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BITSAT English Proficiency

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BITSAT English Proficiency

shape Introduction

BITSAT 2020 – Entrance Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 3 Hours and consists of 4 parts, namely – Physics, Chemistry, English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning and Mathematics/ Biology. The 4 sections are not separately timed and there is no break in between the sections. There is a Negative marking in BITSAT 2020 exam and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. The below sections gives the detailed information about BITSAT Physics part.

shape Pattern

Parts Subject No of Questions Duration
Part I Physics 40



3 hours (Without break)
Part II Chemistry 40
Part III (a) English Proficiency and 15
(b) Logical Reasoing 10
Part IV Mathematics or Bilogy (For B.Pharm candidates) 45
Total 150
The BITSAT English Proficiency section, has 15 objective questions. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the BITSAT English Proficiency Section.

shape Syllabus

BITSAT 2020 Exam Syllabus


shape Vocabulary

1. Prasanna had a good —– for stage plays.
    A. trup B. troop C. trupe D. troupe

Answer - Option
2. The cattle are —– on the meadow.
    A. gracing B. crazing C. grazing D. grace

Answer - Option C
3. My friend is a —– officer.
    A. navval B. navel C. naval D. none of these

Answer - Option C
4. Please remove the —–
    A. rid B. reed C. read D. redo

Answer - Option B
5. The king died —–
    A. hareless B. heirless C. hairless D. airless

Answer - Option B
1. Contemporary
    A. preceding B. succeeding C. present D. future

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The meaning to the word Contemporary is present. Contemporary means existing, occurring, or living at the same time or belonging to the same time.
2. Dauntlessness
    A. valiancy B. apathy C. cowardice D. fear

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The Synonyms for dauntlessness is valiancy. It means valiant nature or quality; valor; bravery; courage.
3. GLEE
    A. Delight B. Pleasure C. Dissapointment D. Ammusement

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Glee - great delight, especially from ones own good fortune or another’s misfortune. So, the opposite meaning for glee is a disappointment
4. Perturbing
    A. passive B. truth C. cheerful D. lie

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The opposite to the word Perturbing is cheerful. Poignant means causing anxiety or concern; unsettling or evoking a keen sense of sadness or regret. Cheerful means being happy and optimistic.
5. INCURSION
    A. Hurt B. Retreat C. Aggression D. Cut

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Incursion - An invasion or attack, especially a sudden or brief one.
1. Pantry : Store :: Scullery : ?
    A. Cook B. Kitchen C. Utensils D. Wash

Answer - Option D
2. Calf : Cow :: Puppy : ?
    A. Dog B. Bitch C. Horse D. Donkey

Answer - Option B
3. Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?
    A. Horse B. Lion C. Lamb D. Elephant

Answer - Option A
4. Carpenter : Saw :: Tailor ?
    A. Measurement B. Sewing C. Cloth D. Needle

Answer - Option D
5. Coal : Heat :: Wax : ?
    A. Energy B. Candle C. Light D. Bee

Answer - Option C
1. In the given question, there are five segments, find the segment which doesn't contribute to the main theme of the passage and rearrange the remaining segments to make a coherent sentence. If the given segments are correct as they are, choose ˜No correction required. If the correct sequence is not given, choose ˜None of these as the answer. and a symbolic journey to Mumbai Chabad house, (A)/ Mr. Netanyahu made the traditional trip to the Taj Mahal (B)/ one of the sites of the 26/11 terror attacks, (C)/ the focus is now on the future (D)/ where a few Israeli citizens were killed. (E)
    A. BACE B. BCAE C. ACED D. None of these

Answer - Option A
2. In the question given below a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C), (D) and arranged and not necessarily in the same order. You have to find the correct order of the arrangement from the options given below. In case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer. as well as emotional needs of the family (A)/ in economic activity for poorer households and so support the economic (B)/ son preference remains high, children lend a helping hand (C)/ the poor tend to have more children because child survival is low, (D)/
    A. DCBA B. CBAD C. ABDC D. BDAC

