IBPS CLERK - SPLessons

IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Test

Home > > Tutorial
SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Test

IBPS Clerk Mains Practice Test

shape Introduction

Mains Examination is important to qualify the provisional allotment. IBPS Clerk Mains Practice & Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

S.No Sections No. of Questions Maximum marks Time allocate
1 General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 minutes
2 General English 40 40 35 minutes
3 Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 50 60 45 minutes
4 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 minutes
Total 190 200 160 minutes

shape Syllabus

[Click Here] - For IBPS Clerk Main Exam Syllabus

shape Samples

1. The Government of Tamil Nadu and the World Bank signed a loan agreement for the Tamil Nadu Irrigated Agriculture Modernization Project to promote climate resilient agriculture technologies. What is the amount of the loan that was sanctioned?
    (a) $500 million (b) $450 million (c) $406 million (d) $318 million (e) $302 million
Answer: Option (d)
2. Jai Ram Thakur took oath as the 6th Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh. He has replaced ___________.
    (a) Prem Kumar Dhumal (b) Virbhadra Singh (c) Shanta Kumar (d) Kaul Singh Thakur (e) Dhani Ram Shandil
Answer: Option (b)
3. Name the state government that has launched a free household power connection scheme for the poor in the state to mark Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s birth anniversary.
    (a) Uttarakhand (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan (e) Karnataka
Answer: Option (c)
4. Legendary musician Robbie Malinga passed away recently. He was from which country?
    (a) South Africa (b) The USA (c) Australia (d) Netherlands (e) Canada
Answer: Option (a)
5. Which Act was framed specially to deal with Non-Performing Assets (NPA)?
    (a) Banking Regulation Act 1949 (b) Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) 1999 (c) Industrial Disputes Act 1947 (d) SARFAESI Act, 2002 (e) None of the given options is true
Answer: Option (d)
6. In Notice Money Market, the tenor of the transactions is from ________
    (a) 2-7 days (b) 2-14 days (c) 2-21 days (d) 2-28 days (e) 2-90 days
Answer: Option (b)
7. An Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) in India is associated with-
    (a) UCPDC (b) DICGC (c) NPA (d) Home Loan (e) None of the given options is true
Answer: Option (c)
8. Name the country which is hosting a world chess tournament for the first time.
    (a) Iraq (b) Iran (c) Azerbaijan (d) The UAE (e) Saudi Arabia
Answer: Option (e)
9. Which among the following authority has allowed Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL)- manufactured Dornier 228 to be used for civilian flights?
    (a) Rajiv Gandhi Bhawan Airports Authority (b) Airports Authority of India (c) Defense Research and Development Organization (d) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (e) None of the given options is true
Answer: Option (d)
10. Sectoral regulator IRDAI has issued regulations for insurance firms to carry out offshore business from Gujarat-based GIFT International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). Who is the present Chairman of IRDAI?
    (a) S Christopher (b) T. Suvarna Raju (c) T.S. Vijayan (d) N. R. Vijayan (e) P Simharao
Answer: Option (c)
11. Who is the present Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL)?
    (a) S Christopher (b) T. Suvarna Raju (c) Vikram Singh (d) Arun Sinha (e) Ajay Kumar Thakur
Answer: Option (b)
12. Capital of Bhutan is-
    (a) Thimphu (b) Bujumbura (c) Yerevan (d) Minsk (e) Ottawa
Answer: Option (a)
13. Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following Indian state?
    (a) Kerela (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Odisha (e) Rajasthan
Answer: Option (c)
14. International Women’s Day is observed on which of the following date?
    (a) April 7 (b) April 27 (c) March 8 (d) February 28 (e) March 24
Answer: Option (c)
15. Who among the following is the Crowned Prince of Saudi Arabia?
    (a) Nayef bin Abdulaziz (b) Hassa bint Ahmed Al Sudairi (c) Baraka Al Yamaniyah (d) Mohammed bin Salman (e) Ibn Saud
Answer: Option (d)
Directions (1-5): Which of the following phrases (a), (b), (c), (d) given below in the statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.
1. Many of my friends, call for me to congratulate.
    (a) Call up (b) Call out (c) Call on (d) Call off (e) No correction required
