Introduction
The TSP SI Civil or Equivalent and IT & C/ ASI FPB Selection Process involves four phases: Preliminary Written Test (PWT), Physical Measurements Test (PMT), Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Final Written Examination (FWE). The Preliminary Written Examination (PWE) will be conducted offline. Candidates who will clear the Preliminary Written Test will proceed to the TSP SI next stages.
Phases
The different phases of the TSP SI Selection Process 2018 are as described below:
TSP SI Selection Process - Civil and/or Equivalent:
TSP SI Selection Process - IT & C/ ASI FPB:
Candidates shall be required to appear for the Preliminary Written Test in one paper (3 (three) hours duration) as given below.
| Paper | Subject | Max. Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Preliminary Written Test | Arithmetic and Test of Reasoning/ Mental Ability (100 Questions) and General Studies (100 Questions) (Questions are Objective in Nature) | 200 |
Note:
1. The minimum mark to be secured by the Candidates in order to qualify in the Preliminary Written Test is 40% for OCs, 35% for BCs and 30% for SCs / STs / Ex-Servicemen.
2. Questions in the Paper will be objective in nature and will be set in English, Telugu and Urdu languages. Candidates have to answer the questions on an OMR answer sheet using Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only. For this purpose, Candidates should bring their own Blue/ Black Ball Point Pens along with them.
Intimation Letter: Candidates who qualify in the Preliminary Written Test will be informed the dates for downloading the Intimation Letter through the website (www.tslprb.in) for appearing in the PMT/ PET with details of Venue, Date and Time. Candidates should bring the Intimation Letter when they come to attend the PMT/ PET. Physical Measurements Test (PMT): Candidates who qualify in the above Physical Measurements Test have to undergo Physical Measurements Test and should meet the following requirements
- i) For the Post Code Nos. 11 to 15 & 17 (Men):
Height: Must not be less than 167.6 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 86.3 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 5 cms
ii) For the Post Code Nos. 11 & 12 (Women):
Height: Must not be less than 152.5 cms
iii) For Post Code No. 18 (Men):
Height: Must not be less than 168 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 87 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 5 cms
iv) For the Post Code No. 19 (Women):
Height: Must not be less than 153 cms
- i) For the Post Code Nos. 11 to 15 & 17 (Men):
Height: Must not be less than 160 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 80 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 3 cms
ii) For the Post Code Nos. 11 & 12 (Women):
Height: Must not be less than 150 cms
iii) For Post Code No. 18 (Men):
Height: Must not be less than 164 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 83 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 5 cms
Candidates who qualify in the above Physical Measurements Test will be required to undergo the following tests and qualify as specified below
i. For Post Code Nos. 11, 17 & 18 (Men): Candidates must qualify in any 3 (three) events out of the 5 (five) events of the Physical Efficiency Test as detailed below while qualification in 800 Metres Run is a must for all of them i.e., 800 metres run should be one of the 3 (three) or above events that they qualify in.
Performance of the Candidates in each event will be awarded out of a maximum 25 marks as given in Annexure I (A)[Click Here]. All the 5 (five) events put together will carry 125 marks. For Post Code No. 12 while drawing the Merit List, these 125 marks will be normalized as per the procedure followed by TSLPRB.
iv. For Post Code No. 12 (Women): Candidates must qualify in all the 3 (three) events of the Physical Efficiency Test carrying an aggregate125 maximum marks as detailed below –
Performance of the Candidates in each event will be awarded out of maximum marks as per the gradation shown in Annexure I (B)[Click Here]. All the 3 (three) items put together will carry 125 marks. While drawing the Merit List, these 125 marks will be normalized as per the procedure followed by TSLPRB.
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance | |
|---|---|---|---|
| General | Ex-Servicemen | ||
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 15 seconds | 16.5 seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 3.80 metres | 3.65 metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (7.26 Kgs) | 5.60 metres | 5.60 metres |
| 4 | High Jump | 1.20 metres | 1.05 metres |
| 5 | 800 Metres Run | 170 seconds | 200 seconds |
Note: For the above Post Codes, Physical Efficiency Test will be qualifying in nature
ii. For Post Code Nos. 11 & 19 (Women): Candidates must qualify in any 2 (two) events out of the 3 (three) events of the Physical Efficiency Test as detailed below, while qualifying in 100 Metres Run is a must for all of them i.e., 100 Metres Run should be one of the 2 (two) or 3 (three) events that they qualify in.
