Q1. Statement: “When forces like the special operation group (SOG) are set up, some excesses are bound to happen and some innocent suffer. But we should be satisfied with the success of this SOG”. View of a citizen of an area where SOG has launched its operation.
Assumptions: I. Seen in the larger interest of the people, agonies of the innocent is a small price to pay. II. It is quite difficult for SOG to get the desired result without any negative impact.

A. If only assumption I is implicit B. If only assumption II is implicit C. If either assumption I or II is implicit D. If neither assumption I nor II is implicit E. If both assumption I and II is implicit

Q2. If day before yesterday was Thursday, When will Monday be?

A. Today B. Tomorrow C. Yesterday D. Day after tomorrow E. None of these

Q3. If in a certain language, MADRAS is written as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?

A. CPNCBX B. CPNCBZ C. CPOCBZ D. CQOCBZ E. None of these

Direction (Q4): Here creating question sample in Theme Based Questions
Q4.

A. The government’s reported decision to press ahead with involving the private sector in defence production is welcome. B. It has been long overdue however; caution is in order on expectations of cost-competitive competence straightaway. C. The regulatory mechanism in India for medical devices has historically been laissez-faire. D. The objective must be to reap long-term gains, in terms of indigenous defence technological capability and cost savings in the medium to the long term. E. None of these

Direction (Q5): Below following question consist of a statement followed by 2 arguments I and II.Give answer
Q5. Statement: Should India change its course from the economic reform process and look inward for all-round economic development?
Arguments: I. No, There is a way to look backward after having started the process. II. Yes , This will benefit India in the long run as the reform process borrowed from western countries will adverse;ly affect our economy.

A. if only argument I is strong B. if only argument II is strong C. if either I or II is strong D. if neither I or II are strong E. if both I and II follow

Q6. 3, 14, 58, 234, 938, ?

A. 4152 B. 4110 C. 3754 D. 4154 E. 4624

Q7. At what time, between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock, both the hour hand and minute hand coincide each other?

A. 3:30 B. 3:16 [latex]\frac{4}{11}[/latex] C. 3:16 [latex]\frac{11}{4}[/latex] D. 3:16 [latex]\frac{7}{11}[/latex] E. None of these

Q8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

A. 7*K B. L93 C. J@4 D. $UT E. Y^A

Q9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word LASIKLASER, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Q10. How many pairs of letters are there in the word (in reverse direction) PREPRIMARY, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Q11. Statements: M≤V; PT; R≤T Conclusions:

I. S>M II. V=P III. P<V IV. T<P

A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. None is true D. Either II or III and I are true E. All are true

Directions (Q12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In a city, out of the total commuters surveyed, the commuters commuting daily by one or more modes of transport private transport (P.T), public transport (U.T) and own vehicle (O.T), 16,560 commuters commute by P.T, of which 13(1/2)% of the commuters commute by more than one mode of transport, of which 50% commute by U.T.. The number of commuters commuting by only U.T and P.T are 16% less than the number of commuters commuting by all the three modes of transport. The number of commuters commuting by only U.T are 24,336. A total of 9,660 commuters commute by O.T, of which 5,928 commuters commute by only O.T.
Q12. ________commuters commute by U.T.

A. 25,468 B. 24,892 C. 26,356 D. 27,468 E. None of these

Q13. Hockey : Ground :: Athletics : ?

A. Ground B. Court C. Stadium D. Arena E. None of these

Q14. A * B means A is either equal to or greater than B.

A $ B means A is equal to B. A £ B means A is either equal to or smaller than B. A & B means A is smaller than B. A @ B means A is greater than B

Statements: Y $ Z, H $ D, Z * D Conclusions: I. D £ H II. H £ Z

A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. Either I or II is true D. Neither I nor II is true E. Both are true

Directions (Q15): Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
Q15. 1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock 4. Room 5. Switch on

A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 B. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 C. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 E. None of these

Q16.

A. 5 B. 6 C. 14 D. 8 E. 10

Q17. Nishu starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

A. 5 metres B. 10 metres C. 20 metres D. 15 metres E. Can not be determined

Q18. Statement: A large number of people inward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type.
Courses of Action:

I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X. II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

A. Only I follows B. Only II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q19): Study the following information to answer the given questions
In a certain code,

“RAIL MADLY BUN JAR” is written as ‘19#L, 7%Y, 16$N, 12@R’ “JOB RAPID BOT MONKEY” is written as ‘28@B, 28#D, 10$T, 8%Y’ “MICRO BOAR RANSOM JUMP” is written as ‘21%O, 13$R, 20#M, 15@P’ “RADAR JUKE BANGLE MOD” is written as ‘14#R, 26@E, 28$E, 26%D’

Q19. The code ‘27#E’ denotes which of the following word?

A. RUDE B. REVERSE C. RUPEE D. RANDOM E. None of these

Q20. What is the time that Kirti took to reach her destination?
I. Shweta took 45 minutes to reach the same destination. II. The ratio between the speeds of Kirti and Shweta is 9:5.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q21. Fourth Generation computers were based on _______

A. IC B. Vacuum tube C. transistor D. Microprocessors E. Microcontrollers

Q22. The first computer language developed was______

A. COBOL B. PASCAL C. BASIC D. FORTRAN E. C language

Q23. ________ is the time from the start of one storage device access to the time when the next access can be started.

A. Mode B. Access time C. capacity D. None of the Above E. Latency period

Q24. Which of the following memories uses a MOS capacitor as its memory cell?

A. SRAM B. DRAM C. ROM D. FIFO E. None of the Above

Q25. Round Robin(RR) scheduling algorithm is suitable for...

A. Real Time Operating Systems B. Embedded Operating Systems C. Distributed Operating Systems D. Time Sharing Operating Systems E. None of the Above

Q26. Short term scheduler is a...

A. CPU scheduler B. process swapping scheduler C. job scheduler D. Multilevel feedback scheduler E. None of the Above

Directions (Q27 - Q28): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit numbers.)
Input : Doll 9 46 Egg 23 Cat 55 11 Ball Fan

Step 1 : Ball Doll 9 46 Egg 23 Cat 11 Fan 55 Step 2 : Ball 9 Doll 46 Egg 23 Cat 11 Fan 55 Step 3 : Ball 9 Cat Doll 46 Egg 11 23 Fan 55 Step 4 : Ball 9 Cat 11 46 Egg Doll 23 Fan 55 Step 5 : Ball 9 Cat 11 Egg 46 Doll 23 Fan 55

Step V is the largest step of above arrangement as the indended arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the Input.
Input : Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 43 13 Banana Fruit
Q27. Which element comes exactly between ’48’ and ’13’ in Step III of the given Input?

