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IBPS Clerk Mains Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

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IBPS Clerk Mains Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

shape Introduction

IBPS Clerk 2018 – Main Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 160 minutes, 4 Sections, a total of 190 questions, a Maximum score of 200 marks. The 4 Sections are timed: General/Financial Awareness, General English, Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, Quantitative Aptitude. The section wise details are as shown below.

shape Pattern

S.No Sections No. of Questions Maximum marks Time allocate
1 General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 minutes
2 General English 40 40 35 minutes
3 Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 50 60 45 minutes
4 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 minutes
Total 190 200 160 minutes
The Reasoning and Computer Aptitude, section in the IBPS Clerk Main Examination has a total of 50 questions, Maximum marks of 60 and a duration of 45 minutes. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Main Exam of IBPS Clerk Reasoning and Computer Aptitude.

shape Syllabus

Reasoning – IBPS Clerk – Main Examination
S.No Topics
1 Puzzles
2 Seating Arrangements
3 Direction Sense
4 Blood Relation
5 Syllogism
6 Order and Ranking
7 Coding-Decoding
8 Machine Input-Output
9 Inequalities
10 Alpha-Numeric-Symbol Series
11 Data Sufficiency
12 Logical Reasoning (Passage Inference, Statement and Assumption, Conclusion, Argument)


shape Samples

Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. They are sitting in a straight line facing North. They all have different age – 10, 14, 16, 23, 30, 38, 46 and 58
2 people are sitting between C and one aged 58 years. The one whose age is 16 years is sitting second to the left of C. B is sitting immediate to the left of the one whose age is 58 years. One person is sitting between H and one whose age is 58 years. Either of H or one aged 58 years is sitting at any extreme end. There is a difference of 6 years between the ages of F and G. and 2 persons are sitting between them. The one whose age is 14 years is sitting second to left of D. D is not sitting at any extreme end. There is one person between sitting between F and one aged 46 years. A is immediate neighbor of the one whose age is 46 years. E and one aged 23 are immediate neighbors. H is older than A
1. Who is 30 years old?
    A) G B) C C) B D) A E) D
Answer: D
2. G is sitting immediate right to
    A) A B) One aged 14 years C) E D) D E) One aged 46 years
Answer: E
3. How many persons are sitting between the ones having age difference of 4 years?
    A) One B) Two C) Other than given in options D) None E) Four
Answer: D
4. What is the age difference between F and D?
    A) 8 years B) 7 years C) 5 years D) 6 years E) None of these
Answer: B
5. What is the age of H?
    A) 46 years B) 23 years C) 38 years D) 58 years E) 16 years
Answer: C
Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Eight persons S, R, H, I, T, G, Q, F are sitting in a line, some of them are facing north some of them are facing south. S is second from one end. R is sitting third to the left from S. Neighbor of R facing south. I do not sit at any of the extreme ends. Immediate neighbors of I face north. Immediate neighbors of H faces south. F is third to the left of T. Q sits immediate left of G.
1. Which of the following statements is true regarding H?
    A) H faces south B) The immediate neighbors of H is S and F C) Three persons sit between H and I. D) Only one person sits between H and F E) None of the Above
Answer: B
2. Who among the following sits between T and H?
    A) G B) Q C) S D) F G) R
Answer: C
3. What is the position of Q with respect to H?
    A) Third to the right B) Second to the left C) Immediate left D) Third to the left E) Cannot be determined
Answer: E
4. Who among the following facing North?
    A) T B) S C) H D) F E) R
Answer: E
5. How many persons are there between H and Q?
    A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) More than three
Answer: C
1. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
    A) East B) West C) North D) South
Answer: C
2. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?
    A) North B) South C) South-East D) None of these
Answer: D
3. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?
    A) North-East B) North-West C) South-East D) South-West
Answer: C
4. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
    A) West B) South C) North-East D) South-West
Answer: D
5. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?
    A) South-East B) South C) North D) West
Answer: D
1. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
    A) Brother B) Uncle C) Cousin D) Father
Answer: D
2. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
    A) Q - N + M x P B) P + S x N - Q C) P - M + N x Q D) Q - S % P
Answer: C
3. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
    A) Brother B) Sister C) Nephew D) Cannot be determined
Answer: D
4. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
    A) M - N x C + F B) F - C + N x M C) N + M - F x C D) M x N - C + F
Answer: D
5. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
    A) Brother B) Nephew C) Uncle D) Son-in-law
Answer: A
Directions to Solve: In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
      A) If only (I) conclusion follows B) If sonly (II) conclusion follows C) If either (I) or (II) follows D) If neither (I) nor (II) follows and E) If both (I) and (II) follow.

1. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions:
      I) Some actors are dancers. II) No singer is actor.
    A) Only (I) conclusion follows B) Only (II) conclusion follows C) Either (I) or (II) follows D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows E) Both (I) and (II) follow
Answer: A
2. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes. Conclusions:
      I) All the flutes are instruments. II) All the harmoniums are flutes.
    A) Only (I) conclusion follows B) Only (II) conclusion follows C) Either (I) or (II) follows D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows E) Both (I) and (II) follow
Answer: B
3. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes. Conclusions:
      I) Some mangoes are green. II) Tixo is a yellow.
    A) Only (I) conclusion follows B) Only (II) conclusion follows C) Either (I) or (II) follows D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows E) Both (I) and (II) follow
Answer: D
4. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples. Conclusions:
      I) All the apples are parrots. II) Some ants are apples.
    A) Only (I) conclusion follows B) Only (II) conclusion follows C) Either (I) or (II) follows D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows E) Both (I) and (II) follow
Answer: B
5. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens. Conclusions:
      I) Some pens are pencils. II) Some pens are papers.
    A) Only (I) conclusion follows B) Only (II) conclusion follows C) Either (I) or (II) follows D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows E) Both (I) and (II) follow
Answer: E
1. Saran is eighteenth from the right end in a row of 50 boys. What is his position from the left end?
    A) 32 B) 35 C) 33 D) 34 E) None of these
Answer: C
2. In a class of 90, where girls are twice that of boys, Shridar ranked fourteenth from the top, if there are 10 girls ahead of Shridar, how many boys are after him in rank?
    A) 23 B) 26 C) 25 D) 22 E) None of these
Answer: B
3. Sita ranks nineteeth in a class of 68 students. What is her rank from last?
    A) 50 B) 51 C) 49 D) 48 E) None of these
Answer: A
4. Raji is 5 ranks ahead of Raj in a class of 46 students. If Raj’s rank is twelth from the last, what is Raji’s rank from the start?
    A) 29 B) 31` C) 28 D) 30 E) None of these
Answer: D
5. Karthick is 6 ranks ahead of Subash who ranks sixteenth in a class of 42.What is Karthick’s rank from the last?
    A) 33 B) 32 C) 31 D) 30 E) None of these
Answer: A
1. In a certain code IMTITJU is written as TMIIUJT. How is TEMREMP written in that code?
    A) METERPM B) METRPME C) ETRMMEP D) MTERPME
Answer: B
2. In a certain code 'INACTIVE' is written as VITCANIE. How is 'COMPUTER' written in that code?
    A) UTEPMOCR B) MOCPETUR C) ETUPMOCR D) PMOCRETU
Answer: C
3. In a certain code STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. How will SOURCES be written in that code?
    A) SOURCES B) SUORECS C) SRUOCES D) SOURSEC
Answer: B
4. In a certain code LEARNING is written as LGNINRAE. How will SURPRISE be written in that code?
    A) ESRIPRUS B) RUSEPSIR ` C) SESIRPRU D) ESIRPRSU
Answer: C
5. If PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 and RISK is coded as 2398, how is RIVETS coded?
    A) 232679 B) 243769 C) 234769 D) 234976
Answer: C
Directions (1-5): Study the given information and answer the questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 19 ear 24 an 18 nose 25 our 32 mind 9 box Step I: 10 19 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind box an Step II: box 10 ear 24 18 nose 25 our 32 mind an 20 Step III: 26 box 10 24 18 nose our 32 mind an 20 ear Step IV: mind 26 box 10 24 nose our 32 an 20 ear 17 Step V: 23 mind 26 box 10 our 32 an 20 ear 17 nose Step VI: our 23 mind 26 box 10 an 20 ear 17 nose 31 And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 17 and 32 on 12 never 29 time 7 put 4 fix
