1. India has invited Pakistan to visit sites of the Pakal Dul and Lower Kalnal hydro-electric projects on which river?

A. Yamuna B. Chenab C. Jhelum D. None of the above

Answer - Option B
2. The 115th meeting of the India-Pakistan Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) was held where?

A. Lahore B. Islamabad C. Istanbul D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
3. National Trust Centre would be created for certifying devices and applications for machine-to-machine communication by which commission?

A. Telephone Commission B. Maritime Commission C. Military Commission D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
4. SBI Hikes Benchmark Lending Rate By how much?

A. 0.2 % B. 0.4% C. 0.3% D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
5. GDP growth soars to how much in first quarter?

A. 8.2 % B. 8.5% C. 7.68% D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
6. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?

A. T.N.Kaul B. J.R.D. Tata C. Khushwant Singh D. Nani Palkhivala

Answer - Option D
7. Who is the author of the book 'Forbidden Verses'?

A. Salman RushDie B. Abu Nuwas C. Ms. Taslima Nasrin D. D.H. Lawrence

Answer - Option B
8. Which of the following books has been written by Vikram Seth?

A. My God Died Young B. Islamic Bomb C. Look Back in Anger D. A Suitable Boy

Answer - Option D
9. Who wrote the line: ' A thing of beauty is a joy forever'?

A. John Keats B. Robert Browing C. P.B.Shelley D. William Wordsworth

Answer - Option B
10. The Battle of Plassey was fought in

A. 1757 B. 1782 C. 1748 D. 1764

Answer - Option A
11. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of

A. Sutlej and Beas B. Jhelum and Chenab C. Ravi and Chenab D. Ganga and Yamuna

Answer - Option B
12. Tripitakas are sacred books of

A. Buddhists B. Hindus C. Jains D. None of the above

Answer - Option A
13. The trident-shaped symbol of Buddhism does not represent

A. Nirvana B. Sangha C. Buddha D. Dhamma

Answer - Option A
14. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river

A. Ganga B. Cauvery C. Narmada D. Godavari

Answer - Option D
15. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about

A. 45 B. 65 C. 35 D. 25

Answer - Option C
16. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is

A. north of Tropic of Cancer B. south of the Equator C. south of the Capricorn D. north of the Equator

Answer - Option D
17. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called

A. the Palghat gap B. the Bhorghat pass C. the Thalgat pass D. the Bolan pass

Answer - Option A
18. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as

A. Ganga B. Indus C. Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi

Answer - Option C
19. The Salal Project is on the river

A. Chenab B. Jhelum C. Ravi D. Sutlej

Answer - Option A
20. The only zone in the country that produces gold is also rich in iron is

A. North-eastern zone B. North-western zone C. Southern zone D. None of the above

Answer - Option C
21. The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign body because

A. it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the Centre by the Constitution B. it has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution C. the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by parliament as unconstitutional if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution D. All of the above

Answer - Option D
22. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in

A. 1970 B. 1971 C. 1972 D. 1973

Answer - Option D
23. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by

A. the people B. Lok Sabha C. elected members of the legislative assembly D. elected members of the legislative council

Answer - Option C
24. The members of the panchayat are

A. nominated by the district officer B. the electorates of the respective territorial constituencies C. nominated by local self-government minister of the state D. nominated by the block development organization

Answer - Option B
25. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

A. Parliament B. Supreme Court C. High courts D. Election Commission

Answer - Option C
26. The present Lok Sabha is the

A. 14th Lok Sabha B. 15th Lok Sabha C. 16th Lok Sabha D. 17th Lok Sabha

Answer - Option D
27. Development expenditure of the Central government does not include

A. defence expenditure B. expenditure on economic services C. expenditure on social and community services D. grant to states

Answer - Option A
28. ICICI is the name of a

A. chemical industry B. bureau C. corporation D. financial institution

Answer - Option D
29. Gilt-edged market means

A. bullion market B. market of government securities C. market of guns D. market of pure metals

Answer - Option B
30. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India?

A. Chemicals other than fertilizers B. Services sector C. Food processing D. Telecommunication

Answer - Option D
31. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is

A. 3:5 B. 2:3 C. 2:4 D. 2:4

Answer - Option B
32. Rabindranath Tagore's 'Jana Gana Mana' has been adopted as India's National Anthem. How many stanzas of the said song were adopted?

A. Only the first stanza B. The whole song C. Third and Fourth stanza D. First and Second stanza

Answer - Option A
33. 'Natya - Shastra' the main source of India's classical dances was written by

A. Nara Muni B. Bharat Muni C. Abhinav Gupt D. Tandu Muni

Answer - Option B
34. 'Dandia' is a popular dance of

A. Punjab B. Gujarat C. Tamil Nadu D. Maharashtra

Answer - Option B
35. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from

A. Rigveda B. Satpath Brahmana C. Mundak Upanishad D. Ramayana

Answer - Option C
36. Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?

A. Geet Sethi B. Wilson Jones C. Michael Ferreira D. Manoj Kothari

Answer - Option B
37. Former Australian captain Mark Taylor has had several nicknames over his playing career. Which of the following was NOT one of them?

A. Tubby B. Stodge C. Helium Bat D. Stumpy

Answer - Option D
38. Which was the 1st non Test playing country to beat India in an international match?