A. 21 B. Fruit C. Dog D. 13 E. Elephant

Q28. If in the second step,”7″ interchanges its position with ’21’ and ‘Elephant’ also interchanges its position with “Fan” then which element will be to the immediate left of ‘Car’?

A. 7 B. Fruit C. Dog D. 13 E. Elephant

Q29. Which of the following is a data – entry device?

A. Barcode Reader B. MICR C. OMR D. OCR E. All of the above

Q30. Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

A. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse B. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit C. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits D. Control Unit, Monitor E. None of these

Q31. A register that can be used for memory protection is called...

A. memory data register B. fence register C. memory buffer register D. index register E. None of these

Q32. Process Control Block (PCB) is also called……

A. Program Control Block B. Memory Control Block C. Task Control Block D. Ready Control Block E. None of the above

Q33. Which of the following key is also known as minimal super key ?

A. Foreign Key B. Secondary Key C. Primary Key D. Candidate Key E. None of the Above

Q34. Which allows multiple computers to connect to the Internet using the same Internet connection and IP address?

A. ICANN B. Cloud Computing C. ICS D. ICQ E. None of the Above

Q35. ____________ is a program that allows you to search for files available on one or more FTP servers.

A. Archie B. Apache C. Avatar D. Applet E. None of the Above

Q36. ICANN stands for ____________

A. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers B. Internet Connection for Assigned Names and Numbers C. Internet Corporation for Assigned Nodes and Numbers D. Internet Connection for Assigned Nodes and Numbers E. None of the Above

Q37. Which of the following term is similar to phishing, but refers to fraudulent messages sent over SMS rather than email?

A. Flaming B. Pharming C. Mashup D. Smishing E. None of the Above

Q38. Which key is used to erase pen tool drawings during a presentation?

A. F B. G C. R D. E E. None of the Above

Q39. What is the short-cut key to run a presentation?

A. F2 B. F3 C. F4 D. F5 E. None of the Above

Q40. The unauthorized changing of data before or during their input to a computer system is known as ____

A. Data Mining B. Data Marting C. Data Warehousing D. Data Diddling E. None of these

Answers and Explanations
1. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Assumption I: Assumption I is implicit as the suffering of some people due to SOG leads to help a larger section of society and improves the country.
Assumption II: It is difficult for SOG to get the output without any negative comment as this helps them to get a variety of views and do their work sufficiently. Hence, assumption II is also implicit. So, both I and II are implicit.
2. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Today is Saturday then day after tomorrow will be Monday
3. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code
4. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Statement first, second and forth are based on the same theme which is; Prepare for a long haul, no quick fix and related to the private sector in defence production while third statement is different and talks about the medical devices , hence option third is correct answer.
5. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
If neither I or II are strong
6. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
X × (4)+2
= 938 × 4 + 2
= 3752 + 2
= 3754
7. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Coincide means 00 angle.
0 =[latex]\frac{11}{2m}[/latex] –30*3
11m = 90*2 = 180
m= [latex]\frac{180}{11}[/latex] = 16 [latex]\frac{4}{11}[/latex]
So time = 3 : 16 [latex]\frac{4}{11}[/latex]
8. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Given Sequence: T $ 6 U K 7 % * 4 J O @ 2 3 L P 9 8 A # Y ^ 5 W &
Logic: Second element is second to the right of the first element and the third element is immediate left of the first element.
Thus option E 'Y^A' does not follow the logic.
9. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Forward – LASIKLASER, LASIKLASER
Reverse – LASIKLASER
10. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
PREPRIMARY , PREPRIMARY, PREPRIMARY
11. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
P=M<R≤T<S; M≤V
12. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
27,468
13. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Athletics is played on the Stadium.
14. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
From the Statement, Z is either greater than or equal to D and H is equal to Z. So Z is also either greater than or equal to H or H is either less than or equal to Z.
15. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The correct order is :
Key, Lock, Door, Room, Switch on
1, 3, 2, 4, 5
16.16. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
We have : (4+11)-(5+2)=8; (20+10)-(8+6)=16; (15+8)-(3+6)=14. So missing term is 14. So answer is option C
17. Answer - Option B
Explanation -


18. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Clearly, prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are two ways to prevent malaria. So, both the courses follow.
19. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
“26#E” – C. RUPEE
R – #
Last letter – E
No of letters – 5 + (Reverse Alphabet order of E = 22) = 27
20. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
From II, speeds of Kirti and Shweta are 9x and 5x respectively.
From I, Shweta’s time = 45 minutes
Since distance is same, from both statements:
So 5x*45 = 9x* Kirti’s time
So Kirti’s time = 25 minutes.
21. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Microprocessors
22. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
FORTRAN
23. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Access time
24. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
DRAM
25. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Time Sharing Operating Systems
26. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
CPU scheduler
27. Answer - Option E
28. Answer - Option A
Explanation (27-28) -
Input : Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 43 13 Banana Fruit
Step 1 : Banana Dog 7 48 Elephant 21 Car 13 Fruit 43
Step 2 : Banana 7 Dog 48 Elephant 21 Car 13 Fruit 43
Step 3 : Banana 7 Car Dog 48 Elephant 13 21 Fruit 43
Step 4 : Banana 7 Car 13 48 Elephant Dog 21 Fruit 43
Step 5 : Banana 7 Car 13 Elephant 48 Dog 21 Fruit 43
Middle Elements – Even Number and Vowel word
Remaining Elements – Ascending order
29. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
All of the above
30. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit
31. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
fence register
32. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Task Control Block
33. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
A candidate key is a minimal set of attributes necessary to identify a tuple. It is also known as minimal super key.
34. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
ICS
35. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Archie
36. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
37. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Smishing
38. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
E
39. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
F5
40. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Data Diddling

Q1. Which of the following is capital of Afghanistan ?

A. Brussels B. Kabul C. Afghani D. Baku E. None of these

Q2. Dhaka is capital of which of the following country ?

A. Nepal B. Pakistan C. Bhutan D. Bangladesh E. None of these

Q3. Euro is the currency of which of the following country ?

A. Colombia B. Cyprus C. Chile D. Canada E. None of these

Q4. Where is the headquarters of IDRBT?