Answer: Option (a)
2. I am sure my classmates will bear away my statement.
    (a) Bear on (b) Bear with (c) Bear out (d) Bear upon (e) No correction required
Answer: Option (c)
3. Always try to keep on the standard of life even in the face of crises.
    (a) Keep off (b) Keep up (c) Keep up with (d) Keep from (e) No correction required
Answer: Option (b)
4. Nothing ever turned out right for me in life.
    (a) Turn off (b) Turn on (c) Turn over (d) Turn up (e) No correction required
Answer: Option (e)
5. The High Court set off the verdict of the lower court in this sensitive manner.
    (a) Set aside (b) Set in (c) Set out (d) Set up (e) No correction required
Answer: Option (a)
Directions (6-10): In each of the following sentences, parts of the sentence are left blank. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the given options.
6. ______ the middle of this year, President Pranav Mukherjee is expected to ______ on an official visit to China.
    (a) In, depart (b) Amidst, arrive (c) Towards, embark (d) By, visit (e) For, go
Answer: Option (c)
7. Comprehension is a specific brain power that is _____ in every population that has learned to be _____ about the organisms surrounding us.
    (a) Evoked, wary (b) encouraged, diffident (c) growing, allured (d) latent, curious (e) hide, optimistic
Answer: Option (d)
8. The smartphone symbolizes that awkward ________ in the communication technologies; while it _______ to bring us together, it keeps us apart.
    (a) phenomenon, want (b) irony, wishes (c) enigma, makes (d) irony, intends (e) paradox, tries
Answer: Option (e)
9. Food and L.P.G. subsidies ______ to proliferate, and it is very important to rationalize and ______ them.
    (a) Proceed, achieve (b) maintain, object (c) remain, select (d) continue, target (e) pursue, prey
Answer: Option (d)
10. His _________is the right one and it raises above the competing _________of the two agencies.
    (a) Leader, detains (b) Appeal, moment (c) Decision, narratives (d) Intention, opportune (e) Pursue, prey
Answer: Option (c)
Directions (11-15): Below a single word is given with options to its meaning. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word. Select the correct alternative from (A), (B), (C), and (D), which represents all those synonyms.
11. Tranquility A) Agitation B) Stillness C) Calmness D) Upset
    (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) B and C (d) C and D (e) All of these
Answer: Option (c)
12. Assailants A) Ally B) Obedience C) Friend D) Attacker
    (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) B and D (d) Only D (e) All of these
Answer: Option (d)
13. Stigmatize A) Defame B) Praise C) Discredit D) Dignity
    (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) B and D (d) C and D (e) All of these
Answer: Option (d)
14. Turmoil A) Confusion B) Calm C) Dislike D) Unsecured
    (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) B and D (d) C and D (e) All of these
Answer: Option (a)
15. Aberrant A) Puerile B) Deviant C) Anonymity D) Relegate
    (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) B and D (d) C and D (e) All of these
Answer: Option (b)
Directions (16-20): In each question there is pair of words/phrases that highlighted. From the highlighted words / phrases, select the most appropriate word/ phrase to form correct sentences. Then, from the option given choose the best one.
16. 1) No loss/ loose of life was reported 2) Instant relief/ relieve has been given to the owners of two damaged houses 3) The local Met office have/ has warned of heavy rain in mid.
    (a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 211 (d) 222 (e) 111
Answer: Option (a)
17. A) Voting begin/ began at 10 am and will continue till 5 pm. B) While/ Since the Lok Sabha speaker, an elected member, can vote, C) They will have to mark their/ there ballot with specially designed marker pens.
    (a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 221 (d) 222 (e) 111
Answer: Option (c)
18. A) This massive influx/retreat of investment by foreign manufacturers is of great significance for India's economy B) China could start working on a more affective/effective growth strategy for the new era now C) It should be pointed out that what is happening in India occurred in China two decades ago/before.
    (a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 211 (d) 222 (e) 121
Answer: Option (e)