A. Canada B. Sri Lanka C. Zimbabwe D. East Africa

Answer - Option B
39. Track and field star Carl Lewis won how many gold medals at the 1984 Olympic games?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Eight

Answer - Option A
40. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

A. M.L.Valsamma B. P.T.Usha C. Kamaljit Sandhu D. K.Malleshwari

Answer - Option C

Direction(1-10):So let us pose the question differently — who suffers in the absence of a Uniform Civil Code? Is it Muslim women, victims of polygamy and triple talaq, as Hindutvavadi wisdom has it? But for decades, feminist legal practice has successfully used both the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 — that is available to all Indian citizens regardless of religious identity — as well as the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, to deal with polygamy and triple talaq, and to obtain maintenance, child custody and rights to matrimonial home for countless Muslim women. In addition, feminist legal activists have used the landmark Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. (2002) ruling to buttress their claim that arbitrary triple talaq is invalid. Moreover, polygamy is not exclusive to Muslims. Hindu men are polygamous too, except that because polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law, subsequent wives have no legal standing and no protection under the law. Under Sharia law, on the contrary, subsequent wives have rights and husbands have obligations towards them. If gender justice is the value we espouse, rather than monogamy per se, we would be thinking about how to protect “wives” in the patriarchal institution of marriage. “Wives” are produced through the institution of compulsory heterosexual marriage, the basis of which is the sexual division of labour. This institution is sustained by the productive and reproductive labour of women, and almost all women are exclusively trained to be wives alone. Thus, when a marriage fails to fulfil its patriarchal promise of security in return for that labour, all that most women are left with is the capacity for unskilled labour. Or they remain trapped in marriage with children to provide for, while men marry again, legally or otherwise, producing still more dependent, exploited wives and children for whom they take no responsibility. If gender justice is the point of legal reforms, the centrality and power of the compulsory heterosexual, patriarchal marriage, and the damage it can do to women, is what must be mitigated. This would mean recognising the reality of multiple “wives” as a common practice across communities, and the protection of the rights of all women in such relationships.In this sense, recent Supreme Court rulings that have granted rights to second wives in Hindumarriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women. A survey conducted by the Bharatiya Muslim Mahila Andolan, a significant voice in the debate, found that more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy in Muslim Personal Law. That is, the demand is made within the framework of codifying Muslim Personal Law, not in favour of a Uniform Civil Code, partly because there is no clarity on what a uniform code would look like, but also because the demand comes from clearly Hindutvavadi quarters which have shown that both women and minorities are expendable for them.
1. What according to the passage founded in a survey conducted by the Bharatiya Muslim Mahila Andolan?

A. polygamy is not only exclusive to Muslims B. “Wives” are produced through the institution of compulsory heterosexual marriage, the basis C. more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy D. Both A and B

Answer - Option C
Explanation - more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy in Muslim Personal Law
2. Which among the following is TRUE according to the passage given above?

A. feminist legal activists have used the landmark Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. (2012) ruling to buttress their claim that arbitrary triple talaq is invalid B. Domestic Violence Act, 2006 that is available to all Indian citizens regardless of religious identity C. polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law D. Both A and B

Answer - Option C
Explanation - polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law
3. What is the recent Supreme Court rule?

A. Under Sharia law, on the contrary, subsequent wives have rights and husbands have obligations towards them B. granted rights to second wives in Hindu marriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women C. when a marriage fails to fulfil its patriarchal promise of security in return for that labour, all that most women are left with is the capacity for unskilled labour D. Both A and C.

Answer - Option B
Explanation - granted rights to second wives in Hindu marriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women
4. Which of the following is/are true regarding Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986?

A. it deal with polygamy and triple talaq B. wives have no legal standing and no protection under the law C. and to obtain maintenance child custody and rights to matrimonial home for countless Muslim women D. both A and C

Answer - Option D
Explanation - both A and C
5. Which of the following would be a suitable title of the passage?

A. The real issue of gender justice B. Lessons from the Goa experience C. A stick to beat Muslims with D. It isn’t about women

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The real issue of gender justice
6. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “subsequent”?

A. previous B. former C. earlier D. consequent

Answer - Option D
Explanation - consequent – following as a result or effect.
7. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “buttress”?

A. stanchion B. shore C. weaken D. underpinning

Answer - Option C
Explanation - weaken – make or become weaker in power, resolve, or physical strength.
8. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “arbitrary”?

A. reasonable B. approximate C. reasoned D. circumspect

Answer - Option B
Explanation - circumspect
9. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “exploited”?

A. easily B. Apply C. Employ D. noncommercial

Answer - Option D
Explanation - noncommercial – not having a commercial objective; not intended to make a profit.
10. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “dilute”?

A. deliquesce B. concentrate C. strengthen D. thicken

Answer - Option A
Explanation - deliquesce – (of organic matter) become liquid, typically during decomposition.
11. I. Students soon grow _______ of listening to a parade of historical facts II. He has laid out all his strength and is _______. III. To attempt to perform the double act is instead to __________ between the two.

A. weary , oscillate B. distracted , reeling C. addled , floored D. baffled , mislead

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Weary – feeling or showing extreme tiredness Oscillate- move or swing back and forth in a regular rhythm
12. I. The athlete will have one final ______ before retirement II. He had a / an _______ with his neighbour’s wife III. Our horses plodded down the muddy _____.