A. Hyderabad B. Mumbai C. Chennai D. New Delhi E. Kolkata

Q5. Bank of Baroda has become the ______________ largest bank in the country.

A. sixth B. fourth C. first D. second E. third

Q6. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed 5-member committee under the chairmanship of ______________________ to strengthen digital payments as well as to boost financial inclusion through Financial Technology.

A. Nandan Nilekani B. Vishal Sikka C. NR Narayana Murthy D. Salil Parekh E. Sunil Bharti Mittal

Q7. ____________ launched Neev fund to help low-income states. It is the first low-income state infrastructure equity partnership in London.

A. ICICI Bank B. Axis Bank C. SBI D. HDFC Bank E. None of these

Q8. Yes Bank has signed a pact with ________ for issuing of bonds and equity with focus on green infrastructure finance.

A. NSE B. LSE C. FTSE D. KSE E. None of these

Q9. Which of the following methods is currently used in India to issue note?

A. Percentage Reserve System B. Fixed Fiduciary System C. Minimum Reserve System D. Proportional Reserve System E. None of these

Q10. Contribution to which field is honoured by Dadasaheb Phalke Award ?

A. Films B. Sports C. Music D. Literature E. None of these

Q11. ____________ the Popularization of Science is an award given by UNESCO

A. The Green Star Awards B. The FiFi Awards C. The Kalinga Prize D. The BAFTA award E. None of these

Q12. Which award is an initiative in India to recognize the best practices in e-Content and Creativity ?

A. The Global 500 award B. The Green Star Award C. The Manthan Award D. The Pulitzer Prize E. None of these

Q13. A market created around some activity or probability is known as

A. Decision Market B. Prediction market C. Virtual Market D. Information Market E. All of these

Q14. An exchange of goods between two parties is called as

A. Exchange Purchase B. Exchange Purchase C. Trade Purchase D. Business Purchase E. None of these

Q15. The book titled The Essential Ambedkar is penned by ____________

A. Amitav Gosh B. Salman Rushdie C. Bhalchandra Mungekar D. Ramachandra Guha E. None of these

Q16. Jobless, Clueless, Reckless is the book written by _________________

A. Ashwin Sanghi B. Revathi Suresh C. Anita Nair D. Ravi Subramanian E. None of these

Q17. The autobiographical book When Breath Becomes Air written by whom ?

A. Joginder Paul B. Paul Auster C. Jessie Paul D. Paul Kalanithi E. None of these

Q18. By the ____________ Delhi was given the status of National capital territory of India

A. 60[latex]^{th}[/latex] Constitutional Amendment Act B. 56[latex]^{th}[/latex] Constitutional Amendment Act C. 35[latex]^{th}[/latex] Constitutional Amendment Act D. 69[latex]^{th}[/latex] Constitutional Amendment Act E. None of these

Q19. How many number of seats in Lower House of Parliament ?

A. 560 B. 420 C. 545 D. 470 E. None of these

Q20. Minimum age required to contest for Loksabha election is ____________

A. 18 years B. 25 years C. 22 years D. 30 years E. None of these

Q21. The Indian Economy is a ____________economy

A. Marketable Abundant B. Capital Abundant C. Former Abundant D. Labour Abundant E. None of these

Q22. New pension System was regulated by ____________

A. PFRDA B. PRAN C. FCCB D. IRDA E. None of these

Q23. Union Budget is generally presented in which of the following month ?

A. January B. February C. July D. December E. None of these

Q24. The policy of Laissez-faire is related to _____

A. Welfare State B. Gandhian State C. Socialist State D. Industrial State E. None of these

Q25. According to World Bank reports, India has been classified under _______

A. Low Income Economies B. Lower-middle Income Economies C. Upper-middle Income Economies D. High Income Economies E. None of these

Q26. The economy of India is _____

A. Underdeveloped economy B. Developing Mixed Economy C. Developed Economy D. All of these E. None of these

Q27. When was the ILO established?

A. 1942 B. 1927 C. 1919 D. 1930 E. None of the above

Q28. Which organisation is termed as "a Child of War"?

A. UN B. League of Nations C. SAARC D. WHO E. None of the above

Q29. When was the United Nations adopted the Charter of Economic Rights?

A. December 1980 B. December 1964 C. December 1974 D. December 1976 E. None of the above

Q30. For the first time, scientists have developed which fabric from the flax plant?

A. Cotton B. Rayon C. Nylon D. Linen E. None of the above

Q31. GoI has indicated no ____________ crop will be introduced without evaluating biosafety and socioeconomic desirability.

A. GM B. Organic C. Rabi D. Kharif E. None of these

Q32. Money Market is divided into how many types?

A. 2 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6

Q33. A loan to pay for a home , business or other real estate over a period of time is a.....

A. Credit B. Deposit C. Mortgage D. Bankruptcy E. Debit

Q34. What is the type of cheque which is presented for payment after 3 months from the date of the cheque?

A. Stale Cheque B. Post-Dated Cheque C. Ante-Dated Cheque D. Order Cheque E. Certified Cheque

Q35. PAN card will be issued under Section __________ of the Income Tax Act.

A. 139A B. 189A C. 89A D. 98A E. None of these

Q36. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is used to identify the Indian nationals and regular Income Tax payer under the______________.

A. Indian Income Tax Act, 1981 B. Indian Income Tax Act, 1961 C. Indian Income Tax Act, 1971 D. Indian Income Tax Act, 1991 E. None of these

Q37. Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) is 8 to 11 __________.

A. digit code B. Alphabetic code C. Alpha numeric code D. Analog code E. None of these

Q38. _______was the first private sector bank in India which was founded in 1899 in Kerala.

A. Nainital Bank B. Catholic Syrian Bank C. Karur Vysya Bank D. City Union Bank E. Nedungadi Bank

Q39. ____________ Bank has introduced first ATM in India.

A. SBI B. ICICI C. HSBC D. Axis E. City Bank

Q40. In which state India’s first international exchange INX was inaugurated at International Financial Servce Centre(IFSC)?