1. In which step the elements ‘32 12 time’ found in the same order?
    A) Step I B) Step II C) Step III D) Step IV E) Step VI
Answer: D
2. In step III, which of the following element would be at 2nd to the left of 5th from the right end?
    A) 12 B) time C) put D) 4 E) and
Answer: A
3. How many step required completing the above arrangement?
    A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Seven E) None of these.
Answer: E
4. Which of the following would be the step V after arrangement?
    A) 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time 18 and never 3 put B) on 11 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put C) 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never put 3 D) 11 on 30 fix 8 32 time and 18 never 3 put E) None of these
Answer: D
5. In step VI, ‘time’ is related to ‘on’ and ‘never’ is related to ‘put’. In the same way ‘fix’ is related to?
    A) time B) 11 C) on D) and E) None of these
Answer: D
Directions (Q1-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, #, $ and ⋆ are used with the following meaning illustrated.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
1. Statement: U ⋆ V, V @ W, W % Z Conclusions:
      I. Z @ U II. W # U III. Z # V
    A) Only I and II are true B) Only II and III are true C) Only I and III are true D) All are true E) None of these
Answer: B
2. Statement: N % R, R # Q, Q © S Conclusions:
      I. N @ Q II. R © S III. S @ R
    A) Only I is true B) Only II is true C) Only III is true D) Only I and II are true E) None of these
Answer: C
3. Statements: A © B, B # C, C ⋆ D Conclusions:
      I. D @ B II. D % A III. C ⋆ A
    A) Only I is true B) Only II is true C) Only III is true D) Only I and II are true E) All are true
Answer: A
4. Statements: U @ P, P # S, S © V Conclusions:
      I. S # V II. S % U III. V ⋆ P
    A) Only I is true B) Only II is true C) Only III is true D) Only I and II are true E) None is true
Answer: E
5. Statement: P ⋆ Q, Q @ S, S % V Conclusions:
      I. V # Q II. S # P III. P @ V
    A) Only I is true B) Only I and II are true C) Only II and III are true D) Only I and III are true E) All are true
Answer: E
Directions (1-5): Study the following arrangement and answer questions given: B L $ 4 # G A 8 P X Y 7 % β N * S 2 @ D M = 9 * 5 C F 6
1. How many such numbers are there which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by letter?
    A) Four B) Two C) None D) One E) Three
Answer: B
2. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, then which is ninth from the right end?
    A) N B) 2 C) 7 D) S E) M
Answer: D
3. If all the numbers immediately after symbols are added, what will be the sum?
    A) 26 B) 20 C) 15 D) 22 E) 18
Answer: E
4. If every fourth element in the above series from the left end is omitted then which among the following is fourth to the right of ninth from the right end?
    A) 5 B) 9 C) M D) = E) @
Answer: D
5. How many such vowels are there which is immediately followed by consonants and immediately preceded by number?
    A) Four B) Two C) None D) One E) Three
Answer: C
Directions (1-5): Each of the questions below consist of a question & two statements numbered I & II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements & give answer.
    A) Statement II & III are sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question B) If all the statement I, II, III together are not sufficient to answer the question C) If statements I & II is sufficient to answer the question, but statement III is not sufficient to answer the question. D) If all the statement I, II, & III taken together are sufficient to answer the question. E) If statement I & III are sufficient to answer the question, but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

