions rose 12% year-on-year to Rs 1,255.51 crore.


• In the month of April, banks and customers combined used RTGS for 1.14 crore transactions worth Rs.112 lakh crore.

23. Which of the following entities are eligible to issue Differential Voting Rights shares ?

A. Tech company making intensive in the use of technology B. Public sector banks C. Infrastructure companies D. Oil refining companies E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: A company having superior voting rights shares (SR shares) would be permitted to do an initial public offering (IPO) of only ordinary shares subject to fulfillment of eligibility requirements of the SEBI(Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 and the following conditions :

• The issuer company is a tech company (as per the definition in Innovators Growth Platform) i.e. intensive in the use of technology, information technology, intellectual property, data analytics, bio-technology or nano-technology to provide products, services or business platforms with substantial value addition


• The SR shareholder should be a part of the promoter group whose collective net worth does not exceed Rs 500 Crores.


• The SR shares have been issued only to the promoters/ founders who hold an executive position in the company.

24. In Gold Monetisation Scheme, Gold is valued at ___________for Gold /USD rate with the Rupee-US Dollar reference rate announced by RBI on that day. The prevalent custom duty for import of gold will be added to the above value to arrive at the final value of gold.

A. London AM fixing B. London PM fixing C. Daily RBI gold rate D. World Gold Council daily rate E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation:

• The London Gold Fix involves gold dealers from London's five biggest bullion banks establishing a common transaction price for a large pool of purchase and sale orders. They do this twice each business day - first at 10:30am (the Morning Fix) and then again at 3pm (the Afternoon Fix).


• The participating bullion banks will be acting both on their own behalf and for those customers of theirs who have issued limit orders for them to trade at the London Gold Fix price. No-one knows what the Gold Fix will be before it is declared.


• The Gold Fix establishes the price at which the gross amount of gold on buy orders matches the gross amount of gold on sell orders - across all the participating banks

25.RBI has removed transaction charges levied by it for which two systems to boost digital transactions?

A. Real Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) B. Running Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transaction (NEFT) C. Real Time General Settlement System (RTGS) and Central Electronic Funds Transfer (CEFT) D. Real Transaction Gross Settlement System (RTGS) and National Actual Funds Transfer (NAFT) E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation:

• The RBI has removed transaction charges levied by it for Real Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) systems to boost digital transactions.


• The Real Time Gross Settlement System (RTGS) is meant for large-value instantaneous fund transfers while the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) System is used for fund transfers up to Rs 2 lakh.

26.What has the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched on its website for facilitating its grievance redressal process?

A. Grievance Management System (GMS) B. Complaint Management System (CMS) C. Grievance Redressal System (GRS) D. Complaint Redressal System (CRS) E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: It is a software application launched by RBI for lodging complaints against any regulated entity with public interfaces such as Commercial Banks, Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
27.Which country has become the first Arab country to be granted full membership of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

A. Oman B. Saudi Arabia C. Qatar D. Egypt E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: What is the FATF?

• It was established in 1989, with headquarters in Paris, France.


• The FATF comprises of 37-Member Jurisdictions and 2- Regional Organisations namely Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and European Commission (EC).


• With the Kingdom becoming a FATF member, the number of permanent members in the group is now 39.


• FATF Plenary is FATF's decision-making body which meets three times per year.

What is the function of FATF?

• The Financial Action Task Force is an international group responsible for issuing international standards, policies and best practices for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.

28.What has the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) launched in a bid to effectively track India's progress on Agenda 2030 adopted by UN?

A. Oman B. Saudi Arabia C. Qatar D. Egypt E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: About SDG Dashboard:

• It is a unique, searchable platform, which provides data and insights on how India is progressing on SDGs.


• It is a first of its kind national platform that pulls together reliable data from more than 100 different data sets, portals and sectors on to only one easy to use and intuitive platform, to power better informed decision making on SDGs.


• It will be India's official data repository of National Indicator Framework (NIF) on SDGs, which is India's largest monitoring framework with 306 statistical indicators.


• SDG Dashboard is developed in partnership with United Nation in India, Department for International Development (DFID) India and data intelligence firm Social Cops.