A. Maharashtra B. Gujarat C. Hyderabad D. Bangalore E. Chennai

Answers and Explanations
1. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Afghanistan – Kabul(Capital), Afghani(Currency).
2. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Bangladesh – Dhaka(Capital) and Taka(Currency)
3. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Cyprus – Nicosia(Capital) and Euro(Currency)
4. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The headquarters of IDRBT is in Hyderabad.
5. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
The amalgamation of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank into the Bank of Baroda (BoB) has come into effect and all branches of the former two will function as branches of BoB. The merged entity would also receive Rs 5,042 crore fund infusion from the government. Post the merger, Bank of Baroda has become the third largest bank in the country.
6. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed 5-member committee under the chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani to strengthen digital payments as well as to boost financial inclusion through Financial Technology. The committee would submit its recommendations within 3 months.
7. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The fund aims at providing equity partnerships for small infrastructure development in sectors like water and sanitation, clean energy and urban infrastructure.
8. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
London Stock Exchange (LSE). The private sector lender may use the agreement to raise equity capital through a global depository receipt listing on LSE.
9. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The central bank keeps a minimum reserve of gold under the law. A maximum limit of note is not fixed. After keeping the reserve any amount of money can be issued.
10. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India’s highest award in cinema. It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Established in 1969.
11. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. It was created in 1952.
12. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Manthan Award – It is an initiative in India to recognize the best practices in e-Content and Creativity.It was created on 10 October 2004.
13. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Prediction markets (predictive markets, information markets, decision markets, idea futures, event derivatives, or virtual markets) are exchange-traded markets created for the purpose of trading the outcome of events. The market prices can indicate what the crowd thinks the probability of the event is.
14. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Counter purchase is the agreement of an exporter to purchase a quantity of unrelated goods or services from a country in exchange for and approximate in value.
15. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The book ‘The Essential Ambedkar’ written by Bhalchandra Mungekar, published by Rupa Publications.
16. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Jobless, Clueless, Reckless is the book by Revathi Suresh. The book deal with actually whathappens to a person during his teenage years and she is not a teenager. The book is constantly humorous and gives you insight about various things
17. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
When Breath Becomes Air is a non-fiction autobiographical book written by Paul Kalanithi. It is a memoir about his life and illness, battling stage IV metastatic lung cancer. It was posthumously published by Random House.
18. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
By the 69[latex]^{th}[/latex] Constitutional Amendment Act Delhi was given the status of National capital territory of India
19. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The Lok Sabha (Lower House of Indian Parliament) has 543 elective seats and two seats are filled by nomination
20. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Article 84 (b) of Constitution of India provides that the minimum age for becoming a candidate for Lok Sabha election shall be 25 years.
21. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
India is a very large labour-abundant economy with a rapidly growing workforce and its manufacturing sector might be expected to be the primary driver of its economic growth.
22. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
National Pension System (NPS) is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme regulated by PFRDA and established by GOI
PFRDA Chairman – Yogesh Aggarwal
23. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The first Union budget of independent India was presented by R. K. Shanmukham Chetty on November 26, 1947. It is presented each year on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament.
24. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
A Conservative Approach to the Industrial Revolution. Laissez-faire (from the French, meaning to leave alone or to allow to do) is an economic and political doctrine that holds that economies function most efficiently when unencumbered by government regulation.
25. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Lower-middle Income Economies.
26. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The economy of India is a developing mixed economy. It is the world’s sixth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP)
27. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
1919
28. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
League of Nations
29. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
December 1980
30. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
In what could be a landmark innovation, scientists at Indira Gandhi Krishi Vishvavidyalaya (IGKV) have developed yarn of linen cloth from flax plant - a first in India.
31. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
No genetically modified (GM) crop should be introduced in India unless the biosafety and socio-economic desirability is evaluated.
32. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Money Market is divided into three types - Call Money, Term Money and Notice Money.
33. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
A Mortgage loan, also reffered to as a mortgage, is used by purchasers of real property to raise funds to buy real estate; by existing property owners to raise funds for any purpose while putting a lien on the property being mortgaged.
34. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
If a cheque is presented for payment after 3 months from the date of the cheque it is called stale cheque. A stale cheque is not honoured by the bank.
35. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
139A
36. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Indian Income Tax Act, 1961
37. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Alphabetic code
38. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Nedungadi Bank , Merged with Punjab National Bank in 2003
39. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
ICICI Bank
40. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Gujarat, GIFT city (Gujarat International Financial Tech)

Directions (Q1 - Q2): Read the following question and answer the Synonym words.
Q1. Apposite

A. rude B. appropriate C. classy D. neutral E. inapt

Q2. Content

A. unhappy B. matter C. enclosure D. satisfied E. substance

Q3. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of Malaise ?

A. robustness B. unease C. good health D. trim E. None of these

Q4. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of Compelling ?

A. dragoon B. coax C. beguile D. blandish E. None of these

Q5. ____________ I could have handled the situation in a different manner.

A. If I was at your place B. Would it have been me at your place C. Had I been at your place D. If me were in your place E. Had I being in your place

Q6. In the aftermath of cyclonic storms, the police were advising motorists to travel ____________ absolutely necessary.

A. if and only their journey was B. only if their journey would be C. only when their journey were to be D. only when their journey could be E. only if their journey was

Q7. The Company also _____________ an additional investment of Rs. 100 Crore to be spent on factory, training and sales organisations.

A. gives B. increases C. announced D. spoken E. None of these

Q8. With the _______________ of Cloud Computing, Microsoft has a real opportunity in India, the company’s India-born CEO Satya Nadella has said.

A. come B. outbreak C. break D. emergence E. None of these

Directions (Q9 - Q10): Read the following questions Idioms & Phrases and answer them.
Q9. the first and last

A. Around/round the clock B. A dime a dozen C. Hit below the belt D. Alpha and Omega E. All ears

Q10. sad and depressed

A. On the cuff B. Go scot free C. In the blues D. Under the rose E. None of these

Directions (Q11 - Q12): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q11. (1) He who doesn't know whether / (2) potato grows below the ground, / (3) above or at the factory, that / (4) man claim to speak for farmers. / (5) No error

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Q12. (1) Prakash Ambedkar, who leads / (2) the Vanchit Aghadi, / (3) announced his intention / (4) to contest all 48 seats in Maharashtra. / (5) No error

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Directions (Q13 - Q14): Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). Ignore errors of Punctuation, if any.
Q13. Every citizen is entitled to the voting.

A. Every citizen B. Is entitled C. To the voting. D. None of these

Q14. The administration was clueless about the initiative taken to help the people suffer from the drought.