19. A) The Pakistani Army on Monday violated ceasefire along/across the Line of Control (LoC) B) He immediately shut down his season to/for rest a knee injury C) Two Indian Army jawans were injured when/while the Pakistani troops initiated firing along the LOC in Poonch
    (a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 211 (d) 222 (e) 111
Answer: Option (e)
20. A) Jadhav is eligible to appeal for clemency/Indulgence to the army chief under Pakistan’s law B) Pakistan has repeatedly denied India consular assess/access to Jadhav in violation of the Vienna Convention C) The Central government has taken/has been taken a maximalist position that has aggravated the problem.
    (a) 112 (b) 121 (c) 211 (d) 222 (e) 111
Answer: Option (b)
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers) Input : unless 46 that 54 format 26 dean 68 both 32 Step I : both unless 46 that 54 format 26 dean 32 68 Step II : dean both unless 46 that format 26 32 68 54 Step III : format dean both unless that 26 32 68 54 46 Step IV : that format dean both unless 26 68 54 46 32 Step V : unless that format dean both 68 54 46 32 26
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: motor 48 wall 36 stack 64 have 52 get 18
1. Which of the following represents the position of ‘64’ in the fifth step?
    (a) Eighth from the left end (b) Sixth from the left end (c) Fourth from the right end (d) Sixth from the right end (e) None of these
Answer: Option (b)
2. Which of the following would be fourth to the left of second to the right of “18” in Step IV ?
    (a) get (b) mobile (c) has (d) stock (e) None of these
Answer: Option (a)
3. In the last step of the rearrangement, ‘wall’ is related to ‘18’ and ‘stack’ is related to ‘36’ in a certain way. Which of the following would ‘motor’ be related to, following the same pattern?
    (a) 48 (b) 52 (c) 64 (d) got (e) None of these
Answer: Option (a)
4. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘have’ and ‘18’ as they appear in the last but one of the outputs?
    (a) One (b) Three (c) Six (d) Five (e) None of these
Answer: Option (e)
5. Which step number would be the following output? motor have get wall 36 stack 18 64 52 48
    (a) Step IV (b) Step V (c) Step VI (d) Step VII (e) Step III
Answer: Option (e)
Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Seven Persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G who all lives on a seven-storey building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, and the topmost floor is numbered 7. They all likes different brands i.e. Puma, HRX, Nike, Reebok, Woodland, Fila and Adidas but not necessarily in the same order. C likes woodland brand and he lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below the one who likes Reebok. E lives one of the floor above F but not on odd numbered floor. The number of persons who lives between the one who likes Nike and the one who likes Reebok is same as the number of persons who lives between the one who likes Reebok and the one who likes Adidas. B likes Puma brand and lives on the odd numbered floor immediately below E. The one who likes HRX lives immediately above the one who likes Puma brand. D does not like Nike brand. There is one floor between F and G, who does not like Reebok brand. The one who likes Nike lives above the one who likes Adidas brand.
6. Who among the following likes Fila Brand?
    (a) C (b) A (c) F (d) D (e) G
Answer: Option (e)
7. A lives on which of the following floor?
    (a) 6th Floor (b) Top Floor (c) Ground Floor (d) 5th Floor (e) None of these
Answer: Option (b)
8. Who among the following likes Reebok brand?
    (a) A (b) G (c) D (d) F (e) None of these
Answer: Option (d)
9. G lives on which of the following floor?
    (a) 2nd Floor (b) 4th Floor (c) 1st Floor (d) None of these (e) 5th Floor
Answer: Option (a)
10. If B is related to Woodland and in the same way C is related to Adidas then following the same pattern A is related to?
    (a) HRX (b) None of these (c) Puma (d) Reebok (e) Fila
Answer: Option (c)
Directions (11-12): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th march is not Sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between Sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd march. The exam schedules on Saturday is of 100 mins.
11. How many exams are scheduled before Sunday? (a) Two (b) One (c) Five (d) Three (e) None of these Answer: Option (e)
12. Which of the following combinations of exam - Day - Time Duration is correct? (a) English - Wednesday - 75 mins (b) Maths - Thursday - 50 mins (c) History - Thursday – 60 mins (d) Hindi - Tuesday - 100 mins (e) None is correct Answer: Option (b)