What are SDGs?

• They are the universal call by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for action towards ending poverty, improving health and education, protecting the planet and ensuring that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030.


• India has been closely monitoring its progress on SDGs through its National Indicator Framework and India SDG Index released in 2018.

29. As per Moody’s rating, the current local and foreign currency issuer rating for the Indian Economy is?

A. Baa1 B. Baa2 C. Baa3 D. Baa4 E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation: Moody’s rating agency upgraded local and foreign currency issuer rating to Baa2 from Baa3 for Indian Economy.
30. Cash withdrawal limit at POS using debit card/credit cards is Rs.1000/- per day in Tier I and II centres and ________per day in Tier III to VI centres.

A. Rs.1,500/- B. Rs.2,000/- C. Rs.2,500/- D. Rs.2,750/- E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Classification of centres (tier-wise) Population(as per 2001 Census)

• Tier 1 - 1,00,000 and above
• Tier 2- 50,000 to 99,999
• Tier 3- 20,000 to 49,999
• Tier 4- 10,000 to 19,999
• Tier 5- 5,000 to 9,999
• Tier 6- Less than 5000

31. Under 'Partial Credit Guarantee offered by Government of India (GoI) to Public Sector Banks (PSBs) for purchasing high-rated pooled assets from Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), One-time guarantee provided by the GoI on the pooled assets will be valid for__________ from the date of purchase.

A. 12 months B. 18 months C. 24 months D. 36 months E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation: I. The assets shall be purchased by banks at fair value.
II. Assets to be assigned by NBFCs/HFCs must be rated by Credit Rating Agencies (CRAs) accredited by Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
III. A one-time guarantee provided by the GoI on the pooled assets will be valid for 24 months from the date of purchase and 'D' can be invoked on the occurrence of default as outlined under the heading below.
IV. The guarantee shall cease earlier if the purchasing bank sells the pooled assets to the originating NBFC/HFC or any other entity, before the validity of the guarantee period.
32. As per the latest circular on Priority Sector Lending, what is the sanctioned limit for classification of export credit under Priority Sector Lending ?

A. Rs.25 cr B. Rs.30 cr C. Rs.40 cr D. Rs.100 cr E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation:

• Enhance the sanctioned limit, for classification of export credit under PSL, from Rs.250 million per borrower to Rs.400 million per borrower.


• Remove the existing criteria of ‘units having turnover of up to Rs.1 billion.

33. What is the loan limit for education under priority sector?

A. Rs. 5 lacs B. Rs. 10 lacs C. Rs. 12 lacs D. Rs. 15 lacs E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Under Priority Sector Lending (PSL), the loans and advances granted to only individuals for educational purposes up to Rs.10 lakh for studies in India and Rs. 20 lakh for studies abroad.
34. As per RBI’s latest circular, what is the new limit for “Bulk deposit” ?

A. 1 cr B. 2 cr C. 5 cr D. 10 cr E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation:

• Single Rupee term deposits of Rupees two crore and above for Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Regional Rural banks) and Small Finance Banks.


• Single Rupee term deposits of Rupees fifteen lakhs and above for RRBs.

35. As per RBI’s latest circular, What is the age limit for retired staff engaged as concurrent auditors?

A. 72 years B. 70 years C. 68 years D. 65 years E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: The tenure of external concurrent auditors with a bank shall not be more than five years on continuous basis. Further, the age limit for retired staff engaged as concurrent auditors may be capped at 70 years.However, no concurrent auditor shall be allowed to continue with a branch/business unit for a period of more than three years.
36. Relaxation for additional factor of authentication (AFA) requirement is permitted for transactions for a maximum value of ____ per transaction?

A. Rs 1,000 B. Rs 2,000 C. Rs 5,000 D. Rs 10,000 E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Recently, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has removed the so-called two-factor authentication otherwise known as AFA (additional factor of authentication) for online card transactions involving sums up to Rs2,000, in a move aimed at simplifying and encouraging electronic payments. This led to the RBI relaxing the OTP rules for online transactions (or Card Not Present transactions) under the value of Rs.2000.
37. The tenure of external concurrent auditors with a bank shall not be more than _____years oncontinuous basis.