A. The administration was clueless B. about the initiative taken to C. help the people D. suffer from the drought. E. No error

Q15. SIAMESE : CAT

A. type : breed B. dog : puppy C. mark : spot D. romaine : lettuce E. collar : leash

Q16. PETAL : FLOWER

A. salt : pepper B. tire : bicycle C. base : ball D. sandals : shoes E. puppy : dog

Q17. Adhere to

i. If you keep refusing to adhere to the rules of the school, you may be expelled. ii. Staff should adhere strictly to the safety guidelines. iii. We must strictly adhere the terms to the contract. iv. His followers adhering to a blend of Buddhist, Hindu, and Christian teachings.

A. only i B. only ii & i C. only ii & iv D. only ii E. All are Correct

Q18. Woke up

i. I woke up when the rooster crowed. ii. As you said, just waking you up from a nightmare. iii. I always wake myself up automatically at 7:00 even if I forget to set the alarm. iv. What time do you guys wakes up?

A. only i B. only ii C. only iii D. only iv E. All are Correct

Q19. You have (A) / acted nobler (B) / than all of us (C) / No error (D)

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

Q20. He has not seldom (A) / visited his parents (B) / since he left this place (C) / No error (D)

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

Directions (Q21 - Q22): Read the following paragraph and answer the below questions.
The recent change to all-volunteer armed forces in the United States will eventually produce a gradual increase in the proportion of women in the armed forces and in the variety of women’s assignments, but probably not the dramatic gains for women that might have been expected. This is so even though the armed forces operate in an ethos of institutional change oriented toward occupational equality and under the federal sanction of equal pay for work. The difficulty is that women are unlikely to be trained for any direct combat operations.
A significant portion of the larger society remains uncomfortable as yet with extending equality in this direction. Therefore, for women in the military, the search for equality will still be based on functional equivalence, not identity or even similarity of the task. Opportunities seem certain to arise. The growing emphasis on deterrence is bound to offer increasing scope for women to become involved in novel types of noncombat military assignments.
Q21. Which sentence is an incorrect one?

A. The recent change to all voluntary armed forces in the US will produce a gradual increase in the proportion of women. B. The difficulty is that women are likely to be trained for any direct combat operation. C. Opportunities seem certain to arise D. The difficulty is that women are unlikely to be trained for any direct combat operation E. None of these

Q22. A suitable title for the passage might be ?

A. Current status of women in US military. B. Current status of women in US navy C. Current status of women in US air force D. Current status of women in US teaching service, E. None of these

Directions (Q23 - Q24): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I & II. On the basis of information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the following suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give your answer as-
Q23. The government has decided to earmark a separate lane in the metropolis for passengers vehicles with more than one occupant.

I.Many people may resort to pool car systems to avoid traffic. II.The move may help decongest the roads of the metropolis

A. If only I follows B. If only II follows C. If either I or II follows D. If neither I nor II follows E. If both I & II follow

Q24. New Census data on the educational status of India show the biggest increase in the no of people pursuing engineering & technology diplomas or technical degrees equivalent to a graduate.

I.India has over 30lakh people with teaching degree and over 15 lakh people with a medical degree II.Education in India has been boosted up with the opening of new private and government colleges.

A. If only I follows B. If only II follows C. If either I or II follows D. If neither I nor II follows E. If both I & II follow

Directions (Q25 - Q26): Read the following paragraph and answer the below questions.
A decade after the devastating tsunami on December 26, 2004, that killed more than 2 lakh people across. 14 countries and leveled entire towns and villages, is the world, and India, where 12,000 people died, better prepared to deal with a crisis of that magnitude? In a heartening departure from the usual story of benign government neglect that characterizes long – term responses to such events, indications are that some lessons have indeed been learned. Ten years on, and not without some finger-pointing and political jockeying, the multilateral, Unesco – supported Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System has established a network of seismometers, tidal gauges and tsunami buoys to detect undersea tremors. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC), meanwhile, also monitors seismic activity and tsunamis to provide advisories, giving officials two – and a – half hours to organize and respond. The ITEWC is a sophisticated system, and it is a measure of its success that it is a designated regional tsunami service provider responsible for issuing bulletins to Indian Ocean rim countries.
Of course, gaps remain. As highlighted by Odisha’s improved responses to cyclones – the state managed the impact of Cyclone Phailin in October last year – early warning alerts and technological fixes can only go so far. For effective disaster management and mitigation, it is imperative to build resilient infrastructure and educate people. Despite calls to “build back better” – disaster recovery parlance for creating an infrastructure that would reduce vulnerability to future risks – reports suggest that authorities have failed to implement the coastal regulation zone notification in tsunami-affected areas. The initial energy expended on training communities on proper responses, building evacuation routes and shelters, and planning for relocation seems to have dissipated. This inertia is visible when dealing with other disasters, too, from cloudbursts and floods to landslides. The flouting of environmental regulations is commonplace, both in at-risk coastal communities and in places like Uttarakhand, where the Centre recently admitted that hydropower projects had “significantly degraded” the local ecology, exacerbating the impact of an extreme weather event.
If India is to effectively deal with a natural calamity, the government must recognize that disaster management requires constant updation and capacity – building. This means recognizing that locals are first responders and investing in strengthening the risk reduction capacities of local, city and regional authorities.
Q25. What are some of the developments regarding the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System?

A. It has sent various experts to keep a check on the tidal waves B. It has worked on spreading the wide network of seismometers. C. It has established a network to detect undersea tremors

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and B E. Only B and C

Q26. Which is the most essential thing to make disaster management and mitigation effective?

A. Expert advise B. Investment C. Infrastructure D. Authoritative intervention E. Sesimometers

Directions (Q27 - Q30): In each of the following questions, a paragraph with a blank is given. From the five choices given below, select the sentence which can go into the blank to make the paragraph logically coherent.
Q27. Every school has one or more staff members who are passionate about technology, their enthusiasm is contagious. ____________ Consequently they never miss attending seminars and conferences.

A. They may seem unapproachable or intimidating. B. They are obsessed about keeping themselves updated. C. In their zeal to move ahead, they may leave others behind. D. Most educators of today did not take courses in computer application in college. E. It is good to have around people who are enthusiastic about computers.

Q28. The technology of computer and communication has facilitated globalization. __________ Multinational companies will not hesitate to impose their will on developing countries in order to promote their interests.

A. Globalisation was the watch word of the last decade of the Twentieth century. B. The exploits of the Multi National Companies may lead to an early exhaustion of non-renewable resources. C. MNCs can take undue advantage by using their power of monopoly. D. Globalisation is popular among developed countries. E. Globalisation has its own share of dangers.