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The poor tend to have more children because child survival is low, (D)/ son preference remains high, children lend a helping hand (C)/ in economic activity for poorer households and so support the economic (B)/ as well as emotional needs of the family (A)
3. In the question given below a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C) and (D) arranged but not necessarily in the same order. You have to find the correct order of the arrangement from the options given below. In case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer. The decision is all the more suspect because (A)/the fraught political climate that has prevailed (B)/since June 2016 was the consequence of the country (C)/having to renegotiate the nature of its ties with its closest neighbours (D)/
    A. DCBA B. ABDC C. No arrangement required D. BDAC

Answer - Option C
Explanation -The decision is all the more suspect because (A)/the fraught political climate that has prevailed (B)/since June 2016 was the consequence of the country (C)/having to renegotiate the nature of its ties with its closest neighbours (D)/
4. In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the correct order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement from the options given below. In case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer. Of higher education because in addition to large-scale (A)/ state universities remain central in the entire structure (B)/ on-campus enrolment they grant affiliation and thereby administer (C)/ and control a large network of colleges in their respective jurisdictions.(D)
    A. BCDA B. BACD C. ADCB D. DBCA

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The only viable beginning fragment is B as the rest are clearly continuation of other fragments. Connectors: B and A: B: State universities remain central in the entire structure A: of higher education because in addition to large-scale
A and C: A: of higher education because in addition to large-scale C: on-campus enrolment they grant affiliation and thereby administer
C and D: C: on-campus enrolment they grant affiliation and thereby administer D: and controls a large network of colleges in their respective jurisdictions.
The correct sequence is B-A-C-D. Hence, the second option is correct.
5. In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the correct order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement from the options given below. In case, the sentence is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer.
That from January 2018, user charges in public hospitals for various services will (A) / services tax (GST) and to finance better quality services and improved maintenance (B) / At the end of 2017, the Maharashtra government issued a government resolution (C) / increase substantially, in order to cover the increased costs to hospitals due to goods and (D)

    A. DABC B. CBAD C. BACD D. CADB

Answer - Option D
Explanation -The only valid first fragment is fragment C: Connectors: C and A: C: At the end of 2017, the Maharashtra government issued a government resolution A: that from January 2018, user charges in public hospitals for various services will
A and D: A: that from January 2018, user charges in public hospitals for various services will D: increase substantially, in order to cover the increased costs to hospitals due to goods and
D and B: D: increase substantially, in order to cover the increased costs to hospitals due to goods and B: services tax (GST) and to finance better quality services and improved maintenance.
The correct sequence is C-A-D-B. Hence, Fourth option is correct.

shape Composition

1. It takes two to tango
    A. tackle with plan B. a friendship that is at jeopardy C. being proactive D. actions or communications need more than one person

Answer - Option D
Explanation - It takes two to tango means Actions or communications need more than one person.
2. To make clean breast of
    A. To gain prominence B. To praise oneself C. To confess without of reserve D. To destroy before it blooms

Answer - Option C
3. Give someone the benefit of the doubt Not trusting what a person says Getting benefit because of unbelief Trust what someone says Being suspicious
    A. Not trusting what a person says B. Getting benefit because of unbelief C. Trust what someone says D. Being suspicious

Answer - Option
Explanation - The idiom/phrase give someone the benefit of the doubt means to decide that you will believe someone, even though you are not sure that what the person is saying is true.
4. Balloon goes up
    A. To be attentive B. A situation turning unpleasant/serious C. A happy occasion D. Get up early

Answer - Option B
5. The royal road
    A. An easy way B. A troublesome way C. A grand idea D. A luxurious life style

Answer - Option A
1. A) Moreover, salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporations. B) This trend should be a wake-up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad. C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff. D) Having identified these as the reasons why employees leave PSEs, it is important to empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation. E) One reason is that young employees lured away by private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks. F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.
    A. CFEBAD B. CFBDAE C. CFBEAD D. CFBEDA