A. comical , freaky B. witty , screwy C. droll , goofy D. fling , track

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Fling-throw or hurl forcefully Track-a rough path or road
13. The Andaman and Nicobar islands ……………………………… terra nullius, or empty space wherein government would not inscribe their authority.

A. has been historically treated as B. was historically been treated as C. have historically been treated as D. ad historically being treated as

Answer - Option C
Explanation - have historically been treated as is the best suited option
14. After falling consistently against the US Dollar for most of the year, the Rupee ……………………………. at the year-end.

A. would have managed to gain some ground B. had managed to gaining some ground C. has been managing for gaining some ground D. has managed to gain some ground

Answer - Option D
Explanation - has managed to gain some ground is the best suited alternative
15. It is a known fact that Indian states with a better Human Development Index ………………………………… voter turnouts.

A. were tending to have B. tends to have C. has been tends to have D. tend to have

Answer - Option D
Explanation - tend to have is the best suited alternative
16. A well-functioning bond market ………………………………………. expectations of all bond market participants are incorporated into the bond price.

A. had led to efficient pricing of credit risk when B. can lead to efficient pricing of credit risk as C. has been leading to efficient pricing of credit risk when D. would lead to efficient pricing of credit risk while

Answer - Option B
Explanation - can lead to efficient pricing of credit risk as is the best suited alternative
17.Nature

A. eternal B. debase C. aspect D. accord

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Nature – the basic or inherent features, character, or qualities of something
Direction (18-22): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the following questions. A. Because the story isn’t dying. B. Chanda Kochhar’s current term as ICICI Bank CEO runs till March 31, 2019. C. That means a bluechip business brand, a stock market-listed major bank will have to ride out 300-plus daily news cycles when investigators and investors will both be asking questions. D. That the ICICI board initially cleared Kochhar and issued public statements of stout support for the CEO are seeming less relevant every day. E. It’s evolving into new life forms every 2-3 days. F. So, there are 300 plus daily news cycles between now and Kochhar’s regulation term end. G. Is that really a smart strategy?
18. Which is the Fourth sentence after Rearrangement?

A. E B. F C. C D. G

Answer - Option D
19. Which is the First sentence after Rearrangement?

A. F B. A C. E D. B

Answer - Option D
20. Which is the Fifth sentence after Rearrangement?

A. C B. A C. D D. F

Answer - Option D
21. Which is the Second sentence after Rearrangement?

A. F B. D C. B D. A

Answer - Option A
22. Which is the Third sentence after Rearrangement?

A. D B. C C. A D. B

Answer - Option B
23. With borrowing costs set of rise and global trade tensions adding / to uncertainties in India’s exporters who are yet to capitalise / on the rupee weakness, policymakers will need / to eschew populism and stick at policy prudence if the tenuous momentum / is to be sustained.

A. With borrowing costs set of rise and global trade tensions adding B. to uncertainties in India’s exporters who are yet to capitalise C. on the rupee weakness, policymakers will need D. to eschew populism and stick at policy prudence if the tenuous momentum

Answer - Option C
Explanation - In 1 , replace ‘of’ with ‘off’ In 2 , replace ‘in’ with ‘for’ In 4 , replace ‘at’ with ‘to’
24. It is ironical that in spite for using toxic chemicals, / producers in the conventional non-organic / sector do not had to spend to / guarantee compliance with foods / safety regulatory requirements.

A. It is ironical that in spite for using toxic chemicals, B. producers in the conventional non-organic C. sector do not had to spend to D. guarantee compliance with foods

Answer - Option B
Explanation - In 1 , replace ‘for’ with ‘of’ In 3 , replace ‘had’ with ‘have’ In 4 , replace ‘foods’ with ‘food’
25. Couplet : sonnet : limerick

A. prose B. songs C. lyrics D. poetry

Answer - Option D
26. Kerosene : petrol : diesel

A. firewood B. engine C. fuel D. coal

Answer - Option C
27. Fly : bee : ant

A. cockroach B. spider C. termite D. insect

Answer - Option D
28. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

A. neonatal B. widespread C. predominant D. mainstrem

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The correct spelling of the word is ‘Mainstream’. It means the ideas, attitudes, or activities that are shared by most people and regarded as normal or conventional.
29. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

A. divergience B. cumbersome C. cumbrous D. enormous

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The correct spelling of the word is ‘Divergence’. It means the process or state of diverging
30. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

A. braced B. Plaguied C. invigorating D. rejuvenated

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The correct spelling of the word is ‘Plagued’. It means cause continual trouble or distress to.
31. A. venom B. abysmal C. bottomless D. antipathy

A. B – A B. C – A C. B – C D. B – D

Answer - Option C
Explanation - B – C both are synonyms. Abysmal – extremely bad; appalling.
32. A. Candid B. cunning C. surge D. patron

A. B – A B. C – A C. C – B D. B – D

Answer - Option A
Explanation - B – A both are Antonyms. Candid – truthful and straightforward; frank. Cunning – having or showing skill in achieving one’s ends by deceit or evasion.
33. A. laconic B. concise C. obscene D. indecent