Q29. A creative child’s hidden talent can be identified from a very early age itself. These children believe that they are pursuing what they perceive to be really worthwhile. If there is a teacher who can play the positive role of a facilitator, to kindle the creativity at an early age wonderful results can be achieved. __________

A. Creative children cannot mingle freely with other children. B. Creative children need special schools to nurture their talents. C. Creative children can master their needs with the minimum level of guidance. D. The school environment provides positive stimulus in exciting the creativity among these children. E. Ordinary children need greater motivation than creative children.

Q30. Greed is an essential part of the human makeup and is the driving force behind corruption. Greed can be suppressed and cannot be totally eliminated, and consequently, corruption can be minimized and cannot be totally eradicated. __________ The public life would gradually become cleaner.

A. Corrupt politicians should not be voted to power. B. Corrupt government employees should be sacked. C. If subjects like integrity, honesty and the good of all are taught to the students in the early grades of education, the growing up generations will have a distaste for corruption. D. Corruption can be reduced if poverty can be minimized. E. A strict law to Punish corrupt politicians must be framed.

Directions (Q31 - Q34): In each of the following Questions, a sentence has been split into five parts denoted by (1),(A),(B),(C) and (D). Rearrange the parts (A),(B),(C) and (D) to make the sentence both meaningfully and grammatically correct.
Q31. Rooted in the(1) his approach to the problems and was a kind of bridge(A)/ between the past of India and her present(B)/ past and full of pride in India’s heritage,(C)/ Vivekananda yet was modern in(D)

A. DABC B. BDAC C. CDAB D. DACB E. No arrangement required

Q32. Besides being unique,(1) of small and marginal farmers(A)/ farmers Rs 6000 per year is also(B)/ the scheme to give(C)/ sustainable and will increase the confidence(D)

A. CBAD B. ADBC C. CBDA D. BDCA E. No arrangement required

Q33. Dissent(1) plays an important role(C)/ in garnering different opinions(D) and moulding them(B)/ into policy decisions(A)/

A. CDAB B. DBCA C. CBAD D. CDBA E. No arrangement required

Q34. One of the(1) is its unflinching faith on(A)/ settlement of international disputes (B)/ core elements of India’s foreign policy(C)/ the the political and peaceful(D)/

A. BACD B. BADC C. CADB D. CABD E. No arrangement required

Directions (Q35 - Q36): Read the following question and answer the Antonyms for it.
Q35. Valour

A. cowardice B. agreeable C. unpleasant D. despicable E. None of these

Q36. Parochial

A. conservative B. repine C. global D. repugnant E. None of these

Directions (Q37 - Q38): Read the following question based on Theme Based and answer the below.
Q37.

A. Bharti, India’s largest telecom company, has suffered a 72% decline in net profit in the last quarter. B. But when the government itself is partly to blame for the industry’s strained finances, and when that industry’s ability to invest and grow is a major determinant of future job creation in the economy, it cannot simply shrug its shoulders. C. The entire telecom sector is under strain, offering a return on capital of 1%, according to one estimate. D. The debate on stent pricing may seem largely irrelevant in a country where the vast majority still struggles to access rudimentary healthcare. E. None of these

Q38.

A. Regulating new healthcare technologies entails deciding which products have scientific and clinical merit, and then, based on economic considerations, deciding which treatments should be covered by insurance. B. This is an enormously complex undertaking. C. When this has to be done in a highly resource-constrained and complex healthcare delivery environment as in India, the importance of the regulatory process is amplified manifold. D. The Indian economy is on the cusp of yet another wave of major disruption, joining a global trend. E. None of these

Directions (Q39 - Q40): Read the following question based on Word Analogy and answer the below.
Q39. Sound : Muffled

A. Moisture : Humid B. Colour : Faded C. Despair : Pair D. Odour : Pungent E. None of these

Q40. Egg : Omelette

A. Dam : River B. Student : Classroom C. Clay : Pottery D. Onion : Salad E. None of these

Answers and Explanations
1. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Apposite – apt in the circumstances or in relation to something
2. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Content – satisfied
3. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Malaise – unease
4. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Compelling – dragoon
5. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Had I been at your place is the best suited option
6. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
only if their journey was is the best suited option
7. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
1st 2 choices can be easily eliminated as the sentence is in a passive form, cant take active verbs. Out of the rest 2, 3rd is the best one.
8. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Confusion may arises among option 2nd and 4th only, then outbreak, we tend to use for negative happenings, emergence fits here.
9. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
The strategy to control the inflation remains the alpha and omega of the government’s economic policy
10. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
My friend has been in the blues since losing the closely fought final match
11. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
As claims will come in place of claim because this verb has been used for the subject "man" which is singular.
12. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Correct alternative as the sentence is already grammatically and meaningfully correct.
13. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
We are entitled 'to vote' not 'the voting'.
14. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
If we replace 'suffer' with 'suffering' then it makes perfect sense as then it means the administration's was clueless about the initiative for the people who are suffering. As here 'suffer' as acts as a participle which intends to show that people are undergoing pain.
15. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Siamese is a kind of cat; romaine is a kind of lettuce.
16. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
A petal is a part of a flower; a tire is a part of a bicycle.
17. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
adhere to = to obey a rule, law, agreement etc; to support or believe in an idea, plan, opinion etc
18. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
wake up = to start to feel more lively, or to make someone feel more lively
19. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Replace ‘nobler’ by ‘more nobly’
20. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Delete ‘not’
21. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The difficulty is that women are likely to be trained for any direct combat operation.
22. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Current status of women in US military.
23. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
The gov has taken steps assuming that decongestion of the roads will improve.
24. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The biggest increase in the no of Engineering graduates is owing to the opening of new colleges
25. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
Only B and C
26. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Infrastructure
27. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
They are obsessed about keeping themselves updated. The last sentence of the given paragraph is the effect of the preceding sentence. Since they are updated all the time, they do not miss any seminars and conferences.
28. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Globalization is popular among developed countries.
29. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
The school environment provides positive stimulus in exciting the creativity among these children. In the previous sentences, the writer is talking about the creativity among children.
30. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
If subjects like integrity, honesty and the good of all are taught to the students in the early grades of education, the growing up generations will have a distaste for corruption. This sentence is positive in meaning and the good ideas are expressed in this sentence. Last sentence also positive in meaning. Hence logically connect to each other.
31. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
CDAB
32. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
CBDA
33. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
CDBA
34. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
CADB
35. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Valour – great courage in the face of danger, especially in battle.
cowardice – lack of bravery.
36. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Parochial – having a limited or narrow outlook or scope.
global – relating to the whole world; worldwide.
37. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
statement first, second and third are based on the theme; Reduce levies on the telecom sector while forth statement is different and talks about rudimentary healthcare, hence, option forth is correct answer.
38. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
statement first, second and third are based on the same theme that is; Treating unhealthy devices while forth statement is different and talks about The Indian economy’s disruption and global trends, hence option fifth is correct answer.
39. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Second is the process of gradual disappearance of the first.
40. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
Second is the made from the first.