1) Who among A, B, C, D, E & F is the tallest?
    i) Only two of them are taller than C ii) D is shorter than F Iii) C is taller than A, but shorter than F & B
Answer: B
2) How is M related to O?
    i) J is the sister of K, who is the son of M. L is the brother of M & R is brother of O ii) L is the brother of M. M is the son of Q iii) M is the son of R, who is the husband of Q
Answer: E
3) Who amongst S, T, U, V, W & X is the tallest person?
    i) X is taller than W but smaller than U. U is smaller than T. ii) U is taller than S & W but smaller than T. T is not the tallest person. iii) V is taller than T & U. W is not the smallest person.
Answer: E
4) In which direction point D with respect to point M?
    i) Point M is towards west of point E, who is the north-west of point P ii) Point P is to the east of point S. Point M is the north of point S iii) Point C is the west of point D. Point D is the west of point S.
Answer: A
Directions (Q. 1-5): Below is given passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer if you thinkDefinitely True” The inference properly follows from the statement of facts given. “Probably True” The inference may be true in the light of Directions (Q. 1-5): Below is given passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer if you thinkDefinitely True” The inference properly follows from the statement of facts given. “Probably True” The inference may be true in the light of the given facts but not definitely true. “Data Inadequate” From the facts it cannot be said whether the inference is likely to be true or false. “Probably False” The inference is probably false in the light of the facts given though not definitely false “Definitely False” The inference cannot possibly by drawn from the facts given or it contradicts. The explosive growth in demand for castor oil abroad is bringing about a silent change in the castor seed economy of Gujarat. The state is well on its way to emerge as a strong manufacturing centre for castor oil relegating to background its current status as a big trading centre. The business prospects for export of castor oil which is converted into value-added derivatives are so good that a number of castor seed crushing units have already come up and others are on the anvil.
1. Gujarat used to supply castor seeds to the manufacturing units in the past.
    A) Definitely true B) Probably true C) Definitely false D) Probably false
Answer: A
2. Gujarat is the only state in India which produces castor seed.
    A) Definitely false B) Data inadequate C) Probably false D) Definitely true
Answer: B
3. India can produce enough castor oil to export after meeting the domestic demand.
    A) Probably true B) Probably false C) Definitely false D) Data inadequate
Answer: D
4. The production of castor oil has become a profitable business proposition.
    A) Probably false B) Data inadequate C) Definitely false D) Probably true
Answer: D
5. Manufacturing castor oil guarantees more surplus than selling castor seeds.
    A) Probably false B) Probably true C) Definitely true D) Data inadequate
Answer: D