A. B – A B. C – A C. C – B D. B – D

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A – B are synonyms. laconic – (of a person, speech, or style of writing) using very few words. Concise – giving a lot of information clearly and in a few words; brief but comprehensive.
Directions (34-37): Five statements given below, labeled as a,b,c,d and e. Among these, four statements are in logical error and form coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options choose the option that doesn’t fit into the theme of the passage.
34. A. Midnight has an eerie and slightly occult hold on our imaginations. B. It is the hour when magic is supposed to take place, when the old falls away and a new day arrives with one twitch of a clock’s minute-hand. C. It is not feasible for India to progress through the 21st century with 19th-century administrative systems. D. Midnight also has a sinister ring to it – it is the ‘witching hour’ when bad things happen, or when the knock on the door heralds the assassin or the secret police or the gang of abductors. E. Or, as Eliot wrote, midnight’s lunar incantations “Dissolve the floors of memory/And all its clear relations,/Its divisions and precisions”.
Answer - Option c
Explanation - Only sentence C. is different from other sentences which talks about the Administrative reforms: Rebolting the steel frame hence, correct answer will be option third.
35. A. Not only is there no one-to-one relationship between interest rates and investment, demonetisation has already done what a rate cut could hope to achieve. B. Indeed, it has done what repeated signals from RBI have failed to do. C. Add to this the fact that the US Fed is poised to raise rates at least once, if not twice, this year, liquidity is still surplus, D. there are signs of asset price bubbles in some asset markets, and the case for a rate cut becomes much weaker. E. But because it is using economic diplomacy to make more friends or at least transactional acquaintances.
Answer - Option E
36. A. Despite the positive propaganda, a lot of misinformation about GST is swirling in markets and homes. B. Shops are trying to cash in with pre-GST clearance sales, although they can claim ‘transition credits’ on tax they have already paid on their inventories when GST kicks in. C. Registered businesses are living in fear of having to file three GST returns a month, but Jaitley says after the first lot are loaded on the GST Network, the technology platform, two of the three returns will be ‘self-populating’ and require little work. D. It is also a means to break walls between different government agencies and enable best practices being shared. E. Most of all, there is fear that GST will raise prices across the board.
Answer - Option D
Explanation - only forth statement is different than others which talks about Administrative reforms: Rebolting the steel frame
37. A. Of course, the government loses no opportunity to paint things in political colours, rather than with the broad brush of public good. Now they say there are reforms, but no job creation. B. At a long Q&A on Tuesday, Jaitley complained that critics will not cease cavilling. “I think some people like to create controversies,” he said. C. “In 2014 they complained that our reforms are incremental, not big-bang. That argument has been demolished by big-bang reforms like GST, demonetization and the insolvency and bankruptcy law. D. The third reform has been the creation of an immense sense of competitive spirit among states and districts by ranking them, and increasingly selecting them for projects through a challenge method. E. ” He said a lot of jobs are being created outside the formal sector, as in self-employment.
Answer - Option D
Explanation - only forth statement is different than others which talks about competitive spirit among states and districts while other statements talk about GST.
38. This surface feels smooth.

A. This surface is felt smooth B. This surface is smooth when it is felt C. This surface when felt is smooth D. This surface is smooth as felt

Answer - Option A
39. Our task had been completed before sunset.

A. We completed our task before sunset. B. We have completed our task before sunset C. We complete our task before sunset. D. We had completed our task before sunset.

Answer - Option D
40. Why do you tell a lie?

A. Why a lie told by you? B. Why is a lie be told by you? C. Why is a lie told by you? D. Why is a lite being told you?

Answer - Option C

1. Simplify the given question and identify what value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 40% of ([latex]\frac {20}{4}[/latex]× ?) = 48

A. 20 B. 24 C. 28 D. 32

Answer - Option B
2. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

A. 45% B. 45[latex]\frac {5}{11}[/latex]% C.54[latex]\frac {6}{11}[/latex]% D.55%

Answer - Option B
Explanation -Number of runs made by running = 110 - (3 x 4 + 8 x 6) = 110 - (60) = 50. Required percentage = [latex]\frac {5}{110[/latex]X100 % = 45[latex]\frac {5}{11}[/latex]%
3. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

A. 39, 30 B. 41, 32 C. 42, 33 D. 43, 34

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Let their marks be (x + 9) and x. Then, x + 9 = [latex]\frac {56}{100}[/latex] (x + 9 + x) 25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9) => 3x = 99 => x = 33 So, their marks are 42 and 33.
4. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

A. 1 B. 14 C. 20 D. 21

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Clearly, the numbers which have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit, have squares that end in the digit 1. Such numbers from 1 to 70 are 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29, 31, 39, 41, 49, 51, 59, 61, 69. Number of such number =14 Required percentage = [latex]\frac {14}{70}[/latex] X 100% = 20%.
5. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the cycle?