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7

Answer: C
Explanation: The tenure of external concurrent auditors with a bank shall not be more than five years on continuous basis. Further, the age limit for retired staff engaged as concurrent auditors may be capped at 70 years.However, no concurrent auditor shall be allowed to continue with a branch/business unit for a period of more than three years.
38. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has made it mandatory for banks to link all floating personal orretail loans to external benchmark from 1 October 2019, which of the followings can be used as a benchmark ?

A. Reserve Bank of India policy repo rat B. Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd(FBIL) C. Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL D. Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL. E. All of the above

Answer: E
Explanation:
(a) All new floating rate personal or retail loans (housing, auto, etc.) and floating rate loans to Micro and Small Enterprises extended by banks from October 01, 2019 shall be benchmarked to one of the following:

Reserve Bank of India policy repo rate

Government of India 3-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the Financial Benchmarks India Private

Ltd (FBIL)

Government of India 6-Months Treasury Bill yield published by the FBIL

Any other benchmark market interest rate published by the FBIL.

(b) Banks are free to offer such external benchmark linked loans to other types of borrowers as wel (c) In order to ensure transparency, standardisation, and ease of understanding of loan products by borrowers, a bank must adopt a uniform external benchmark within a loan category; in other words, the adoption of multiple benchmarks by the same bank is not allowed within a loan category.
39. Recently SEBI allowed certain technology companies to issue Superior Rights shares. What is maximum voting right these can have?

A.2:1 B.5:1 C.10:1 D.25:1 E.None of these

Answer: C
Explanation: A company having superior voting rights shares (SR shares) would be permitted to do an initial public offering (IPO) of only ordinary shares subject to fulfillment of eligibility requirements of the SEBI(Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 and the following conditions :

• The issuer company is a tech company (as per the definition in Innovators Growth Platform) i.e. intensivein the use of technology, information technology, intellectual property, data analytics, bio-technology or nano-technology to provide products, services or business platforms with substantial value addition.


• The SR shareholder should be a part of the promoter group whose collective net worth does not exceed Rs 500 Crores.


• The SR shares have been issued only to the promoters/ founders who hold an executive position in the company.

40. As per Large Exposure Framework of Reserve Bank India, what is the exposure limit on lending to a single NBFC ?

A. 20% of Tier-I capital B. 15% of Tier-I capital C. 15% of Tier-I & Tier-II capital D. 20% of of Tier-I & Tier-II capital E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: Bank’s exposure to a single NBFC (excluding gold loan companies) will be restricted to 20 percent of that bank’s eligible capital base.
41. The Finance Ministry has recently slashed the corporate tax rates to ___% for domestic companies and _____% for new domestic manufacturing companies.

A. 15%, 20% B. 22%, 20% C. 22%, 15% D. 15%, 22% E. None of these

Answer: C
Explanation:

• The effective rate for domestic companies with inclusive surcharge and cess shall be 25.17%.


• The effective rate for new domestic companies with inclusive surcharge and cess shall be 17.01%.

42. Recently, the government has allowed corporate social responsibility (CSR) spending on _______ for corporate companies?

A. Waste Management Control B. Research and Development activities C. Water conservation D. Afforestation E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation:

• The Companies Act requires firms with net worth of Rs 500 crore


• turnover of Rs 1,000 crore or net profit of Rs 5 crore or more to set aside 2% of their average net profit over the last 3 years towards ‘approved’ CSR activities.

43. RBI has expanded the scope of the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) by allowing_____ payments on its platform?

A. Recurring Payments B. Insurance premium C. Mutual funds D. Both b and c E. None of them

Answer: A
Explanation:

• BBPS is an interoperable medium to facilitate customers to pay bills such as direct-to-home (DTH), telephone, water, gas and electricity at a single location either physical or electronic.


• After the expansion of the payment facility, municipal taxes, insurance premiums, school fees and other recurring payments can also be paid via BBPS.


• All categories of billers (except prepaid recharges) are permitted, who provide for recurring bill payments to participate in BBPS on a voluntary basis.