Answer - Option C
2. A) Assuming that all these reasons are true, the fact remains that there is an urgent need to check the accelerated costs and initiate suitable measures. B) Some people attribute it to the increasing greediness among the medicos. C) The Impact of these measures will be visible only after a considerable passage of time. D) Healthcare costs have been Skyrocketing in our country. E) The measures include yoga classes with an emphasis on physical and mental exercises and also a change in food habits. F) Certain others feel that it is because of drastic changes in people’s lifestyles and eating habits.
    A. DBFAEC B. DBAFEC C. DBFEAC D. DBFACE

Answer - Option A
3. A) Settlement in real-time means the transaction is not subjected to any waiting period. B) It is a funds transfer mechanism. C) Moreover, as the money transfer takes place in the books of RBI it is final and irrevocable. D) The acronym RTGS stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement. E) While gross Settlement means the transaction is settled without bunching it with any other transaction. F) The transfer of funds takes place on a real-time and gross basis.
    A. DBAFEC B. DBFAEC C. DBEAFC D. DBFEAC

Answer - Option B
4. A) As a result of the non-stop tensions and anxieties at work often results in health-related problems. B) The truth is we cannot change the world of work. C) We spend at least half our waking hours at work. D) We have therefore to take charge and transform the way in which we respond to our work environment. E) So how can we control these problems and perform at work? F) However, we can change the way we feel and deal with various situations.
    A. CEABFD B. CABEFD C. CAEBFD D. CAEBDF

Answer - Option C
5. A) In all varieties of humor, especially the subtle ones, it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives extra meaning to these verses. B) But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface level. C) Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated forms of literature. D) This fulfills the author’s main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure. E) However, the reader who understands the broad implications of the content and allusion finds greater pleasure. F) The reason being it requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning.
    A. CFBDEA B. CBFDEA C. CFDBEA D. CFBEDA

Answer - Option A
1. Which of these is not an important feature of a paragraph?
    A. Length B. Breadth C. Unity D. Coherence

Answer - Option B
Explanation - A paragraph gives expression to thoughts in any writing. The important features of paragraph are its length, unity, coherence and emphasis.
2. An average length of sentence in a paragraph should be _____
    A. 15 to 20 words B. 25 to 30 words C. 2 to 5 words D. 5 to 10 words

Answer - Option A
Explanation - An average length of sentence should be about 15 to 20 words. These should be a variety in sentence length. It is better to adopt a range from 3 to 30 words.
3. Where should the main idea be put up in a paragraph?
    A. In the beginning B. In the middle C. At the end D. After the paragraph

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The main idea should be put up front within a sentence. A writer must decide the emphasis accordingly. The writer should choose words precisely.
4. Which of these is not a level of language?
    A. Formal B. Public C. Informal D. Substandard

Answer - Option B
Explanation - There are three levels of language. They are: formal, informal and substandard (or non standard)
5. Which of these is associated with academic pursuits?
    A. Informal writing B. Formal writing C. Personal writing D. Substandard writing

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Formal writing is associated with academic pursuits and scholarly writings e.g: thesis, research papers and articles, government agreements, legal documents.
Directions (1-5): The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is a subject of vital concern. There is a growing realization that though India has enough food to feed its masses two square meals a day, the monster of starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country. Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to rising income, and thus the good standard of living is the ultimate objective of public policy. However, till then, there is a need to provide an assured supply of food through a restructured, more efficient and decentralized public distribution system (PDS). Although the PDS is extensive lit is one of the largest such systems in the world- it hasn't reached the rural poor and the remote places. It remains an urban phenomenon, with the majority of the rural poor still out of its reach due to a lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently needs to be streamlined. Also, considering the large food grain production combined with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal I poverty of rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target-group oriented. By making PDS target-group oriented, not only the poorest and the neediest would be reached without additional cost but we can also reduce the overall costs incurred._______________
1. What according to the passage, would be the rationale of making the PDS target-group oriented?
    A. It will motivate the target-group population to work more. B. It will give food to the poorest section without additional cost. C. It will abolish the imbalance of urban and rural sectors. D. It will remove poverty.

