1. Where was the Under-20 Eurasian Athletics Championships held?

A. Mongolia B. Tajikistan C. Kyrgyztan D. Kazhakstan

Answer - Option D
Explanation - At the Under-20 Eurasian Athletics Championships held at Almaty, Kazakshstan, Indian juniors bagged 5 gold and 3 silver medals. The national teams from Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan, Iran, India and Tajikistan participated in a 2 day event held on May 29-30, 2019.
2. Which Football Club had won UEFA Europa League 2019 at the Baku Olympic Stadium, Azarbaijan?

A. Arsenal B. Manchester City C. Liverpool D. Chelsea

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Chealsea produced their best to win the UEFA Europa League 2019 by beating Arsenal 4-1 at the Baku Olympic Stadium, Azarbaijan.
3. Which football team won the 2018–19 UEFA (Union of European Football Associations) Champions League for the sixth time in Madrid, Spain ?

A. Manchester City B. Liverpool C. Arsenal D. FC Barcelona

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Liverpool football team has beaten Tottenham Hotspur by 2-0 to claim 2018–19 UEFA (Union of European Football Associations) Champions League for the sixth time in Madrid, Spain. It was the 64th season of the tournament organized by UEFA, and the 27th season since it was renamed from the European Champion Clubs' Cup to the UEFA Champions League.Now, Liverpool will play against Chelsea, the winners of the 2018–19 UEFA Europa League, in the 2019 UEFA Super Cup that will be held in August 2019 in Istanbul. The team is also qualified for the 2019 FIFA Club World Cup to be held in December at Qatar.
4. Who won the heavyweight champion and thus becoming the first Mexican heavyweight champion in the world?

A. Andres Ponce Ruiz Jr. B. Fernando Vargas C. Victor Ortiz D. Manuel Ortiz

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Mexican-American professional boxer Andres Ponce Ruiz Jr. becomes heavyweight champion after beating his opponent British professional boxer, Anthony Joshua at Madison Square Garden, New York. The win made Andres Ruiz the first Mexican heavyweight champion of the world.Ruiz also represented Mexico in two 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.
5. Which country’s Junior women Hockey team clinched Cantor Fitzgerald U21 International 4- Nations title recently ?

A. India B. Ireland C. USA D. South Africa

Answer - Option A
Explanation - On June 4, 2019, Indian Junior Women Hockey team clinched Cantor Fitzgerald U21 International 4- Nations title by beating Ireland 1-0 in the final. The match was held at Dublin, Ireland. Mumtaz Khan is the highest goal scorer of this tournament. Gagandeep’s goal made the difference between the two sides, as India got 1-0 and took the title.
6. Sidharth Rawat was associated with which sport ?

A. Football B. Cricket C. Tennis D. Badminton

Answer - Option C
Explanation - On June 2, 2019, Delhi based tennis player Sidharth Rawat defeated Japan's Rio Noguchi with 7-5, 6-0 scores to secure his maiden title in $25,000 International Tennis Federation(ITF) men’s Futures Tennis Tournament held in Nonthaburi, Thailand.With this, he will improve the ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals) rank of 510. His career-best rank was 430.
7. What is the rate of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth in the January-March quarter(Q4) of 2018-19 according to the data released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO)?

A. 5.8% B. 6.5% C. 6.8% D. 7.1%

Answer - Option A
Explanation - As per the data released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), the rate of gross domestic product (GDP) growth in the January-March quarter of 2018-19 decreased to 5.8% as compared to the forecast of 6.5%. The economic growth rate for the full 2018-19 financial year stood at a 5-year low of 6.8% in comparison to 7.1%.
8. Name the bank which partnered with Centrum Wealth Management Ltd(Centrum) to form private limited Joint Venture(JV) to provide wealth management services to its clients.

A. Lakshmi Vilas Bank B. South Indian Bank C. Dhanlaxmi Bank D. Karur Vysya Bank

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Karur Vysya Bank Ltd (KVB) partnered with Centrum Wealth Management Ltd(Centrum) to form private limited Joint Venture(JV) to provide wealth management services to its clients. KVB will hold 51% of the share capital, Centrum will hold 45% and the remaining 4% will be held by the JV's Staff.
9. Government has met the fiscal deficit target of ___________for the Financial Year 2018-19.

A. 3.1% B. 3.2% C. 3.3% D. 3.4%

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Government has met the fiscal deficit target of 3.4% for the Financial Year 2018-19. The fiscal deficit stood at 3.39% against the estimated rate of 3.4%. The data was released by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA). It was met through a reduction in government spending, which also contributed to GDP growth slowing to 5.8% in the fourth quarter of FY19.
10. With which country did India lose its spot as the world's fastest-growing economy by registering 6.3% annual growth in the January-March quarter ?