A. Rs. 1090 B. Rs. 1160 C. Rs. 1190 D. Rs. 1202

Answer - Option C
Explanation - S.P. = 85% of Rs. 1400 = Rs [latex]\frac {85}{100}[/latex]x 1400% = Rs. 1190
6. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is:

A. 20 litres B. 30 litres C. 40 litres D. 60 litres

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Quantity of milk = 60 X [latex]\frac {2}{3}[/latex]litres = 40 litres Quantity of water in it = (60- 40) litres = 20 litres. New ratio = 1 : 2 Let quantity of water to be added further be x litres. Then, milk : water = [latex]\frac {40}{20 + X}[/latex] Now; [latex]\frac {40}{20 + x}[/latex] = [latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex] 20 + x = 80 => x = 60. => Quantity of water to be added = 60 litres.
7. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to [latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex][latex]\frac {2}{3}[/latex][latex]\frac {3}{4}[/latex]then the first part is:

A. Rs. 182 B. Rs. 190 C. Rs. 196 D. Rs. 204

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Given ratio = [latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex][latex]\frac {2}{3}[/latex][latex]\frac {3}{4}[/latex]= 6 : 8 : 9. 1st part = Rs.782.X [latex]\frac {6}{23}[/latex] = Rs. 204
8. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

A. Rs. 1900 B. Rs. 2660 C. Rs. 2800 D. Rs. 2840

Answer - Option B
Explanation - For managing, A received = 5% of Rs. 7400 = Rs. 370. Balance = Rs. (7400 - 370) = Rs. 7030. Ratio of their investments = (6500 x 6) : (8400 x 5) : (10000 x 3) = 39000 : 42000 : 30000 = 13 : 14 : 10 B's share = Rs. 7030 X [latex]\frac {14}{37}[/latex]= Rs. 2660.
9. Ravi, Gagan and Nitin are running a business firm in partnership. What is Gagan's share in the profit earned by them? I. Ravi, Gagan and Nitin invested the amounts in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 7. II. Nitin's share in the profit is Rs. 8750.

A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer B. Both I and II are necessary to answer C. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer D. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Let us name Ravi, Gagan and Nitin by R, G and N respectively. I. R : G : N = 2 : 4 : 7. II. N = 8750.. From I and II, we get: When N = 7, then G = 4. When N = 8750, then G = [latex]\frac {4}{7}[/latex] X 8750 = 5000.7 Thus, both I and II are needed to get the answer.
10. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

A. 6.25 B. 6.5 C. 6.75 D. 7

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Required run rate = [latex]\frac {282 - (3.2 x 10)}{40}[/latex] = [latex]\frac {250}{40}[/latex] = 6.25
11. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

A. Rs. 4991 B. Rs. 5992 C. Rs. 9855 D. 7854

Answer - Option B
12. Veena has to pay Rs. 2460 to Sita, 5 Months later at 6% SI per annum, and Gita has to pay Sita the same amount at 7.5% SI per annum after certain months. If both took the same amount of loan from Sita then Gita paid loan after how many months?

A. 3 Months B. 4 Months C. 6 Months D. 12 Months

Answer -Option B
Explanation - 2460= p + p x 6 x [latex]\frac{5}{12}[/latex]x 100 p = 2400 Now Gita 2460 = 2400+2400 x 7.5 x [latex]\frac{x}{12}[/latex] x 100 x = 4
13. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?

A. 0.172 B. 4325 C. 4475 D. 4675

Answer -Option C
Explanation - [latex]\frac{29.94}{1.45}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{299.4}{14.5}[/latex] 299.4 = ([latex]\frac{29.94}{1.45}[/latex] x [latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex])[ Here, Substitute 172 in the place of 2994/14.5[latex]\frac{2994}{14.5}[/latex] ] = [latex]\frac{172}{10}[/latex] = 17.2
14. Show That[latex]\frac{.009}{?}[/latex] ?

A. .0009 B. .09 C. .9 D. 9

Answer -Option C
Explanation - Let [latex]\frac{.009}{X}[/latex] = .01;Then x = [latex]\frac{.009}{.01}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{.9}{1}[/latex] = .9
15. 3889 + 12.952 - ? = 3854.002

A. 47.095 B. 47.752 C. 47.932 D. 47.95

Answer -Option D
Explanation - Let 3889 + 12.952 - x = 3854.002. Then x = (3889 + 12.952) - 3854.002 = 3901.952 - 3854.002 = 47.95.
16. 0.002 x 0.5 = ?

A. 0.0001 B. 0.001 C. 0.01 D. 0.1

Answer -Option B
Explanation - 2 x 5 = 10. Sum of decimal places = 4 0.002 x 0.5 = 0.001
17. The six digit number 54321A is divisible by 9 where A is a single digit whole number. Find A.

A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3

Answer - Option D
Explanation - A number is divisible by 9, when the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. Here, 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + A = 15 + A should be divisible by 9. Therefore, A = 3 gives 15+ 3 = 18 as the sum of digits, which is divisible by 9. So, answer is option D.
18. The product of 40 odd numbers is

A. even B. odd C. 625 D. Can’t say

Answer - Option
Explanation -The product of 40 odd numbers will give an odd number. So answer is option B.
19. Find the greatest three number which is multiple of 7

A. 993 B. 994 C. 995 D. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation -Greatest three digits number = 999. When 999 is divided by 7, the remainder will be 5. Required number= 999 – 5 = 994.
20. Simplify the expression using BODMAS rule (3/7) of (4/5) of 20 ([latex]{25}^{2}[/latex] - [latex]{24}^{2}[/latex])

A. 336 B. 168 C. 84 D. None of these

Answer - Option A
Explanation -(3/7) × (4/5) of 20 (625 - 576)⇒ (3/7) × (4/5) × 20 × 49 =336
21. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

A. Sunday B. Saturday C. Friday D. Wednesday

Answer - Option C
Explanation - On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday. Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days. => On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday. Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.
22. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

A. Wednesday B. Saturday C. Tuesday D. Thursday

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days. So, after 63 days, it will be Monday. After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
23. Which of the following is not a leap year?