shape Syllabus

Reasoning – IBPS Clerk – Computer Aptitude
S.No Topics
1 History and Generation of Computers
2 Introduction to Computer Organisation
3 Computer Memory
4 Computer Hardware and I/O Devices
5 Computer Software
6 Computer Languages
7 Operating System
8 Computer Network
9 Internet
10 MS Office Suit and Short cut keys
11 Basics of DBMS
12 Number System and Conversions
13 Computer and Network Security


shape Questions

1. Which is the first Mechanical calculator?
    A. Abacus B. Napier’s Bones C. Pascaline D. Stepped Reckoner E. None of these
Answer: A
2. Which of the following device used ‘set of beads’ to represent the unit of data?
    A. ENIAC B. EDVAC C. Abacus D. MARK - I E. None of these
Answer: C
3. Rabdologia was the technology used for calculation purpose introduced in___.
    A. 1617 B. 1801 C. 1824 D. 1901 E. 1917
Answer: A
4. Pascaline is also known as-
    A. mechanical machine B. adding machine C. division machine D. difference machine E. None of these
Answer: B
5. Which was the computer designed by Babbage?
    A. Analytical engine B. Arithmetic machine C. Donald knuth D. All of the above E. None of these
Answer: A
1. Which cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between the two platforms and it is particularly valuable for dynamic or highly changeable workloads?
    A. Dynamic Cloud B. Advance Cloud C. Hybrid Cloud D. Sharing Cloud E. Combined Cloud
Answer: c
2. Which among the following operation facilitate the operating system to allow more than one process to be loaded into the executable memory at a time and loaded process shares the CPU using time multiplexing?
    A. Process Scheduling B. Device queues C. Execution D. IPO Cycle E. Multiplexing
Answer: a
3. Which among the following is not a function of Star Topology?
    A. It facilitates centralized management of the network, through the use of the central computer. B. Hub acts as a repeater for data flow. C. Only that node is affected which has failed, rest of the nodes can work smoothly. D. It transmits data only in one direction. E. Easy to add another computer to the network.
Answer: d
4. Which among the following option is not available for indentation of text in MS Word?
    A. Left B. Hanging C. Center D. Right E. Justify
Answer: b
5. What is the IEEE Standard for Wireless LAN?
    A. 802.11 B. 802.3 C. 802.14 D. 802.15 E. 802.4
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is the correct binary form of 4A2.8D16 ?
    A. [latex]010010100010.10001101_{2}[/latex] B. [latex]010110100010.11101101_{2}[/latex] C. [latex]011110100010.10001101_{2}[/latex] D. [latex]010010111110.10001101_{2}[/latex] E. None of these
Answer: A
2. Which of the following is not a valid binary number?
    A. 00000 B. 11111 C. FFFFF D. 101010 E. 010101
Answer: C
3. If ∆ represents ‘1’ and ○ represents ‘0’. What will be the one’s complement of - ○∆∆○○∆?
    A. 011001 B. 100110 C. 101010 D. 000000 E. 111111
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is a correct set of hexadecimal digits?
    A. 102n B. a19fk C. ZOLO12 D. FACE E. 0101xx
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is a Logical Conjunction?
    A. AND gate B. OR gate C. NOT gate D. both(a) and (b) E. All of the above
Answer: A
1. A (n) __________ device is any hardware component that allows you to enter data and instruction into a computer.
    A. interaction B. input C. communications D. output E. terminal
Answer: B
2. The device that can both feed data into and accept data from a computer is called _________.
    A. ALU B. CPU C. input-output device D. All of these E. None of these
Answer: C
3. The insert, cap lock and num lock are all examples of __________ keys.
    A. Control B. Function C. Toggle D. Shortcut E. None of these
Answer: C
4. Speed of line printer is specified in terms of __________.
    A. Line per minute B. Character per minute C. Dot per minute D. All of these E. None of these
Answer: B
5. Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text?
    A. DPI B. OCR C. OMR D. MICR E. None of the above
Answer: B
1. Which among the following is Android’s latest OS?
    A. Gingerbread B. Oreo C. Nougat D. Lollipop E. Marshmallow
Answer: B
2. Which among the following statement is not true about NFC or NFC Devices?
    A. NFC is a set of communication protocols B. NFC devices are used in contactless payment systems C. NFC tags are passive data stores which can be read, and under some circumstances written to, by an NFC device. D. NFC has a significant disadvantage over Bluetooth i.e. the longer set-up time. E. NFC tags can be custom-encoded by their manufacturers
Answer: D
3. Which among the following is software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it?
    A. Desktop Virtualization B. Augmented Reality C. Social Networking D. Real-Time OS E. CSMA/CA
Answer: A
4. e-Governance is generally understood as the use of Information and Communication Technology at all the level of the Government to provide services to the citizens. Which among the following are the types of interactions in e-Governance?
    A. G2B B. G2C C. G2E D. G2G E. All of the above
Answer: E
5. Which among the following is a technology commonly used in mobile devices to recreate the sense of touch by applying forces, vibrations, or motions to the user?
    A. Tactile Haptics B. Biometrics C. Virtualization D. Data Mining E. None of the above
Answer: A
1. Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a simple, very flexible text format derived from _______.