A. Senegal B. Myanmar C. Philippines D. China

Answer - Option
Explanation - Indian economy lost its spot as the world's fastest-growing economy to China. As per Reuters survey, it registered 6.3% annual growth in the January-March quarter, its slowest pace in six quarters. China recorded a growth of 6.4% in the March Quarter.
11. Which institute has launched a Data Platform of 'Integrated Database on Infrastructure Projects' (IDIP) to improve the efficiency of Government Infrastructure Development?

A. IIT Bombay B. IIT Madras C. IIT Bangalore D. IIT Khanpur

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has launched a Data Platform of 'Integrated Database on Infrastructure Projects' (IDIP) to improve the efficiency of Government Infrastructure Development. It was launched on May 29, 2019 at the 15th World Conference on Transport Research (WCTR) held at IIT Bombay.
12. Name the mobile application has launched by AYUSH Ministry to trace yoga events and centers providing training and instructor within the users range

A. Yoga Router B. Yoga locator C. Yoga trace D. Yoga map

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Ahead of International yoga day celebrated on June 21, the ministry of AYUSH has launched "yoga locator" - an app to locate yoga events and centers providing training and instructor within the users range. This app is a map-based application which allows the instructor to register themselves and reach out to users.
13. Name the long-range maritime surveillance aircraft launched by Indian Navy from Salalah in Oman to patrol the Gulf of Aden .

A. P-8 India(P-8I) B. MiG-29 C. HAL Kiran D. HAL Chetak

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Indian Navy has deployed its P-8 India(P-8I) long-range maritime surveillance aircraft for anti-piracy sorties from Salalah in Oman to patrol the Gulf of Aden and other piracy prone areas. This is an expansion of its Mission Based Deployments(MBD) in the Indian Ocean Region(IOR) to keep them safe. India has been conducting anti-piracy sorties in the Gulf of Aden since 2008. P-8I long-range maritime surveillance aircraft has been operated for the second time in the region, first being deployed in January. The P-8I is a long-range anti-submarine warfare, surveillance and reconnaissance aircraft capable of broad-area, maritime and littoral operations. It provides long-range Maritime Domain Awareness(MDA).
14. Where did Indian Army commissioned, air quality monitor "Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring System (CAAQMS)" as a part of 'Go Green' initiative ?

A. Bhujia Fort Military Station, Gujarat B. Sitabuldi Fort Military Station, Maharashtra C. Red Fort Military Station, New Delhi D. Fort William Military Station, Kolkata

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Army commissioned "Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring System (CAAQMS)", an air quality monitor, at Fort William Military Station, Kolkata, as a part of 'Go Green' initiative. It monitors air pollution on a real-time basis.It was commissioned by Lt Gen M M Naravane, General Officer, Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command.CAAQMS displays wind speed, direction, ambient temperature, relative humidity, solar radiation, barometric pressure, and rain gauge.It can be used by the West Bengal Pollution Control Board or any other local or international weather monitoring bodies.The collected data can be monitored on the internet and collated into different desired formats.
15. Name the Supersonic cruise missile, which was test-fired from Complex-3 of the Integrated Test Range(ITR) at Chandipur in Odisha with a strike range of around 290 km .

A. Prahaar B. BrahMos C. Nirbhay D. Shaurya

Answer - Option B
Explanation - On June 4, 2019, the anti-ship version of Supersonic cruise missile BrahMos was test-fired from Complex3 of the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur in Odisha. BrahMos, with a strike range of around 290 km, can be fired from land, sea, and air.It is the world's fastest supersonic cruise missile with a high rate of precision and accuracy. It has been commissioned in the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. It is a joint venture between the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) and the Federal State Unitary Enterprise NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM) of Russia.
16. Which of the following rivers does not flow into the Arabian Sea?

A. Tungabhadra B. Sabarmati C. Mandovi D. Narmada

Answer - Option A
17. Which of the following is the highest peak of Satpura Range?

A. Gurushikhar B. Dhupgarh C. Pachmarhi D. Mahendragiri

Answer - Option B
18. The Thummalapalle mine which is considered to have one of the world’s largest reserves of 1.50 lakh tonnes of uranium is located in which among the following Indian States?

A. Karnataka B. Andhra Prade C. Tamil Nadu D. Kerala

Answer - Option B
19. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following group of Indian States:

A. Gujarat, MP, Chattisgarh, Manipur [B] Rajasthan, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Mizoram [C] UP, MP, Bihar, Jharkhand [D] Maharashtra, Chattisgarh, Orissa, An B. Rajasthan, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Mizoram C. UP, MP, Bihar, Jharkhand D. Maharashtra, Chattisgarh, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The Tropic of Cancer divided India into almost 2 equal parts. It passes through 8 Indian States of India – Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chattisgarh, Jharkh
20. The land frontier of India is about 15200 KM. Which of the following countries shares the largest border length with India:

