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NABARD Grade B Prelims Practice Test

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NABARD Grade B Prelims Practice Test

shape Introduction

Preliminary Examination is important to qualify for the Mains Examination. NABARD Grade B Prelims Practice & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

S.No Name of Test Number of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
1. Test of Reasoning 20 20 120 Minutes
2 English Language 40 40
3. Computer Knowledge 20 20
4. General Awareness 20 20
5. Quantitative Aptitude 20 20
6. Economic & Social Issues (with focus on Rural India) 40 40
7. Agriculture & Rural Development (with focus on Rural India) 420 40
Total 200 200

shape Samples

1. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ... What number should come next?
    A. 108 B. 148 C. 162 D. 216

Answer: Option C
2. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug.
    A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people. B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases. C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew. D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.

Answer: Option C
3. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
    A. winter B. bear C. dream D. sleep

Answer: Option D
4. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the school yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as possible, so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the recess aides report to the principal?
    A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers. B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack. C. Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last basket scored. D. Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on school grounds.

Answer: Option B
Direction Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides the best example of the given definition.
5. Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?
    A. The ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through March. B. Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors. C. Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to interview for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the newspaper. D. Doug's ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m. during the summer months.

Answer: Option C
Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners. II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
    A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows

Answer: Option D
Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as (A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect; (B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect; (C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes; (D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and (E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
6. Statements: I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months. II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months.
    A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Answer: Option D
Direction: In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.
7. SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL
    A. CMN B. UJI C. VIJ D. IJT

Answer: Option C
Direction: Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.
8. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She wants the evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather be in jeans at a baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant below should Eileen choose?
    A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa. B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best tacos in town. C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty. Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon. D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball clubhouse in honor of the owner, Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star.

Answer: Option D
Direction: Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.
9. harvest
    A. autumn B. stockpile C. tractor D. crop

Answer: Option D
10. desert
    A. cactus B. arid C. oasis D. flat

Answer: Option B
Direction: The given sentence has been divided into 4 parts out of which a part may contain grammatical error. Select the part having grammatical error as answer else mark option 'e' i.e. (No correction required)' as the answer.
1. I found that dress (1) /more better than(2) / any other dress (3) / in the case.(4)
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: Option B
2. Mumbai is famous ——————— its textile mills.
    A. In B. For C. On D. At

Answer: Option B
3. Choose or find odd word: Kiwi , Eagle , Emu , Penguin , Ostrich
    A. Kiwi B. Eagle C. Emu D. Penguin

Answer: Option B
Direction: Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
4. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.
    A. with B. over C. on D. round

Answer: Option C
Direction: Choose the word closest in meaning to the word in bold letters.
5. CORPULENT
    A. Lean B. Gaunt C. Emaciated D. Obese

Answer: Option D
1. Which of the following countries has agreed to accept the payment of export of oil and petroleum products to India, in rupee terms instead of dollar or any other currency?
    A. Kuwait B. UAE C. Iran D. Iraq

Answer: Option C
2. As per the newspaper reports Government of India has finally agreed to purchase advanced MRMRs for its naval forces. What are this MRMRs?
    A. Aircrafts B. Warships C. Submarines D. Radar Systems

Answer: Option A
3. Which of the following agencies/organizations decided to cancel 122 Licenses of 2G Spectrum issued by the Government of India to various companies and asked the Government to do the process afresh?
    A. comptroller and auditor general of India B. the supreme court of India C. telecom regulatory authority of India D. confederation of Indian Industry

Answer: Option B
4. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of a country at present and has also won the Presidential Elections held in March 2012? (He had been President of the country twice in the past. This will be his third term as President. He will join office in July 2012),
    A. Mohammed Waheed Hassan B. Abd. Rabbo Mansour Hadi C. Daniel Ortega D. Vladimir Putin

Answer: Option D
5. Which of the following countries approved a new constitution of the country in a referendum through secret voting held in February 2012?
    A. Libya B. Iraq C. Iran D. Syria

Answer: Option D
1. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?
    A. 67578 B. 56785 C. 45678 D. 65889

Answer: Option D
2. What is the amount for a sum of money Rs.7500 at 6% rate of interest C.I. for 2 years?
    A. Rs. 8427 B. Rs. 8417 C. Rs. 8400 D. Rs. 8390

Answer: Option A
3. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
    A. 6.25 B. 6.5 C. 6.75 D. 7

Answer: Option A
4. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
    A. 15 B. 16 C. 18 D. 25

Answer: Option B
5. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
    A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 690 C. Rs. 698 D. Rs. 700

Answer: Option C
1. National Education Policy was introduced in ………….
    A. 1968 B. 1986 C. 1996 D. none

Answer: Option A
2. The low level of Literacy rate hinders the ………………… development of a country
    A. Industrial B. Agricultural C. Economic D. none

Answer: Option C
3. World Literacy Day is celebrated on ……………………
    A. 8th September B. 2nd October C. 15th July D. none

Answer: Option A
4. The First Five Year Plan was ……………… oriented
    A. Industry B. Technology C. Agriculture D. none

Answer: Option C
5. ………………………. was abolished by the Act of 1829
    A. Infanticide B. Child Marriage C. Sati D. none

Answer: Option D
1. What is Animal Husbandry?
    A. Animal husbandry is an art of breeding and rearing animals for the benefit of human society. B. Animal Husbandry is the use of animals in agriculture. C. Animal Husbandry is a way of selling animals in the animal fairs D. Animal Husbandry is the use of animals in an industrial area.

Answer: Option A
2. Which one of the below options is/ are correct
    A. There are 37 recognized breeds of cows In India, B. There are 13 breeds of buffaloes, C. There are 39 breeds of sheep, D. There are 24 breeds of goats,

Answer: Option A
3. Which Live Stock Census was carried out in 2012?
    A. 19th B. 20th C. 15th D. 14th

Answer: Option A
4. India has how much land for agriculture?
    A. 166 Million Hectares B. 266 Million Hectares C. 300 Million Hectares D. 100 Million Hectares

Answer: Option A
5. Who is Union Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Minister?
    A. Radha Mohan Singh B. Smriti Irani C. Suresh Prabhu D. Arun Jaitley

Answer: Option A