Answer - Option B
2. The public distribution system, which provides food at is a subject of vital concern.
    A. low prices B. fair prices C. as per capita income D. high prices

Answer - Option A 3. The full form of PBS is
    A. Private distribution system B. Public distribution system C. Partial distribution system D. Party distribution system

Answer - Option B
4. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?
    A. To decrease the allotment B. To increase the amount of food grains.foodgrain per ration card. C. To make it target-group D. To reduce administrative oriented cost.

Answer - Option C
5. Which of the following is true of public distribution system?
    A. It has improved its effectiveness over the years B. It is unique in the world because of its effectiveness C. It has reached the remotest corner of the country. D. It has remained effective only in the cities.

Answer - Option D

shape Grammar

1. A preposition is placed before which of these?
    A. Noun B. Verb C. Adjective D. Noun or pronoun

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A preposition is a word placed before a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation the person or thing denoted by it stands in regard to something else. For example, there is a dog in the garden. For this sentence, the preposition is in, and it is placed before the noun garden. Another example is: The boy’s cellphone lay beside him. In this sentence, the preposition is besides, and it precedes the pronoun him.
2. Which of these is not a simple proposition?
    A. From B. Through C. Above D. With

Answer - Option C
Explanation - At, by, for, from, in, of, off, as, out, through, till, to, up, with are simple prepositions. Compound prepositions are generally formed by prefixing a preposition to a noun, adjective or an adverb. Example, above.
3.Which of these is a participial?
    A. Underneath B. Beside C. Considering D. Along with

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Participials are present participles of verbs which are used absolutely without any noun or pronoun being attached to them. For all practical purposes, they have become prepositions. In the above question, the word Considering is the present continuous tense of the word consider, and it’s used as a participial preposition. Example: Considering his age, the Sports Council felt that he was too old to be in the international team.
4. Fill in with appropriate preposition: I have not seen the television ______ yesterday.
    A. from B. since C. till D. for

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The correct preposition here would be- since. Since is used before a noun or a phrase, which denotes some point of time. It is preceded by a verb in perfect tense.
5. In which of these cases, the preposition is always placed at the end?
    A. Relative pronoun B. Reciprocal pronoun C. Possessive pronoun D. Reflexive pronoun

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The preposition is always placed at the end when the object is an interrogative or a relative pronoun. For example: Here is the money that you asked for. , What are you thinking of.
1. What is the comparative of far (physical distance)?
    A. Farther B. Further C. Farthest D. More far

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The comparative of far is farther and its superlative is farthest. More far is incorrect and should not be used. Also, farther should not be confused with further. The two words cannot be used interchangeably. The word farther is used to denote the physical distance between two locations. For example: According to the map, we have to walk farther. The word further is used in a more metaphorical sense. For example, This topic needs to be discussed further.
2. What is the superlative of late (with respect to time)?
    A. Later B. Latter C. Latest D. Last

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The comparative of late with respect to time is later and superlative is latest. With respect to position, the comparative is latter and the superlative is last.
3. Choose the correct statement:
    A. Kalidas is the greatest of all other poets. B. Kalidas is the greatest of all poets. C. Kalidas is the greater of all other poets. D. Kalidas is the greater of all poets.

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The correct statement is: Kalidas is the greatest of all poets. Here, other is unnecessary. Though in the comparative degree, Kalidas is greater than any other poet.
4. Aahna is ______ than Neha.(Fill in the blank)
    A. more strong B. stronger C. most strong D. strongest

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The correct statement is: Aahna is stronger than Neha. Most one-syllable adjectives form their comparatives and superlatives with -er/-est.
5. What is the positive of most (quantity)?
    A. many B. much C. more D. good

Answer - Option
Explanation -The positive of most (quantity) is much and its comparative is more. The positive of most (number) is many.
1. Which of these is used in the following phrase? “This machine.”
    A. Demonstrative adjectives B. Descriptive adjectives C. Possessive adjectives D. Indefinite adjectives

Answer - Option A
Explanation - In the phrase, “ This machine “, demonstrative adjective “this” is used which agrees in number with the noun it qualifies.
2. His aim and object ___ to pass the C.A. examination.(Fill in the blank)
    A. are B. were C. is D. am

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The correct statement is: His aim and object is to pass the C.A. examination. Here, the double subject express the same plan, hence the verb is singular.
3. In the case of the double subject, when does the verb takes plural form?
    A. When both subjects represent same plan. B. When both subjects are singular C. When one of the subjects is plural. D. When the subject has multiple nouns.