A. Bangladesh B. Pakistan C. china D. Nepal

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The neighbouring countries of India in decreasing order of border length are : Bangladesh-China-Pakistan-Nepal-Myanmar-Bhutan-Afghanistan.
21. Name the head of the committee, which submitted draft national education policy 2019 in New Delhi recently

A. Mohammad Saadulla B. N. Gopalaswami C. Dr. Kasturirangan D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Answer - Option C
Explanation - A committee headed by Dr. Kasturirangan submitted draft national education policy 2019 to Union Human Resource Development Minister, Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’ and Minister of State for HRD, Shri Sanjay Shamrao Dhotre in New Delhi to rename Minister of Human Resource Development to Minister of education.For promoting Indian and classic languages three new national institutes for Pali, Persian, and Prakrit and an Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation (IITI) are recommended.
22. Name the apex body, which was proposed to set up under Prime Minister by Dr. Kasturirangan cormmittee in their draft, “National education policy 2019”.

A. Rashtriya Shiksha Ayog B. Rashtriya Lok Samta Ayog C. Rashtriya Sanskrit Ayog D. Rashtriya Sansthan Ayog

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Rashtriya Shiksha Ayog, an apex body is proposed to implementation all educational initiatives and to coordinate efforts between the Centre and the States. National Research Foundation is proposed to be set up for creating strong research culture across higher education. Mission Nalanda and Mission Takshashila will be re-structuring all Undergraduate programs in the country. For all science graduates 2 year common course and the next 3 year to specialize as doctor, nurse or dentist. Dentist and nurse to be given lateral entry into MBBS course. Common exit exam for all MBBS which also serve as an entrance to PG courses. No fee regulations for professional courses. 50% of students to get scholarship and 20% to get full scholarship.
23. Which ministry has organized a two-day National Workshop for Population Research Centers (PRCs) in New Delhi ?

A. Ministry of Labour and Employment B. Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation C. Ministry of Home Affairs D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare(MoHFW)

Answer - Option D
Explanation - On May 30, 2019, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare(MoHFW) organized a two-day National Workshop for Population Research Centers (PRC) in New Delhi. It focused on the various features of the flagship schemes of the Health Ministry for simultaneous supervision.
24. Name the joint Indian Army & Indian Air force exercise that concluded in Punjab recently .

A. Desert Eagle B. Vajra Prahar C. Kharga Prahar D. Maitree

Answer - Option C
Explanation - A week-long exercise (27 May 2019 to 4 June 2019) between the Indian army and the Indian Air Force (IAF) - Kharga Prahar concluded in Punjab. The exercise was undertaken by various units and formation of Kharga Corps. The key aspects of this exercise is to validate operational aspects and brought out many lessons to the corps.
25. Where was the 6th India-China Bilateral Dialogue on Disarmament and Non-Proliferation held recently ?

A. New Delhi, India B. Beijing, China C. Mumbai, India D. Changchun,China

Answer - Option A
Explanation - On June 3, 2019, 6th India-China Bilateral Dialogue on Disarmament and Non-Proliferation was held in New Delhi. The Indian delegation was led by Shri Indra Mani Pandey, Additional Secretary (Disarmament & International Security Affairs) and the Chinese delegation was led by Ambassador Fu Cong, Director General, Department of Arms Control of Ministry of Foreign Affairs.Both the countries exchanged their views on various issues of mutual interest related to disarmament, non-proliferation and arms control. Ambassador Fu Cong invited the Indian delegation to Beijing for the next round of consultations which was accepted by India. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar will visit Beijing in September before the informal summit which will be held between the Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping.