A. 700 B. 800 C. 1200 D. 2000

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The century divisible by 400 is a leap year. The year 700 is not a leap year.
24. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?

A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Sunday

Answer - Option C
Explanation - The year 2008 is a leap year. So, it has 2 odd days. 1st day of the year 2008 is Tuesday (Given) So, 1st day of the year 2009 is 2 days beyond Tuesday. Hence, it will be Thursday.
25. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

A. Rs. 4991 B. Rs. 5991 C. Rs. 6001 D. Rs. 6001

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009. Required sale = Rs. [ (6500 x 6) - 34009 ] => Rs. (39000 - 34009) => Rs. 4991.
26. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

A. 76 kg B. 76.5 kg C. 85 kg D. None of these

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Total weight increased = (8 x 2.5) kg = 20 kg. Weight of new person = (65 + 20) kg = 85 kg.
27. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?

A. 23 years B. 24 years C. 25 years D. None of these

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Let the average age of the whole team by x years. => 11x - (26 + 29) = 9(x -1) => 11x - 9x = 46 => 2x = 46 => x = 23. So, average age of the team is 23 years.
28. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

A. 9 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less. Time taken to cover 9 km = [latex]\frac {9}{54}[/latex] X 60min = 10 min
29. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:

A. 5 kmph B. 6 kmph C. 6.25 kmph D. 7.5 kmph

Answer - Option
Explanation - Let Abhay's speed be x km/hr. Then, [latex]\frac {30}{X}[/latex] - [latex]\frac {30}{2X}[/latex] = 3 => 6x = 30 => x = 5 km/hr.
30. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:

A. 70 km/hr B. 75 km/hr C. 84 km/hr D. 87.5 km/hr

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Let the speed of two trains be 7x and 8x km/hr. Then, 8x = [latex]\frac {400}{4}[/latex] = 100 => X = [latex]\frac {100}{8}[/latex] = 12.5 Speed of first train = (7 x 12.5) km/hr = 87.5 km/hr.
31. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?

A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Let number of notes of each denomination be x. Then x + 5x + 10x = 480 => 16x = 480 => x = 30. Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.
32. If a - b = 3 and [latex]{a}^{2}[/latex] + [latex]{b}^{2}[/latex] = 29, find the value of ab.

A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 18

Answer - Option A
Explanation - 2ab = [latex]{(a}^{2}[/latex] + [latex]{b}^{2)}[/latex] - [latex]{(a-b)}^{2}[/latex] => 29 - 9 = 20 => ab = 10.
33. The sum of first five prime numbers is:

A. 11 B. 18 C. 26 D. 28

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Required sum = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11) = 28. Note: 1 is not a prime number.
34. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?

A. 240 B. 270 C. 295 D. 360

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Let the smaller number be x. Then larger number = (x + 1365). => x + 1365 = 6x + 15 => 5x = 1350 => x = 270 Smaller number = 270.
Directions (35 - 40):The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors.
35. In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the central angle ?

A. 121 B. 120 C. 122 D. 124

Answer - Option C
Explanation - 34 x 3.6 = 122.4 (since 1% = 3.6 degrees)
36. If the investment by NRI's are Rs 4,000 crore, then the investments by corporate houses and FII's together is:

A. 24,000 crore B. 24,363 crore C. 25,423 crore D. 25,643 crore

Answer - Option B
Explanation - (67/11) x 4000 = 24 363.6364
37. What percentage of the total investment is coming from FII's and NRI's ?

A. 33% B. 11% C. 44% D. 22%

Answer - Option C
Explanation - (33 + 11) = 44
38. If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore, then the investment by NRI's and Offshore funds will be (approximately) ?

A. 274,100 B. 285,600 C. 293,000 D. Cannot be determined

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Investment other than NRI and corporate houses is 33% = 335000. Also, investment by offshore funds and NRI's is equal to 27%. Hence, 27 x 335,000/33 = 274 090.909
39. If the total investment flows from FII's were to be doubled in the next year and the investment flows from all other sources had remained constant at their existing levels for this year, then what would be the proportion of FII investment in the total investment into India Bonds next year (in US $ millions) ?

A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 60 % D. 70 %

Answer - Option B
Explanation - FII's currently account for 33 out of 100. If their value is doubled and all other investments are kept constant then their new value would be 66 out of 133 = approximately equal to 50%
40. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

A.145° B.150° C.155° D. 160°

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360°. Angle traced by hour hand in 5 hrs 10 min. i.e.[latex]\frac {31}{6}[/latex] Hrs = [latex]\frac {360}{12}[/latex] x [latex]\frac {31}{6}[/latex] = 155°

1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

A. Sunday B. Saturday C. Friday D. Friday

Answer - Option C
Explanation - On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday. Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days. In 31st December 2009, it was Thursday. Thus, on 1st Jan 2010 it is Friday.
2. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

A. Wednesday B. Saturday C. Tuesday D. Thursday

Answer - Option B
Explanation - Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.
So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
3. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

A. 2014 B. 2016 C. 2017 D. 2018

Answer - Option D
Explanation - Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days.
Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.
4. Amit Khanna, born on 5th june, 1973 has done his post-graduation in Marketing Management with first class. He has secured 50 % marks in the written Test. He has been working in an organisation as a Marketing Officer for the last four years.