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 20.0 Seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 2.50 Metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (4 Kgs) | 3.75 Metres |
Note:
For the above Post Codes, Physical Efficiency Test will be qualifying in nature
iii. For Post Code Nos. 12 to 15 (Men): Candidates must qualify in all the 5 (five) events of Physical Efficiency Test carrying an aggregate 125 maximum marks as detailed below –
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance | |
|---|---|---|---|
| General | Ex-Servicemen | ||
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 15 seconds | 16.5 seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 3.80 metres | 3.65 metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (7.26 Kgs) | 5.60 metres | 5.60 metres |
| 4 | High Jump | 1.20 metres | 1.05 metres |
| 5 | 800 Metres Run | 170 seconds | 200 seconds |
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 20.0 Seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 2.50 Metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (4 Kgs) | 3.75 Metres |
Note:
Physical Measurement Test / Physical Efficiency Test for all the Posts / Notifications applied for by a Candidate, will be conducted only once and the same scores will be used for all the Posts for which he / she is applying for among the Notifications with Nos. 88, 89, 90 and 91 / Rect. / Admn.1/2018 dated 31.05.2018.
Intimation Letter: Candidates who qualify in the Physical Efficiency Test will be issued Hall Tickets for appearing in the Final Written Examination. Candidates who qualify in the Physical Efficiency Test will be required to appear in a Final Written Examination having four papers (each of 3 (three) hours duration) as described below.
| Paper | Subject | Max. Marks for | |||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Post Code Nos. 11, 17, 18 & 19 | Post Code Nos. 12 to 15 | ||||
| Paper I | English | Part-A: Objective Type - MCQs | 25 Marks | 100 | 100 |
| Part-B: Descriptive Questions | 75 Marks | ||||
| Paper II | Telugu/ Urdu | Part-A: Objective Type - MCQs | 25 Marks | 100 | 100 |
| Part-B: Descriptive Questions | 75 Marks | ||||
| Paper III | Arithmetic and Test of Reasoning/ Mental Ability (Objective in Nature) (200 Questions) | 200 | 200 | ||
| Paper IV | General Studies (Objective in Nature) (200 Questions) | 200 | 200 | ||
Note:
- 1. The minimum marks to be secured by the Candidates in order to qualify in the Final Written Examination in each paper is 40% for OCs, 35% for BCs and 30% for SCs/ STs/ Ex-Servicemen
2. Papers I and II are qualifying in nature and the marks secured in these Papers i.e., I and II will not be taken into account for final selection. Those Candidates who do not secure the minimum qualifying marks in these papers will not be considered further in the selection process, irrespective of their performance in papers III and IV
3. Papers I and II referred to above will be objective in nature and Candidates have to answer the questions using Blue/ Black Ball Point pen only
4. For each question in Paper I and II, the Candidate shall be awarded full marks assigned to the question, if he/ she darkened only one bubble that corresponds to the correct answer. In case the Candidate has not darkened any bubble, the Candidate will be awarded zero marks for that question. In all other cases, 25% of the full marks shall be awarded as a negative mark for that question
5. In Paper II, the Candidates can choose to have either Telugu or Urdu and should indicate their choice as and when asked for. Option once exercised will be final and a Candidate will not be allowed to change it subsequently
6. Questions in Papers III and IV will be objective in nature and will be set in English, Telugu and Urdu languages. Candidates have to answer the questions on an OMR answer sheet using Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen only. For this purpose, Candidates should bring Blue/ Black Ball Point pens along with them
7. Appearance in all the Tests and Written Examinations, as per rules, is compulsory. An absence in any of the above Tests/ Examination will automatically render a Candidature disqualified
8. Mere securing of minimum qualifying marks does not vest any right in a Candidate to be considered for selection
i) For Post Code Nos. 11 and 17: Final selection of the Candidates will be made strictly based on the merit as obtained by them through their score in the Final Written Examination (Papers III and IV) for a total of 400 marks and as per the provisions of the Telangana State Public Employment (Organization of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order, 1975 and GO(P) No. 763 GA (SPF-A) Department dated 15-11-1975. As per GO Ms No. 124 General Administration (SPF A) Department dated 07-03-2002, while filling up the vacancies, the first 30% of Posts shall be filled using the combined merit list of Local Candidates and Non-local Candidates and thereafter, the remaining 70% of the Posts shall be filled up by Local Candidates only.