Directions(1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain parts are given in bold to answer some of the questions based on the passage.
Most of the competitive examinations conducted for admission for higher education or job recruitment's are objective in nature. They have several advantages over the subjective ones, for both the examining authorities and the examiners. The multiple choice questions (MCQs) are the predominant type of objective questions. For each question a number of alternative answers, usually four, coded as (a), (b), and so on are given, one of which would be the correct or the ‘most fitting’ answer and the rest dis tractors. The examiner chooses and indicates the ‘correct’ answer. The evaluation is done electronically with utmost precision. The subjective type involves elaborate answering and its evaluation involves human elements, and therefore, sometimes, subject to vagaries. Thus the objective type of examining has the advantages of almost error-free evaluation, efficient answering by examiners who may have good subjective knowledge but no language proficiency and considerable saving in time for evaluation.
However, the question paper preparation of objective type requires more care and talent. First, the standard of the questions must suit the level of the candidates tested. Next, while some of the questions could be straight forward, from basic concepts learnt from textbooks or classes, some should be application oriented and based on a little extensions of those basic concepts. Such questions will help identify better talent in a group, which is an important aim of competitive examinations. All the answer codes must have almost equal probability of being the correct answer and the correct answer must be randomly distributed. (Some say that the choice (c) is often the correct answer code.). The concept of negative marking for wrong answers is not acceptable to some of us. They feel that wise guessing could be allowed and should not be discouraged with penalty if it goes wrong. It should be noted that wise guessing is already allowed, as it is one of the methods of narrowing down to the correct answer after eliminating the wrong answers. If by this you are not narrowing down to the correct answer, then your guess is not wise but wild, which should be discouraged.
The implication of wild guesses can be brought out with an example of a candidate A taking an objective test. Suppose A does not even open the question booklet, but goes on marking one particular answer code, say (b), for all the 100 questions of the test, which may take less than five minutes. If there are four multiple choices, (b) would be the correct answer choice for about 25 questions, in all probability, getting him 25 marks out of the total marks of 100. Say now, B, a serious student who would have sincerely attempted might have got much less; how to tackle this situation? A should get only zero which he deserves. His 25 marks will be reduced to 0 only if (1/3) mark is deducted for every one of the 75 wrong answers. Generalizing, the factor should be 1 / (k – 1) when the number of alternative answers for every question is k. The purpose of examinations, particularly competitive ones, is to correctly assess the relative merits of candidates, which is made possible by the negative marking system. Awarding of any concessions to anyone is a matter that can be taken up at a later stage. 1. Why electronic evaluation is prefered over the one which is done subjectively?

A. Electronic evaluation is almost error-free B. Technology used builds precision in marking C. The subjective types are bound to have human error D. Both 1 and 3

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Both 1 and 3 mentioned in the starting paragraph.no explicit mention of option 2
2. What does the author mean by quoting the consequence of “What if a doctor makes a wrong diagnosis instead of referring it to a higher centre”?

A. Wrong diagnosis can cost a patient’s life B. Guessing an answer shows lack of merit C. Those who get selected by luck,don’t make good doctors D. Just like a wrong diagnosis,a wild guess guess in exams can costs dearly

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Just like a wrong diagnosis,a wild guess guess in exams can costs dearly
3. What of the following is the nearest in meaning to “IMPLICATIONS” ?

A. suggestion B. innuendo C. indication D. All of them

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Implication – the conclusion that can be drawn from something although it is not explicitly stated.
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

A. Preparing objective type questions requires more skills B. In several tests, scheme of negative marking is being adopted C. Answering “most fitting” answer is in itself is arbitrary D. Purpose of examinations is to assess the relative merits of candidates

Answer - Option C
Explanation - No such mention in the passage
5. What according to author is important in the process of making options?

A. They should be randomly distributed B. All options must have almost equal probability of being the correct answer C. Some options should use diversionary tactic D. Both 1 and 2

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Option 4 is suitable
6. Other than the right option, “________” has been used to describe rest of the options. Identify that word from the passage

A. attention-grabber B. diversion C. distractors D. gimmick

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Option 3 is suitable
7. Ability

A. traverse B. buck C. skill D. bay

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Ability – possession of the means or skill to do something
8. Accidental

A. dislodge B. prance C. combat D. contingent

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Accidental – happening by chance
9. Ambiguous

A. alienate B. counteract C. neutralize D. obscure

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Ambiguous – open to more than one interpretation
10. Quiescent

A. probable B. criticize C. allure D. active

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Quiescent – in a state or period of inactivity or dormancy.
11. Dodge

A. confront B. ingredient C. inclination D. aligned

Answer - Option A
Explanation - dodge – avoid (someone or something) by a sudden quick movement.
12. Scourge

A. repercussions B. advantage C. coalition D. criticized

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Scourge – a whip used as an instrument of punishment.
13. Indian exporters, especially from the employment oriented engineering (sector), suffer due to high cost production, with the situation aggravated by (government-imposed) restrictions on imports on steel, the basic raw material.

A. suffer due to high cost of productions B. suffers due to high cost production C. suffers due to high cost of production D. suffer due to high cost of production

Answer - Option D
Explanation - suffer due to high cost of production
14. We are hoping that over the next quarter or two, keeping in mind that the government has also reduce the small savings rate, that the MCLR calculation will now throw up more transmission.

A. have also reduced the small savings B. have also reduce the small saving C. has also reduced the small savings D. has also reduced the small savings

Answer - Option D
Explanation - has also reduced the small savings
15. The manager called the clerk and said whether he was in the habit of sleeping at home as well.

A. calls the clerk and says if B. called the clerk and asked whether C. called the clerk and said if D. call the clerk and ask whether

Answer - Option B
Explanation - According to “was” it should be called so option A and D are wrong. Also whether is used so it indicates interrogative sense of sentence so asked is used instead of said
Because said – utter words so as to convey information, an opinion
Asked – say something in order to obtain an answer or some information
16. It is incongruous that the Centre have failed / to grasp the need for reform in the / regulating of pesticides, when it is / focussed on growth in all /agricultural production and exports.