Directions (Q1 - Q4): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Number of units of three different products P1, P2 and P3, produced (units in hundreds) at four different locations (L1, L=, L3 and L4) of a factory the graph.

Q1. What is the total number of units of P2 produced (in hundreds) in the four locations together?

A. 540 B. 550 C. 510 D. 530 E. None of these

Q2. In which location is the maximum number of units produced?

A. L2 B. L1 C. L4 and L2 D. L3 and L1 E. None of these

Q3. By what approximate percent is the number of units of P1 produced more than the number of units of P3 produced in the four locations together?

A. 10.9% B. 12.4% C. 5.9% D. 18.7% E. None of these

Q4. If the production cost of each of product P2 is Rs.430, then what is the total production cost of P2?

A. Rs.2,26,200 B. Rs.2,36,500 C. Rs.2,46,800 D. Rs.2,56,400 E. None of these

Directions (Q5 - Q8): Study the following Table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Q5. What is the ratio of total number of male students of the college Q in the departments CSE and EC to the total number of female students in the departments EEE and CE of the college U?

A. 55 : 19 B. 60 : 23 C. 65 : 27 D. 70 : 31 E. None of these

Q6. What is the total number of male students of the colleges P, Q and R in CSE department and the total number of male students of the colleges T, U, and V in ME departments?

A. 444 B. 464 C. 484 D. 504 E. None of these

Q7. In which one of the given colleges are there the highest number of female students?

A. V B. U C. T D. R E. None of these

Q8. What is the total number of female students studying in the college R in the given six departments together?

A. 293 B. 303 C. 313 D. 323 E. None of these

Directions (Q9 - Q12): The tabular graph below shows the end of the month market values of 4 shares for the period from January to June. Answer the following questions based on this graph.

Q9. In which month was the greatest absolute change in market value for any share recorded?

A. March B. April C. May D. June E. None of these

Q10. In which month was the greatest percentage increase in market value for any share recorded?

A. February B. March C. April D. May E. None of these

Q11. An individual wishes to sell 1 share of C and 1 share of D to buy 1 share of A at the end of a month. At which month-end would the individual’s loss from this decision, due to share value changes, be the most?

A. February B. March C. April D. June E. None of these

Q12. An individual decides to sell 1 share of C and 1 share of D to buy 1 share of A at the end of the month. What can be the individual’s greatest gain from this decision, due to share value changes?

A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 E. None of these

Directions (Q13 - Q15): Study the following Line Graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.


Q13. What is the average number of literate males per village?

A. 32240 B. 24420 C. 28120 D. 29430 E. None of these

Q14. In how many villages is the number of illiterate males, as a percentage of the total population, more than 21%?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of these

Q15. In which village is the number of literate males, as a percentage of the total population, the lowest?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

Directions (Q16 - Q19): Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions given below.

Q16. HBO and star plus have ______ viewers

A. 160 B. 340 C. 320 D. 480 E. None of these

Q17. Which of the following represents the the ratio of the number of viewers of BBC to the number of viewers of Neo sports?

A. 1 : 7 B. 2 : 5 C. 3 : 4 D. 4 : 7 E. None of these

Q18. The number of viewers of star plus forms what percentage of number of viewers of NDTV?

A. 80% B. 50% C. 70% D. 60% E. None of these

Q19. The total number of viewers of NDTV and BBC forms what % of total number of viewers?

A. 43.33% B. 36.66% C. 33.33% D. 26.66% E. None of these

Directions (Q20 - Q23): Study the following Line-chart and answer the questions given below.


Q20. In 2013, out of the total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together, only 30% were accepted. What was the total number of applications accepted for Universities P and Q together in 2013?

A. 132 B. 135 C. 141 D. 123 E. None of the Above

Q21. In 2012, 30% of applications received for University P and 20% of applications received for University Q were from international students. What was the total number of International applicants for University P and Q together in 2012?

A. 91 B. 97 C. 89 D. 93 E. 87

Q22. If the respective ratio of total number of applications received for University P and Q together in 2016 and 2017 is 3:4. What was the total number of applications received for University P and Q together in 2017?

A. 456 B. 560 C. 540 D. 530 E. None of the Above

Q23. What is the average number of applications received for University P in 2013, 2015 and 2016?

A. 190 B. 180 C. 170 D. 200 E. 160

Directions (Q24 - Q26): Study the following Data Sufficiency and answer the questions given below.
Q24. AJAY and MRITHULA are father and mother of Sathya, respectively. Sathya has four uncles and three aunts. AJAY has two siblings. The siblings of AJAY and MRITHULA are unmarried. How many brothers does MRITHULA have?

I.AJAY has two brothers. II.MRITHULA has five siblings.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

Q25. Four students were added to a school team. Would the coach able to divide his students evenly into a team (or teams) of 8?

I.The number of students in the team is currently not divisible by 8. II.If 12 students were added, the coach could put everyone in teams of 8 without any leftovers.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

Q26. How many pages of the Book did Aruna read on Sunday ?

I. Aruna read the last 50 pages of the book on Monday morning II. The book has 300 pages out of which two-thirds were read by Aruna before Sunday. III. Aruna always read less pages in Monday compared to Wednesday.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

Q27. A bag contains 4 red balls and 5 black balls. In how many ways can i make a selection so as to take atleast 1 red ball and 1 black ball ?

A. 564 B. 345 C. 465 D. 240 E. None of these

Q28. In how many ways can 7 beads be strung into necklace ?

A. 2520 B. 5040 C. 720 D. 360 E. None of these

Q29. There are 2 brothers A and B. Probability that A will pass in exam is 3/5 and that B will pass in exam is 5/8. What will be the probability that only one will pass in the exam?