ii) For Post Code No. 12: Final selection of the Candidates shall be made strictly based on the merit as obtained by them through their score in the Final Written Examination (Paper III and Paper IV) and Physical Efficiency Test. Marks secured by Men and Women in PET shall be normalized as per the procedure followed by the TSLPRB to ensure fairness. Normalized marks of PET shall be used while drawing the Final Merit List. Provisions of the Telangana Public Employment (Organization of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order, 1975 and GO(P) No. 763 of GA (SPF.A) Department dated 15.11.1975 as amended from time to time, shall be applicable and as per GO Ms No. 124 of General Administration (SPF.A) Department dated 07-03-2002 while filling up the vacancies, the first 30% of Posts shall be filled using the combined merit list of Local Candidates and NonLocal Candidates and thereafter, the remaining 70% of the Posts shall be filled up by Local Candidates only.
iii) For Post Code Nos. 13 to 15: Final selection of the Candidates shall be made strictly based on the merit as obtained by them through their score in the Final Written Examination (Paper III and Paper IV) and Physical Efficiency Test. Provisions of the Telangana Public Employment (Organization of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order, 1975, the rule of reservation to the local Candidates is not applicable to these selections.
iv) For Post Code Nos. 18 and 19: Final selection of the Candidates will be made strictly based on the merit as obtained by them through their score in the Final Written Examination (Papers III and IV) for a total of 400 marks. Provisions of the Telangana Public Employment (Organization of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order, 1975, the rule of reservation to local Candidates is not applicable to these selections.
Note:
Merit among Candidates who secure same Marks: When 2 (two) or more Candidates in a particular category obtain equal marks, preference will be given to the Candidate who was born earlier
Preliminary Written Test: Candidates shall be required to appear for the Preliminary Written Test in one paper (3 (three) hours duration) as given below. Candidates will be issued Hall Tickets for this purpose.
| Paper | Subject | Max. Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Preliminary Written Test | Technical Paper (Objective in Nature) (200 Questions) | 200 |
Note:
1) The minimum mark to be secured by the Candidates in order to qualify in the Preliminary Written Test is 40% for OCs, 35% for BCs and 30% for SCs / STs / Ex-Servicemen
2) Questions in the Paper will be objective in nature and will be set in English language. Candidates have to answer the questions on an OMR Answer Sheet using Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only. For this purpose, Candidates should bring their own Blue / Black Ball Point Pens along with them.
Intimation Letter: Candidates who qualify in the Preliminary Written Test will be informed the dates for downloading the Intimation Letter through the website (www.tslprb.in) for appearing in the PMT/ PET with details of Venue, Date and Time. Candidates should bring the Intimation Letter while attending the PMT/ PET Physical Measurements Test (PMT): Candidates who qualify in the above Preliminary Written Test have to undergo Physical Measurements Test and should meet the following requirements:-
- For Men
Height: Must not be less than 162 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 84 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 4 cms
For Women
Height: Must not be less than 152.5 cms
- For Men
Height: Must not be less than 160 cms
Chest: Must not be less than 80 cms round the chest on full inspiration with a minimum expansion of 3 cms
For Women
Height: Must not be less than 150 cms
Physical Efficiency Test (PET): Candidates who qualify in the above Physical Measurements Test will be required to undergo the following tests and qualify as specified below-
i. Men Candidates must qualify in any of the 3 (three) events, out of 5 (five) events of Physical Efficiency Test as detailed below while qualification in 800 metres is a must for all of them i.e., 800 metres run should be one of the 3 (three) or more events that they qualify in
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance | |
|---|---|---|---|
| General | Ex-Servicemen | ||
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 15 seconds | 16.5 seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 3.80 metres | 3.65 metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (7.26 Kgs) | 5.60 metres | 5.60 metres |
| 4 | High Jump | 1.20 metres | 1.05 metres |
| 5 | 800 Metres Run | 170 seconds | 200 seconds |
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 100 Metres Run | 20.0 Seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 2.50 Metres |
| 3 | Shot Put (4 Kgs) | 3.75 Metres |
Note: Physical Efficiency Test will be qualifying in nature.