• BBPS payments can be made using cash, cheques, through digital methods including debit, credit card, internet banking.

44.As per RBI’s minimum holding period requirement, the minimum number of installments to be paid before securitisation is _______monthly installments.

A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24 E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation:

• RBI has relaxed the minimum holding period (MHP) requirement for originating NBFCs, in respect of loans of original maturity above 5 years, to receipt of repayment of six monthly installments or two quarterly installments.


• Earlier, they had to hold these assets for at least one year.


• However, relaxation on MHP will be allowed when the NBFC retains 20% of book value of these loans.


• RBI has also prescribed certain Minimum Retention Requirement (MRR) for NBFCs for availing the relaxed norms.

45. Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961 was recently in the news for which context?

A. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code related norms B. Foreign direct investment C. Angel tax provisions D. Start-ups tax holiday eligibility E. None of these

Answer: D
Explanation: Section 80-IAC contains a detailed definition of the eligible start-up which, provides that a start-up shall be eligible for the deduction, if

• It is incorporated on or after 1st April 2016.


• Its turnover does not exceed Rs. 25 crore in the year of deduction, and


• CIt holds a certificate from the Inter-Ministerial Board of Certification.

46. Calculate the Interest subvention/PRI benefit that will be available to the farmer.
Overall Kisan Credit Card limit – Rs.3 lakhs
Limit under Crop loan – Rs. 0.5 lakh
Sub-limit KCC for Animal Husbandry and / or Fisheries – Rs.2.5 lakhs

A. Rs.2.5 lakhs B. Rs.2 lakhs C. Rs.3 lakhs D. Rs.3.5 lakhs E. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation: Overall KCC limit – Rs.3 lakhs Limit under Crop loan – Rs.0.5 lakh Sub-limit KCC for Animal Husbandry and / or fisheries – Rs. 2.5 lakhs Interest subvention/PRI benefit will be available on overall Rs. 2.5 lakhs i.e. Rs. 0.5 lakh crop loan + Rs.2 lakhs animal husbandry and / or fisheries.
47. Under Interest Subvention Scheme for Kisan Credit Card (KCC) to Fisheries and Animal Husbandryfarmers, the 2 percent interest subsidy on short-term loans of up to ________ for farmers engaged infisheries and animal husbandry through Kisan Credit Card (KCC).

A. Rs.2 Lakh B. Rs.3 Lakh C. Rs.5 Lakh D. Rs 7 Lakh E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Monday announced modalities for providing 2 percent interest subsidy on short-term loans of up to Rs 2 lakh for farmers engaged in fisheries and animal husbandry through Kisan Credit Card (KCC).
48. The Bimal Jalan Committee on Economic Capital Framework of the RBI has proposed change in its accounting year from July-June to April-March from the financial year ___________?

A. 2020-21 B. 2021-22 C. 2022-23 D. 2023-24 E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: The Bimal Jalan Committee on Economic Capital Framework of the RBI has proposed a more transparent presentation of the RBI’s annual accounts and change in its accounting year from July to June to April to March from the financial year 2020-21.
49. Recently RBI allowed e-mandate processing on cards for recurring transactions, what is the maximum limit for recurring transactions ?

A. Rs.2000 B. Rs.2500 C. Rs.5000 D. Rs.10000 E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to permit processing of e-mandate on cards for recurring transactions with additional factor authentication (AFA) during registration.


• This will be applicable for transactions done using all types of cards — debit and credit cards and Prepaid Payment Instruments, including wallets. The maximum limit for such a transaction will be Rs.2,000.

50. As per RBI’s “Priority Sector Lending Guidelines”, Small Finance Banks will have a target of_________ for priority sector lending of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC).

A. 75 per cent B. 40 per cent C. 60 per cent D. 80 per cent E. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: Small Finance Banks will have a target of 75 per cent for priority sector lending of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC). While 40 per cent of ANBC should be allocated to different sub-sectors under PSL as mentioned below, the balance 35 per cent can be allocated to any one or more sub-sectors under the PSL, where the banks have competitive advantage.