A. It is incongruous that the Centre have failed B. to grasp the need for reform in the C. regulating of pesticides, when it is D. focussed on growth in all

Answer - Option B
Explanation - In 1 Replace ‘have’ with ‘has’
In 3 Replace ‘regulating’ with ‘regulation’
In 4 Replace ‘all’ with ‘both’
17. The derivative instrument allows investors to enter in contracts / to either buy or sell gold sometime in the future on a predetermined / price, thus allowing investors for hedge any / volatility in the price of the metal, / for a price.

A. The derivative instrument allows investors to enter in contracts B. to either buy or sell gold sometime in the future on a predetermined C. price, thus allowing investors for hedge any D. volatility in the price of the metal

Answer - Option D
Explanation - In 1 Replace ‘in’ with ‘into’
In 2 Replace ‘on’ with ‘at’
In 3 Replace ‘for’ with ‘to’
18. The theories of logical atomism is a crucial tool in Russell’s / philosophy method. Logical atomism contends that, / through rigorous and exacting analysis, / language like physical matter could be broken down / into smaller constituent parts.

A. The theories of logical atomism is a crucial tool in Russell’s B. philosophy method. Logical atomism contends that C. through rigorous and exacting analysis D. language like physical matter could be broken down

Answer - Option C
Explanation - In 1 Replace ‘theories’ with ‘theory’
In 2 Replace ‘philosophy’ with ‘philosophical’
In 4 Replace ‘could’ with ‘can’ Directions(19-21): In each of the following questions, a sentence is written in four different ways conveying some meaning and following or may not following the correct grammar structure. Choose the sentence among the four options which is grammatically correct. If there is no error in any of the sentences, choose (e), i.e. “All are correct” as the answer
19.

A. In life, we play many roles but there is one principal role that we share in common that is to be the best human being B. The common role we play in life is to be best human being possible. C. Role is played by us in life which is principle in ways other than common. D. Best human being is a principle played by everyone in life so as to become a common man.

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Option 1 is suitable.
20.

A. Channelising energy is needed for stability to prevail in form of peace and harmony. B. Peace and harmony needs to be channelize in the way of stability to form. C. Crucial role played to channelise energy is needed for peace and harmony. D. For stability, peace and harmony to prevail, it is crucial to channelise one’s energy towards constructive actions.

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Option 4 is suitable.
21.

A. Fear is inside us driven everywhere in everyone. B. If you learn to observe, you can see clearly that most of us are driven by fear. C. Observe the fear and then you are driven by it. D. Learning to fear is way to observe and see it clearly.

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Option 2 is suitable.
22. A study in Science of termites in a Bornean forest showed their activity and abundance increased during a drought. This resulted in quicker litter decomposition, more soil moisture and heterogenety of soil nutrients and higher seedling survival rates.

A. decomposition B. heterogenety C. termites D. seedling

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Correct spelling is heterogeneity
23. A new exhibition at a freshly refurbished baracks in the Red Fort features a cross-section of art from the past three centuries showing the Bengal’s famine to sketches of Ellora.

A. refurbished B. famine C. exhibition D. baracks

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Correct spelling is barracks
24. INCINERATE

A. Shake B. Burn C. Polish D. Abuse

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Incinerate: destroy (something, especially waste material) by burning.
Hence Incinerate and Burn are synonyms to each other.
25. UNDULATE

A. Oscillate B. Encourage C. Delay D. Decline

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Undulate: move with a smooth wave-like motion.
Oscillate: move or swing back and forth in a regular rhythm.
Hence Undulate and Oscillate are synonyms to each other.

Direction(1-5): Refer to the Line Graph and answer the given questions. Number of Shirts of ‘X’ brand sold in Shop “A” and Shop “B” in 6 different months.

1. The number of Shirts sold in Shop “B” increased by what percent from November to December?

A. 50% B. 40% C. 10% D. 60%

Answer - Option D
Explanation - = 320-200 = 120
= [latex](\frac {120}{200}) \times 100[/latex]
= 60%
2. What is the difference between the total number of Shirts sold in both the shops together in October, February & March and the total number of Shirts sold in both the shops together in January, November and December?

A. 1060 B. 1070 C. 1020 D. 1010

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Shirts in October, February & March = 1700
Shirts in January, November & December = 690
Difference = 1700 – 690 = 1010
3. The number of shirts sold in shop “A” in October, November and December is what % more than the number of shirts sold in Shop “B” in the same months?

A. [latex]\frac {25}{4}[/latex]% B. [latex]\frac {45}{4}[/latex]% C. [latex]\frac {55}{4}[/latex]% D. [latex]\frac {75}{4}[/latex]%

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Required Percentage
= [latex][\frac {(760-640)}{640}] \times 100[/latex]
= [latex][\frac {120}{640}] \times 100 = \frac {75}{4} % [/latex]
4. What is the average number of Shirts in Shop “A” in October, November, December, February and March?