ii. Women Candidates must qualify in any of the 2 (two) events, out of the 3 (three) events of the Physical Efficiency Test as detailed below, while qualifying in 100 Metres Run is a must for all of them i.e., 100 Metres Run should be one of the 2 (two) or 3 (three) events that they qualify in
| S.No. | Item | Qualifying Time/ Distance |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 100 Metres run | 20.0 Seconds |
| 2 | Long Jump | 2.50 Metres |
| 3 | Shotput (4 Kgs) | 3.75 Metres |
Note: Physical Efficiency Test will be qualifying in nature.
Note:
Physical Measurement Test/ Physical Efficiency Test for all the Posts / Notifications applied for by a Candidate, will be conducted only once and the same readings will be used for all the Posts for which he/ she is applying for among the Notifications with Nos. 88, 89, 90 and 91/ Rect. /Admn.1/2018, dated 31.05.2018
Intimation Letter: Candidates who qualify in the Physical Efficiency Test will be issued Hall Tickets for appearing in the Final Written Examination Final Written Examination: Candidates who qualify in the Physical Efficiency Test will be required to appear in a Final Written Examination having three papers (each of 3 (three) hours duration) as described below.
| Paper | Subject | Max. Marks | ||
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper I | English | Part- A: Objective Type - MCQs | 25 Marks | 100 |
| Part- B: Descriptive Questions | 75 Marks | |||
| Paper II | Arithmetic and Test of Reasoning/ Mental Ability (Objective in Nature) (200 Questions) | 100 | ||
| Paper III | Technical Paper (Objective in Nature) (200 Questions) | 200 | ||
Note:
1. The minimum marks to be secured by the Candidates in order to qualify in the Final Written Examination in each paper is 40% for OCs, 35% for BCs and 30% for SCs/ STs/ Ex-Servicemen.
2. Paper I is qualifying in nature and the marks secured in this Paper will not be taken into
account for final selection. Those Candidates who do not secure the minimum qualifying marks in this paper will not be considered further in the selection process, irrespective of their performance in papers II and III
3. Part-A of Paper I referred to above will be objective in Nature and the Candidates have to
answer the questions using Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only and Part-B of Paper I is descriptive in nature
4. For each question in Paper I, the Candidate shall be awarded full marks, if he/ she darkened only one bubble that corresponds to the correct answer. In case the Candidate has not darkened any bubble, the Candidate will be awarded zero marks for that question. In all other cases, 25% of the full marks shall be awarded as a negative mark for that question
5. Questions in Paper II will be objective in nature and will be set in English, Telugu and
Urdu languages. Candidates have to answer the questions on an OMR answer sheet using Blue/ Black Ball Point pen only. For this purpose, candidates should bring Blue/ Black Ball Point pens along with them
6. Questions in Paper III will be objective in nature and will be set in English language.
Candidates have to answer the questions on an OMR answer sheet using Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only. For this purpose, candidates should bring Blue / Black Ball Point pens along with them.
7. Syllabus in Technical Paper i.e., Paper III will be different for Post Code Nos. 31 and 33. The Syllabus is given in Annexure I (B).
8. Appearance in all the Tests and Written Examinations, as per rules, is compulsory. Absence in any of the above Tests / Examination will automatically render a Candidate disqualified
9. Mere securing of minimum qualifying marks does not vest any right in a Candidate to be
considered for selection.
Final Selection of the Candidates will be made strictly based on the merit as obtained by them through their score in the Final Written Examination (Papers II and III) for a total of 300 marks. Provisions of the Andhra Pradesh Public Employment (Organisation of Local Cadres and Regulation of Direct Recruitment) Order 1975, the Rule of Reservation to local candidates is not applicable.
Merit among Candidates who secure same Marks: When 2 (two) or more candidates in a particular category obtain equal marks, preference will be given to the Candidate who was born earlier.