A. [latex]\frac{12}{43}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{19}{40}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{14}{33}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{21}{40}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{9}{20}[/latex]

Q30. If three dices are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability of having a same number on all dices?

A. [latex]\frac{1}{36}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{5}{36}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{23}{216}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{1}{108}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{17}{216}[/latex]

Answers and Explanations
1. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
550
2. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
L4 and L2
3. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
5.9%
4. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
None of these
5. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The required ratio
= [(1-[latex]\frac{35}{100}[/latex])×120 + (1-[latex]\frac{35}{100}[/latex])×180 ]
= [([latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex])×150 + ([latex]\frac{35}{100}[/latex])×60]
= (78 + 117) : (60 + 21)
= 195 : 81
= 65 : 27
6. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The required difference
= [(1-[latex]\frac{45}{100}[/latex])×180 + (1-[latex]\frac{35}{100}[/latex])×120 + (1-[latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex])×60] + [(1-[latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex])×90 + (1-[latex]\frac{35}{100}[/latex])×180 + (1-[latex]\frac{50}{100}[/latex])×120]
= (99 + 78 + 36) + (54 + 117 + 60)
= 213 + 231
= 444
7. Answer - Option A
Explanation -

8. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The required total number of female students
= ( [latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex]×60 + [latex]\frac{50}{100}[/latex]×150 + [latex]\frac{45}{100}[/latex]×120 + [latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex]×180 + [latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex]×150 + [latex]\frac{30}{100}[/latex]×60 )
= (24 + 75 + 54 + 72 + 60 + 18)
= 303
9. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The greatest absolute change in the market value is 20
i.e. In the month of March the share of A = 115 – 95 = 20
10. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The greatest percentage change in any share was recorded for share D for the month of February viz. 25%
11. Answer - Option D
Explanation -

Due to share value changes the maximum loss is 10 for the month of June. Hence the answer is (D).
12. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
From the above table again we can see that the individual’s highest gain is Rs.5.
13. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
The required average
= [latex]\frac {(40000 × \frac{80}{100} + 48000 × \frac{70}{100} + 30000 × \frac{90}{100} + 50000 × \frac{60}{100} + 24000 ×\frac{75}{100})}{5}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{140600}{5}[/latex]
= 28120
14. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Percentage of illiterate males in the given villages is as follows.
A = [latex]\frac{8000}{64000}[/latex] × 100 = 12.5%
B = [latex]\frac{14400}{72000}[/latex] × 100 = 20%
C = [latex]\frac{3000}{54000}[/latex] × 100 = 5.55%
D = [latex]\frac{20000}{80000}[/latex] × 100 = 25%
E = [latex]\frac{6000}{60000}[/latex] × 100 = 10%
15. Answer - Option E
Explanation -
% of literate males in
A = [latex]\frac{32000}{64000}[/latex] × 100 = 50%
B = [latex]\frac{33600}{72000}[/latex] × 100 = 46 [latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex] %
C = [latex]\frac{27000}{54000}[/latex] × 100 = 50%
D = [latex]\frac{30000}{80000}[/latex] × 100 = 37.5%
E = [latex]\frac{18000}{60000}[/latex] × 100 = 30%
It is the lowest in Village E.
16. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
The number of viewers of HBO and Starplus
= [latex]\frac {(72° + 72°)}{360°} \times 1200[/latex]
= [latex](\frac {144°}{360°}) \times 1200[/latex]
= 480
17. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
The ratio of number of viewers of BBC to the number of viewers of Neo sports
= 12[latex]^{0}[/latex] : 84[latex]^{0}[/latex]
= 1 : 7
18. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
The percentage of number of viewers of starplus w.r.t the number of viewers of NDTV
= [latex](\frac {72°}{120°}) \times 100[/latex] = 60%
19. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
The percentage of total number of viewers of NDTV and BBC to total number of viewers
= [latex]\frac{120 + 12}{360}[/latex] × 100 = 36.66%
20. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
Total number of applications accepted by P and Q together in 2013 = [latex]\frac{(130 + 280) × 30}{100}[/latex]
= 123
21. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Total Number of International applicants for University P and Q together
= 210 × [latex]\frac{30}{100}[/latex] + 140 × [latex]\frac{20}{100}[/latex]
= 63 + 28 = 91
22. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together in 2016
= 230 + 190 = 420 Total number of applications received for Universities P and Q together in 2017
= 420 × [latex]\frac{4}{3}[/latex] = 560
23. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Average number of applications received for University A in 2013, 2015 and 2016
= [latex]\frac{(130 + 210 + 230)}{3}[/latex] = 190
24. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Sathya has 4 uncles and from statement I. AJAY has two brothers. Hence, the other 2 uncles of Sathya must be the brothers of MRITHULA. Statement B does not give any additional information.
25. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
From II, if by adding 12 students, the total number of students is divisible by 8. By adding 4 students, it will be divisible by 8.
26. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
From both I and II
[latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex] × (300) = 200
Sunday = 300-(200+50) = 50
27. Answer - Option C
Explanation -
2[latex]^{4}[/latex] - 1 = 16 -1 = 15
2[latex]^{5}[/latex] - 1 = 32 -1 = 31
15 × 31 = 465
28. Answer - Option D
Explanation -
No of way in Necklace = [latex]\frac{(n-1)!}{2}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{6!}{2}[/latex]
= [latex]\frac{720}{2}[/latex] = 360
29. Answer - Option B
Explanation -
Only one will pass means the other will fail
Probability that A will pass in exam is [latex]\frac{3}{5}[/latex]. So Probability that A will fail in exam is 1 – [latex]\frac{3}{5}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{2}{5}[/latex]
Probability that B will pass in exam is [latex]\frac{5}{8}[/latex]. So Probability that B will fail in exam is 1 – [latex]\frac{5}{8}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{3}{8}[/latex]
So required probability = P(A will pass)*P(B will fail) + P(B will pass)*P(A will fail)
So probability that only one will pass in the exam = [latex]\frac{3}{5}[/latex] * [latex]\frac{3}{8}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{5}{8}[/latex] * [latex]\frac{2}{5}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{19}{40}[/latex]
30. Answer - Option A
Explanation -
Total events will be 6*6*6 = 216
Favorable events for having same number is {1,1,1}, {2,2,2}, {3,3,3}, {4,4,4}, {5,5,5}, {6,6,6} – so 6 events
Probability of same number on all dices is [latex]\frac{6}{216}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{36}[/latex]