A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test C. not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October, 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.

Answer - Option A
5. Rohit Verma, has been working in an organisation as officer for the last ten years. His date of birth is 17th February, 1964. He has secured 60% marks in the degree examination and 40% marks in the written test.

A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test. C. not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October, 1997. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.

Answer - Option C
6. Manju sharma is a first class graduate and has done a diploma in Marketing Management. She has secured 50% marks in the written test. She was 23 years old as on 5th September, 1996.

A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks. B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test. C. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test. D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.

Answer - Option D
7. A’s mother is the only daughter of B’s father. How is B’s husband related to A?

A. Uncle B. Brother C. Father D. Grandfather

Answer - Option C
8. A is brother of B, B is the son of C, D is C’s father then what is A of D?

A. Brother B. Son C. Grandson D. Grandfather

Answer - Option C
9. A is the father of C and D is son of B. E is brother of A. If C is sister of D, how is B related to E?

A. Brother B. Sister C. Brother-in-law D. Sister-in-law

Answer - Option D
10. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?

A. Father B. Brother C. Grandfather D. Uncle

Answer - Option D
11. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group

A. Chemistry B. Geography C. Zoology D. Botany

Answer - Option B
12. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

A. Mechanic B. Engineer C. Mason D. Blacksmith E. Architect

Answer - Option A
13. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

A. Zinc B. Aluminium C. Copper D. Mercury E. Iron

Answer - Option D
14. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

A. Nephew B. Uncle C. Son D. Cousin

Answer - Option D
15. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is that lady related to that man?

A. Daughter B. Grand-daughter C. Mother D. Sister

Answer - Option D
16. If X is brother of the son of Y’s son, how is X related to Y?

A. Son B. Brother C. Cousin D. Grand-Son

Answer - Option D
17. If B says that his mother is the only daughter of A’s mother, how is A related to B?

A. Son B. Grandfather C. Uncle D. Brother

Answer - Option C
18. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that code?

A. ITMFKD B. ITNFKD C. KVOHMF D. TIMFKD

Answer - Option A
19. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written as SVHOJKD, then how would FILTERS be written in the same code?

A. EHKSDQR B. EHKUDQR C. EGKUDQR D. GJMSFST

Answer - Option B
20. How many such 5s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 3 or 4 but not immediately followed by 8 or 9? 3 5 9 5 4 5 5 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 5 7 5 5 4 5 2 3 5 1 0

A. None B. Three C. Four D. Five

Answer - Option D
21. Rohan ranks seventh from the top and twenty-sixth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

A. 31 B. 32 C. 33 D. 34

Answer - Option B
22. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?

A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 13

Answer - Option B
Explanation - This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted.
23. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next?

A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 26

Answer - Option B
24. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?

A. 22 B. 24 C. 25 D. 26

Answer - Option C
25. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

A. East B. West C. North D. South

Answer - Option C
Explanation -
26. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?

A. South-East B. South C. North D. West

Answer - Option D
Explanation -
27. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Chicken B. Snake C. Swan D. Crocodile

Answer - Option A
Explanation - All except Chicken can live in water.
28. hoose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Kiwi B. Eagle C. Emu D. Ostrich

Answer - Option B
Explanation - All except Eagle are flightless birds.
29. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Rigveda B. Yajurveda C. Atharvaveda D. Ayurveda

Answer - Option D
Explanation - All except Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures, the four Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of medicine.
30. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Curd B. Butter C. Oil D. Cheese

Answer - Option C
Explanation - All except Oil are products obtained from milk.
31. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?

A. A B. X C. S D. Z

Answer - Option B
Explanation - The seating arrangement is as follows:
32. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?

A. Between B and D B. Between B and C C. Between E and D D. Between C and E

Answer - Option B
Explanation -
33. An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same. What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete ?

A. 2/13 B. 13/40 C. Data inadequate D. None of these

Answer - Option C
34. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me three cards, you will have as many as E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as D has." A and B together have 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has two cards more than what C has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have ?

A. 22 B. 23 C. 25 D. 35

Answer - Option C
Explanation - Clearly, we have : B-3 = E ...(i) B + 3 = D ...(ii) A+B = D + E+10 ...(iii) B = C + 2 ...(iv) A+B + C + D + E= 133 ...(v) From (i) and (ii), we have : 2 B = D + E ...(vi) From (iii) and (vi), we have : A = B + 10 ...(vii) Using (iv), (vi) and (vii) in (v), we get: (B + 10) + B + (B - 2) + 2B = 133 5B = 125 B = 25.
35. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and distribute ?