A. 205 B. 215 C. 207 D. 206

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Avg = 150 + 260 + 350 + 190 + 80 = 1030 = [latex]\frac {1030}{5} = 206[/latex]
5. The total number of shirts sold in Shop “B” in September is 20% less than the number of shirts sold in same town in October. The total number of shirts sold in Shop “B” in April is 20% more than the number of shirts sold in same town in March. what is the respective ratio between the number of shirts sold in September and those sold in April in the same shop?

A. 2 : 9 B. 1 : 5 C. 4 : 9 D. 8 : 5

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Shirts sold in Shop B in September
= 20% of 120 = 24 = 120 - 24 = 96
Shirts sold in Shop B in April
= 20% of 50 = 10 = 50 + 10 = 60
Ratio = 96 : 60 = 8:5
6. The ratio between male and female in a city is 3: 7. The children percentage among the males and females of the city is 25 and 30 percent respectively. If the number of adult males in the city is 18000, then find the population of the town?

A. 70000 B. 80000 C. 85000 D. 95000

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Males and females are 3x and 7x respectively
[latex]\frac {(3x) \times 75}{100}[/latex] = 18000. X = 8000
so total population = [latex]10 \times 8000 = 80000[/latex]
7. Pankaj gave 50 percent of the amount to akash. Akash in turn gave two-fifth of the amount to venu. After paying a bill of 500 rupees, venu now have 8000 rupees left with him. Find the amount hold by pankaj initially.

A. 41500 B. 42500 C. 43500 D. 44500

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Let pankaj have P amount initially
[latex][[(\frac {50}{100}) \times P] \times \frac {2}{5} – 500][/latex] = 8000
P = 42500
8. The ratio of boys and girls in the school is 7:9 when 22 new boys are joined in this school then the ratio become 9:10.How many girls in this school ?

A. 180 B. 200 C. 160 D. 220

Answer - Option A
Explanation - [latex]7x + \frac {22}{9x} = \frac {9}{10}[/latex]
70x + 220 = 81x
11x = 220
X = 20
[latex]20 \times 9 = 180[/latex] girls (7B : 9G)
9. The ratio of monthly income of A and B in the ratio is 6:5 and the ratio of their expenditure is 9:7.If each saves Rs.1500.Then the sum of their salary is

A. 11,000 B. 9,000 C. 1,000 D. 12,000

Answer - Option A
Explanation - 4500:3500 – e
1500:1500 – s
6000 + 5000 = 11000
10. The average of 10 reading is 25.5. In this the average of first three is 20 and the next four is 26. If the eight reading is 5 less than the night one and also 8 less than the tenth one, then find the eight reading?

A. 22 B. 24 C. 26 D. 28

Answer - Option C
Explanation - sum of all ten reading = 255
sum of first three = 60 and sum of next 4 = 104.
Sum of 8th, 9th and 10th reading = 91 = 3 × x + 13
X = 26
11. The average height of 50 students in a class is 165cm. On a particular day, three students P,Q and R are absent, so the average of the remaining students becomes 163cm. If the height of P and Q is equal and height of R is 2 cm less than P, then find the height of P.

A. 187 B. 192 C. 197 D. 198

Answer - Option C
Explanation - sum of height (50) = 50 × 165 = 8250
sum of height (47) = 47 × 163 = 7661
sum of the height of P, Q and R = 8250 - 7661 = 589
P + P + P - 2 = 589 (as height of P is equal to Q and height of R = P -2)
P = 197
12. If P and Q work together, they will complete a job in 7.5 days. However, if P works alone and completes half the job and then Q takes over and completes the remaining half alone, they will be able to complete the job in 20 days. How long will Q alone take to do the job if P is more efficient than Q?

A. 20 days B. 30 days C. 40 days D. 10 days

Answer - Option B
Explanation - [latex] \frac {1}{P} + \frac {1}{Q} = \frac {2}{15}[/latex] from first line. Now, let P take x days and Q takes y days to complete half the work respectively.
[latex]\frac {x}{p} = \frac {1}{2}, x = \frac {p}{2} [/latex]similarly [latex]\frac {y}{Q} = \frac {1}{2}, y = \frac {Q}{2}[/latex]
so, x + y = 20 i.e. [latex] \frac {P}{2} + \frac {Q}{2} = [/latex] 20, P + Q = 40
solve both equation, u will get Q = 30 days
13. A factory produces nuts and bolts. A machine in it produces only nuts while another produces only bolts. The machine producing only nuts produces 500 nuts per minute and need to be cleared for 10 minutes after production of 2000 nuts. The machine producing only bolts produces 600 bolts per minute and needs to be cleared for 15 minutes after production of 3000 bolts. Find the minimum time required to produce 6000 pairs of bolts and nuts if both machines are operated simultaneously.