13. What was the main technology used in third generation computers? (a) Vacuum tubes (b) Integrated circuits (c) Microprocessors (d) Artificial intelligence Answer: Option (c)
14. What was the main technology used in fourth generation computers? (a) Vacuum tubes (b) Integrated circuits (c) Microprocessors (d) Artificial intelligence Answer: Option (c)
15. Fifth generation computers are based on which of the following? (a) Vacuum tubes (b) Integrated circuits (c) Microprocessors (d) Artificial intelligence Answer: Option (d)
16. A barcode is ________ code that represents data with bars of varying widths or heights.
    (a) optical (b) magnetic (c) laser (d) read/write (e) None of these
Answer: Option (a)
17. Virtual memory allocates hard disk space to supplement the immediate, functional memory capacity of what?
    (a) ROM (b) EPROM (c) The registers (d) Extended memory (e) RAM
Answer: Option (e)
18. Which of the following contains permanent data and gets updated during the processing of transactions?
    (a) Operating System File (b) Transaction file (c) Software File (d) Master file (e) Any File
Answer: Option (a)
19. Which of the following is used to transfer data intended for a peripheral device into a disk so that it can be transmitted to the peripheral device at a more suitable time or in bulk?
    (a) Virtual programming (b) Multi programming (c) Caching (d) Multitasking (e) Spooling
Answer: Option (e)
20.Decryption & Encryption of data are the responsibility of which layer.
    (a) Physical (b) Data Link (c) Presentation (d) Session (e) Application
Answer: Option (c)
1. 9000 + 16[latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex]% of ? = 10500
    A. 1500 B. 1750 C. 9000 D. 7500 E. None of these
Answer: Option C
2. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.
    A. 120 B. 240 C. 360 D. 480
Answer: Option C
3. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
    A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
Answer: Option C
4. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
    A. Rs. 375 B. Rs. 400 C. Rs. 600 D. Rs. 800
Answer: Option B
5. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?
    A. [latex]\frac{1}{13}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{3}{13}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{9}{52}[/latex]
Answer: Option B
6. What will come in place of (?) in the following number series? 499, 622, 868, 1237, 1729 , 2344, ?
    A. 3205 B. 3082 C. 2959 D. 3462 E. 2876
Answer: Option B
7. When Rajesh was born, his father age was 29 years older than his Brother and his Mother was 25 years older than his Sister. If his Brother is 2 years elder than his Sister. After 6 years the average age of the family is 20. Then what is the age of Mother when Rajesh was born?
    A. 27 B. 28 C. 29 D. 30 E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option B
8. In a Company the average income of all the employees is Rs. 20000 per month. Recently the company announced increment of Rs. 2000 per month for all the employees. The new average income of all the employees is?
    A. 22000 B. 24000 C. 28000 D. 26000 E. None of these
Answer: Option A

shape Test

For IBPS Clerk Practice: CLICK HERE For IBPS Clerk Mock Test: CLICK HERE

shape Tips

To Prepare IBPS Clerk Mains 2018, there are 4 sections in the exam paper and the candidate needs to be excellent at are – General/Financial Awareness, General English, Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude and Quantitative Aptitude.
✦ Tip - 1: Refer to previous years papers of IBPS Clerk Prelims and Mains exam. This will help you understand the level that can be expected in the upcoming IBPS Clerk Exams.
✦ Tip - 2: Understand the basic concepts of old as well as new topics introduced in the current year. If your basics are clear, attempting questions will be comparatively easy, no matter in what way they are asked in the exam.
✦ Tip - 3: Work on your Time management, Speed and Accuracy.
✦ Tip - 4: Prepare yourself for the high level quality of the exam to avoid any last minute surprises. Prepare with a mindset of a difficult level of exam, and then attempting questions in the exam will be comparatively easy for you.
✦ Tip - 5: Attempt as many mock tests as you can. Online full-length tests will help you overcome your exam paranoia and you’ll be able to prepare more efficiently. Mock tests will also help you work on the 3 parameters i.e. Time management, Speed and Accuracy.