A. 25 B. 35 C. 45 D. 33

Answer - Option A
Explanation - Clearly, the required number would be such that it leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3 or 4 and no remainder when divided by 5. Such a number is 25.
36. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

A. 35 B. 45 C. 33 D. 54

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The pattern is - 21, - 19, - 17, - 15,..... So, missing term = 48 - 13 = 35.
37. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Father

Answer - Option D
Explanation - The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.
38. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

A. Brother B. Nephew C. Uncle D. Son-in-law

Answer - Option A
Explanation - The father of the boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.
39. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

A. B. C. D.

Answer - Option
Explanation - The figure may be labelled as shown. The simplest triangles are AHG, AIG, AIB, JFE, CJE and CED i.e. 6 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are ABG, CFE, ACJ and EGI i.e. 4 in number. The triangles composed of three components each are ACE, AGE and CFD i.e. 3 in number. There is only one triangle i.e. AHE composed of four components. Therefore, There are 6 + 4 + 3 + 1 = 14 triangles in the given figure.
40. _ a _ b _ abaa _ bab _ abb

A. aaabb B. babab C. ababb D. babba

Answer - Option D
Explanation -The series is baa/bba/baa/bba/baa/bb. Thus, the pattern baa/bba is repeated.

1. Which if the following is not true of about Money Market

A. It is a market for short term loans B. The maturity period is anywhere between a day and a year C. Treasury Bills are not a component of Money Market D. Central Banks take part in Money Market

Answer - Option C
2. FEMA stands for

A. Foreign Exchange Money Act B. Future Exchange Money Act C. Future Exchange Management Act D. Foreign Exchange Management Act

Answer - Option D
3. The value of Indian Forex Reserves as of September 2018 was

A. 399.2Billion B. 400.1Billion C.402.2Billion D. 403.2Billion

Answer - Option A
4. The Finance Commission of India is established as per which Article of the Indian Constitution

A. Art 124 B. Art 356 C. Art 324 D. Art 280

Answer - Option D
5. Euronext is the Stock Exchange of

A. The United Kingdom B. France C. European Union D. None of the Above

Answer - Option C
6. SEBI stands for –

A. Securities and E-commerce Board of India B. Stock Exchange Board of India C. Securities and Exchange Board of India D. None of the Above

Answer - Option C
7. Which company among the following would be buying a share in the IDBI Bank?

A. LIC B. ONGC C. SBI D. NTPC

Answer - Option A
8. Currently which country in talks with the IMF for an economic bailout –

A. India B. Pakistan C. North Korea D. Sri Lanka

Answer - Option B
9. The recently recommended merger of Bank of Baroda, Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank if done will make it the –

A. d Largest Bank in India B. Largest Bank in India C. 3rd Largest Bank in India D. None of the Above

Answer - Option C
10. The BSE-SENSEX comprises of the Stock of how many companies

A. 30 B. 20 C. 10 D. 40

Answer - Option A
11. What is the Tenure of the Chairman of SEBI

A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. Not Fixed

Answer - Option D
12. As per the Time Value of Money, the Value of Money in Hand is ________ the value of Money in Future

A. Lesser than B. Greater than C. Same as D. Not related to

Answer - Option B
13. In which type of Bonds does the issuer has the option of reducing the tenor of the security?

A. Puttable Bonds B. Callable Bonds C. Zero Coupon Bonds D. Floating Rate Bonds

Answer - Option C
14. The IMF currently has

A. 189 Members B. 200 Members C. 180 Members D. 280 Menbers

Answer - Option A
15. What is the full form of NPS ?
Answer National Pension Scheme
16. NBFC deals in?
Answer - Providing Banking Services
17. Who is the author of the book My years with Rajiv and Sonia ?
Answer - R D Pardhan
18. The Mutual funds in India follow accounting standards laid by ?
Answer - SEBI
19. Interest on savings account is calculated on which basis?
Answer - Dialy Basis
20. What is the full form of IFSC ?
Answer - Indian Financial System code
21. SBI launched minor a/c for childern above 10 years named as ?
Answer - Pehil udan
22. Mutual funds regulated by ?
Answer - Securities and Exchange Board of india
23. Full form of GSLV ?
Answer - Geo - Synochorous Launch vehicle
24. HDFC erdo is which type of company ?
Answer - General Insurrance Company
20. SEBI is which kind of body?
Answer - Marketing Regulated Body
21. There are how many digits in MICR ?
Answer - Nine Character or Digits
22. BSBDA stands for ?
Answer - Basic Savings Bank deposit account
23. RBI established and nationalized in ?
Answer - Established 1935,.Natonalized in 1949
24. Cheque is a ___ instrument ?
Answer - Negotiable
25. Full Form of ATM ?
Answer - Auttomated Teller Machine
26. IFSC code consist of _____ character ?
Answer - Eleven
27. CRISIL is a ?
Answer - Credit Rating agency
28. Headquarter of Allahabad Bank is ?
Answer - Kolkata
29. The extended date for pre-2005 bank notes ?
Answer - 31st Dec 2015
30. Who is the president of BRICS Bank ?
Answer - K V Kamath
31. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by:
Answer - RBI
32. Name of Union Territory which as recently presented a tax free budget of Rs. 6,100 crore for the union territory:
Answer - Puducheery
33. Maximum age for retirement for MD/CEO of all private banks is:
Answer - 70years
34. 'Financial Exclusion' is:
Answer - Lack of Access to Financial Services
35. Vijay Mallya as 'Willful Defaulter' is declared by:
Answer - United Bank of India
36. Mutual Funds are regulated by:
Answer - Securities and Exchange Board of India
37. To solve the problems of Balance of Payments of member countries is function of:
Answer - IMF
38. Which term is not associated with banking operations:
Answer - Equator
39. U.T.I. officially changed into:
Answer - Axis Bank
40. Regulatory Authority for Regional Rural Bank is of:
Answer - RBI and NABARD