A. 32 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 25 minutes D. 40 minutes

Answer - Option A
Explanation - 2000 nuts are produced in 14 minutes (10 minutes break and 500 nuts per minutes so 4 minutes to produce 2000 nuts ), for next 2000 nuts it will take 14 minutes more, and for more two thousand it will take 4 minutes more, so total time = 32 minutes
similarly, 6000 bolts are produced in 20 + 5 = 25 minutes
so minimum time required is 32 minutes
14. At CI, if a certain sum of money is doubled in 4 years, then the amount will be four fold in how many years ?

A. 7 years B. 4 years C. 10 years D. 8 years

Answer - Option D
Explanation - 2n = 2 × 4 = 8 years
15. The difference between interest received by X and Y is Rs.315 on Rs.3500 for 3 years. What is the difference in rate of interest ?

A. 1.5% B. 2% C. 3% D. 2.7%

Answer - Option C
Explanation - [latex] \frac {3500 × 3}{100(R1-R2)} = 315[/latex]
[latex]R1-R2 = \frac {315 × 100}{10500} = 3%[/latex]
16. A lent 2000rs to B at 8% annual rate of interest and some amount to C at same rate of interest for same period of time. If after 5 years, A got a total of 1500 rupee as interest. Find the sum lent to C.

A. 1500 B. 1650 C. 1700 D. 1750

Answer - Option D
Explanation - [latex]1500 = 2000 \times (\frac {8}{100}) \times 5 + X \times (\frac {8}{100}) \times 5[/latex]
17. A part of 2000 is lent at 6% per annum and rest sum is lent at 8% per annum. If total interest earned after 4 years is 500. Then the sum lent at 8%.

A. 250 B. 350 C. 450 D. 550

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let sum lent at 8% is X
[latex]500 = X \times (\frac {8}{100}) \times 4 + (2000 - X) \times (\frac {6}{100}) \times 4[/latex]
18. Rs. 12000 was invested for 2 years, partly in scheme A at the rate of 5% SI per annum and partly in scheme B at the rate of 8% SI per annum. The total interest received at the end was Rs.1800. What amount of money was invested in scheme A ?

A. 2000 B. 1600 C. 3200 D. 4200

Answer - Option A
Explanation - [latex]x \times 5 \times \frac {2}{100} +\frac{ (12000 - x) \times 2 \times 8}{100} = 1800[/latex]
[latex]\frac {x}{10} + 192000 - \frac {16x}{100} = 1800[/latex]
10x + 192000 - 16x = 180000
6x = 12,000
X = 2000
19. A and B can do a piece of work in 24 and 30 days respectively. Both started the work and worked for 6 days. Then B leaves the work and C joins and the remaining work is completed by A and C together in 11 days. Find the days in which C alone can do the work

A. 80 B. 100 C. 120 D. 130

Answer - Option C
Explanation - [latex](\frac {1}{24} + \frac {1}{30}) \times 6 + (\frac {1}{24} + \frac {1}{c}) \times 11 = 1[/latex]
20. If P can do 1/3 of the work in 5 days and Q can do 1/4 of the work in 6 days, then how much money will Q get if they were paid a total of 390 rupee?

A. 120 B. 150 C. 170 D. 190

Answer - Option B
Explanation - P can alone complete the whole work in 15 days and Q can complete the same work alone in 24 days. So ratio of work done by them [latex] \frac{1}{15}: \frac {1}{24}[/latex] i.e. 8: 5
Q get = [latex](\frac {5}{13}) \times 390 [/latex] = 150
21. If P and Q are the mid points of the sides CA and CB respectively of a triangle ABC, right-angled at C. Then the value of 4 ([latex]A{Q}^{2} + B{P}^{2}[/latex]) is equal to

A. 4 ([latex]B{C}^{2}[/latex] B. 5 ([latex]A{B}^{2}[/latex] C. 2 ([latex]A{C}^{2}[/latex] D. 2 ([latex]B{C}^{2}[/latex]

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
[latex]A{Q}^{2} = A{C}^{2} + Q{C}^{2}[/latex]
[latex]B{P}^{2} = B{C}^{2} + C{P}^{2}[/latex]
[latex]A{Q}^{2} + B{P}^{2} = (A{C}^{2} + Q{C}^{2}) + (B{C}^{2} + C{P}^{2})[/latex]
=[latex]A{B}^{2} + P{Q}^{2}[/latex]
= [latex]A{B}^{2} ({AB \frac{1}{2}})^{2}[/latex]
(i.e, [latex]AB \frac{1}{2}[/latex])
= [latex]A{B}^{2}\frac{5}{4}[/latex]
= [latex]4(A{Q}^{2} + B{P}^{2}) = 5A{B}^{2}[/latex]
22. If the sides of a right tringle are x, x + 1 and x – 1, then the hypotenuse is