    A. HTML B. SGML C. CSS D. FTP E. HTTP
Answer: B
2. ________ is software which has its source code freely available for use, viewing, modification, and redistribution.
    A. Free Software B. Operating System C. Open Source D. Application Software E. System Software
Answer: C
3. Which among the following are Intelligent Personal Assistant by Google, Microsoft and Apple respectively?
    A. Cortana, Google Now, Siri B. Niki, Siri, Wizard C. Teno, Wizard, Cortana D. Google Now, Cortana, Siri E. Cortana, Hazel, Siri
Answer: D
4. Which among the following refers to the capability provided to the consumer to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-created or acquired applications created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the provider?
    A. PaaS B. SaaS C. IaaS D. SECaaS E. MBaaS
Answer: A
5. Which among the following may refer to a URL of a Web Page?
    A. https:// www.google.com B. https:// www.news/updates.html C. D:\Study_Notes D. bankers.adda@gmail.com E. select*from table
Answer: B
1. Creating a job queue is a function of
    A. Spooler B. Interperator C. Complier D. Drive
Answer: A
2. Main function of shared memory is:
    A. to use primary memory efficently B. to do intra process communication C. to do inter process communication D. none of above
Answer: C
3. Which among following scheduling algorithms give minimum average waiting time
    A. FCFS B. SJF C. Round robin D. On priority
Answer: B
4. Which is single user operating system
    A. MS-DOS B. UNIX C. XENIX D. LINUX
Answer: A
5. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside the critical section is
    A. 12 B. 3 C. 1 D. 0
Answer: C
1. LAN stands for
    A. Location access network B. Local anti network C. Local area network D. Location area network
Answer: C
2. WAN stands for
    A. Wide area network B. World area network C. Wonder area network D. None of these
Answer: B
3. A __________ is a group of independent computers attached to one another through communication media.
    A. Internet B. E-mail C. Network D. All the above
Answer: C
4. The first network to implement TCP/IP are
    A. ARPANET B. INTERNET C. MANET D. MODEM
Answer: A
5. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches?
    A. Crossover cable B. Straight-through C. Crossover with a router in between the two switches D. Crossover with a CSU/DSU
Answer: A
1. Which of the following is spreadsheet program?
    A. Ms-word B. Ms-power point C. Ms-excel D. Ms-access
Answer: C
2. Which is the widely used word processing software in computers?
    A. Ms-word B. Ms-power point C. Ms-excel D. Ms-access
Answer: D
3. Ms excel is used for creating
    A. Presentations B. Documents C. Sending mails D. Spreadsheets
Answer: D
4. Ms-power point is a ________ language
    A. Document B. Spreadsheet C. Presentation D. programmatic
Answer: C
5. The combination of row and column is called ______________
    A. Line B. Colum C. Cell D. Row
Answer: C
1. A relational database consists of a collection of:
    A. Tables B. Fields C. Records D. Keys E. None of the above
Answer: A
2. The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a table.
    A. Record B. Column C. Tuple D. Key E. Relation
Answer: B
3. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that attribute.
    A. Domain B. Relation C. Set D. Schema E. Algebra
Answer: A
4. Database __________, which is the logical design of the database, and the database _______, which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant in time.
    A. Instance, Schema B. Relation, Schema C. Relation, Domain D. Schema, Instance E. Key, Domain
Answer: D
5. In the architecture of a database system external level is the:
    A. physical level B. logical level C. conceptual level D. view level E. data level
Answer: D
1. What will be the code for one’s complement of ∆∆○∆?
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6
Answer: A
2. Which of the following number systems is considered as a base-10 number system?
    A. Decimal number system B. Binary number system C. Octal number system D. Hexadecimal number system E. None of these
Answer: A
3. The hexadecimal number system represents symbols __________ and __________.
    A. 0-9, A-E B. 0-9, A-F C. 1-10, A-E D. 1-10, A-F E. None of these
Answer: B
4. __________ are the gates that can be used to implement any type of Boolean logic.
    A. OR gates B. Universal gates C. NAND gates D. Exclusive-NOR gates E. AND gates
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a correct set of hexadecimal digits?
    A. 102n B. a19fk C. ZOLO12 D. FACE E. 0101xx
Answer: D
1. An error in computer program is called:
    A. Hacking B. Virus C. Bug D. None of These
Answer: C
2. ______was the first technique that posed a serious threat to virus scanners:
    A. Vulnerability Code B. Polymorphic Code C. Antimorphic Code D. None of These
Answer: B
3. A/an ______ is a system susceptibility or flaw:
    A. Error B. Vulnerability C. Virus D. None of These
Answer: B
4. _______vulnerability is one for which at least one working attack exists:
    A. Democratic B. Exploitable C. Dominative D. None of These
Answer: B
5. CVE stands for:
    A. Common Vulnerabilities Exposures B. Cyber Vulnerabilities Exposures C. Cycolic Vulnerabilities Exposures D. None of These
Answer: A
IBPS Clerk Mains Reasoning – Study Guide – Click Here IBPS Clerk Mains Computer Aptitude – Study Guide – Click Here

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