Answer - Option C
Explanation - When one of the subjects is plural, the verb takes up plural form. For example: Neither Ram nor his brothers were present in the office.
4. Neither Sona nor I ________ present in the office.(Fill in the blank)
    A. is B. are C. were D. am

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The correct statement is: Neither Sona nor I am present in the office. If the subject consists of double or multiple nouns or pronouns separated by neither-nor, either-or then the verb agrees in person with the nearer noun or pronoun.
5. A team of detectives ______ coming to inspect the crime scene.
    A. are B. were C. is D. may

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The correct statement is A team of detectives is coming to inspect the crime scene. Here, the collective noun team is considered as a single unit, so the verb is singula
1. If you are planning to drive a long distance, you should drive during the time of the day ---- you are normally awake.
    A. which B. whom C. when D. whose

Answer - Option C
2. Canada is one of the few forested nations ---- forests are mostly public property.
    A. which B. that C. whom D. whose

Answer - Option D
3. In 1851,---- an international tournament was organized by the great English player Howard Staunton, the modern competitive age of chess began in London.
    A. that B. when C. which D. where

Answer - Option B
4. I have always found that it's helpful to have a few wise and trusted people to ---- you can turn for information and advice.
    A. whom B. that C. whose D. who

Answer - Option A
5. While starting your own business the first principle is to select people ---- you have trust and confidence
    A. on which B. whose C. in whom D. where

Answer - Option C
1. Let us play.
    A. can we? B. do we? C. shall we? D. shan't we?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - shall we?
2. Let us attend the party.
    A. shall not we? B. shall we? C. shan't we? D. none of these

Answer - Option B
Explanation - shall we?
3. Radhika sang well.
    A. can she? B. does she? C. didn't she? D. is she?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - didn't she?
4. I never drink coke.
    A. will I? B. did I? C. do I? D. don't I?

Answer - Option C
Explanation - do I?
5. My wife cooks very well.
    A. can she? B. doesn't she? C. can she? D. does she?

Answer - Option B
Explanation - doesn't she?
1. Convert the following sentence in the active voice to passive voice : He is writing the book.
    A. The book has been written by him. B. The book is being written by him. C. The book is written by him. D. The book was written by him

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The correct statement is : The book is being written by him. The passive of continuous tenses requires the present continuous form of “to be”. And the verb ‘writing’ needs to be converted to its past participle form, that is, ‘written’.
2. Verbs of which of these do not form their passive with the passive infinitive?
    A. Liking B. Loving C. Wanting D. Advice

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Verbs of liking/ loving/ wanting/ wishing etc + object + infinitive form their passive with the passive infinitive.
3. Verbs of which of these form their passive by using the passive form of the main verb.
    A. Wanting B. Wishing C. Liking D. Command

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Verbs of advice, command etc + indirect object + infinitive form their passive by using the passive form of the main verb.
4. Which of these is not the use of the passive voice?
    A. When we know about the doer of the action. B. When the subject of the active verb would be people. C. To avoid awkward or ungrammatical sentences. D. When an active form would create problems for the speaker.

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The passive voice has a lot of uses. Some of them are: When we don’t know about the doer of the action, when the subject of the active verb would be people, to avoid awkward or ungrammatical sentences, etc.
5. Which of these is not a part of speech?
    A. Noun B. Verb C. Preposition D. Object

Answer - Option D
Explanation - There are eight parts of speech. They are : Noun, pronoun, verb, adverb, adjective, preposition, conjunction and interjection.



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