A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 0

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let (x + 1) be the hypotenuse

i.e, [latex]{(x + 1)}^{2} = {x}^{2} + {(x + 1)}^{2}[/latex]
[latex]{x}^{2} + 2x + 1 = {x}^{2} + {x}^{2} - 2x + 1[/latex]
[latex]{x}^{2} - 4x = 0[/latex]
x(x + 4) = 0
x = 4, as x ≠ 0
i.e, Hypotenuse = 4 + 1 = 5
23. If sin θ + cosec θ = 2, then [latex]{sin}^{2}θ + {cosec}^{2}θ [/latex]is equal to:

A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Given that, sinθ + cosecθ = 2
On squaring both sides, we get
[latex]{sin}^{2}θ + {cosec}^{2}θ [/latex] + 2 = 4
[latex]{sin}^{2}θ + {cosec}^{2}θ [/latex] = 2
24. If tan A – tan B = x and cot B – cot A = y, then cot (A – B) is equal to:

A. [latex]\frac{1}{x} + y[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{1}{xy}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{y}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y}[/latex]

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Given that
tan A – tan B = x ...(i)
and cot B – cot A = y ...(ii)
Now, cot (A – B) = [latex]\frac{1}{tan (A - B)}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{1 + tan A tan B}{tan A - tan B}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{1}{tan A - tan B)} + \frac{tan A tan B}{tan A - tan B}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y}[/latex] [from (i) and (ii)]
25. A person is standing on the ground and flying a kite with a string of length 140 m at an angle of 30°. Another person is standing on the roof of a building 20 m high and is flying a kite at an angle of 45°. If both persons are on opposite sides of both the kites, the length (in m ) of the string that the second person must have so that the two kites meets,

A. 70 B. 60 [latex]\sqrt{2}[/latex] C. 50 [latex]\sqrt{2}[/latex] D. 50

Answer - Option C
Explanation -
sin 30° = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{AB}{AC}[/latex]
AB = 70m
AF = (70 – 20) m = 50m
AE = 50 [latex]\sqrt{2}[/latex]

1. Look at this series: 201, 202, 204, 207, ... What number should come next?

A. 205 B. 208 C. 210 D. 211

Answer - Option D
Explanation - In this addition series, 1 is added to the first number; 2 is added to the second number; 3 is added to the third number; 4 is added to the fourth number; and go on.
2. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ... What number should come next?

A. 404 B. 414 C. 420 D. 445

Answer - Option A
Explanation - This is a simple subtraction series. Each number is 35 less than the previous number.
3. Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ... What number should come next?

A. 4.2 B. 4.4 C. 4.7 D. 5.1

Answer - Option C
Explanation - In this simple addition series, each number increases by 0.8.
Direction(4-5): In a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.
4. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to

A. speed B. hiking C. needle D. direction

Answer - Option D
Explanation - An odometer is an instrument used to measure mileage. A compass is an instrument used to determine direction. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect because none is an instrument.
5. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

A. winter B. bear C. dream D. sleep

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice A or B because even though a bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy. (Choice C) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not synonymous.
6. Window is to pane as book is to

A. novel B. glass C. cover D. page

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A window is made up of panes, and a book is made up of pages. The answer is not (choice a) because a novel is a type of book. The answer is not (choice b) because glass has no relationship to a book. (Choice c) is incorrect because a cover is only one part of a book; a book is not made up of covers.
Direction(7-11): Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.
Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.
7. How many doctors are neither artists nor players ?

A. 17 B. 5 C. 10 D. 30

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The number of doctors who are neither artists nor players is 17.
8. How many doctors are both players and artists ?

A. 22 B. 8 C. 3 D. 30

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The number of doctors who are both players and artists is 3.
9. How many artists are players ?

A. 5 B. 8 C. 25 D. 16

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The number of artists who are players is 22 + 3 = 25.
10. How many players are neither artists nor doctors ?

A. 25 B. 17 C. 5 D. 10

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The number of players who are neither artists nor doctors is 25.
11. How many artists are neither players nor doctors ?

A. 10 B. 17 C. 30 D. 15

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The number of artists who are neither players nor doctors is 30.
Direction(12-14): In each of the following questions you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers followed by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.
12. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
13. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option A
14. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option A
15. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
16. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
17. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Direction(18-20): In each of the following problems, a square transparent sheet (X) with a pattern is given. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the patter would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
18. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option C
19. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option B
20. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option A
Direction(21-23): In each of the following questions, you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers followed by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
21. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option B
22. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option C
23. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer - Option D
Direction(24-25): In each of the following questions, a set of five alternative figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 followed by a set of four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) is provided. It is required to select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square.
24. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

A. 145 B. 245 C. 123 D. 234

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
25. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

A. 124 B. 345 C. 123 D. 135

Answer - Option D
Explanation -