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ESIC Prelims Practice Test

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ESIC Prelims Practice Test

shape Introduction

Preliminary Examination is important to qualify for the Mains Examination. ESIC UDC Prelims Practice & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

Scheme of Preliminary Examination for recruitment to the post of Upper Division Clerk (UDC) in ESIC is as follows:

  • Preliminary Examination is an objective test.

  • The test will have four sections.

  • The overall test duration is for 1 hour (No separate sectional duration).

  • The test contain 200 questions with Maximum of 200 marks.

  • Name of the Test (Objective Tests) No. of Qs. Max. Marks Duration Version
    General Intelligence and Reasoning 25 50 1 hour Bilingual
    General Awareness 25 50 Bilingual
    Quantitative Aptitude 25 50 Bilingual
    English Comprehension 25 50 English
    Total 100 200

  • Phase –I Preliminary Examination is qualifying in nature and marks will not be reckoned for final merit.

  • For each wrong answer, there will be a negative marking of one fourth of the mark assigned to that question.

  • The candidates will be shortlisted for Phase-II in the ratio of 1:10 i.e. about 10 times the number of vacancies in each category on the basis of their performance in Phase - I.

shape Syllabus

[Click Here] for ESIC UDC Prelims Syllabus

shape Samples

1. B is the father of Q. B has only two children. Q is the brother of R. R is the daughter of P. A is the granddaughter of P. S is the father of A. How is S related to Q?
    A. Son B. Son-in-law C. Brother D. Brother-in-law E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
2. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?
    A. NQPTJHOJ B. NQPTJOHI C. NQTPJOHJ D. NQPTJOHJ E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Each letter in the word is moved one step forward and the first letter of the group so obtained is put at the end, to obtain the code.
3. Statements: M ≤ N T ≥ Q Conclusions: I. R ≥ L II. T ≤ N III. L > M IV. R ≥ M
    A. Only III and IV are true B. Only III is true C. Only I and IV are true D. All I, II, III and IV are true E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Given statements: M ≤ N T ≥ Q ......(ii) Combining both the statements, we get M ≤ N < L ≥ Q ≤ T < R Thus, R ≥ L is not true. T ≤ N is not true. Again, M M is true. R ≥ M is not true. Hence, only conclusion III is true.
4. In a queue, 11 persons are sitting and facing north. A is fifth from the right end. Five persons sit between B and A. Persons between A and C is the same as persons between B and C. Then what is the position of B with respect to C?
    A. Fourth to the left B. third to the left C. third to the right D. none of these E. Can’t be determined

Answer: Option (B)
5. If all the consonants of each word are changed to their next letter according to the English alphabetical series then how many new such words will be formed that have exactly two vowels?
    A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: The given sequence of words: AIR SON EAR BED INE Given sequence after changing the consonants to their next letter according to the English alphabetical series. AIS TOO EAS CEE IOE Four such words (highlighted in bold ) are there that have exactly two vowels. Hence, the correct answer is option E.
6. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next?
    A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 26

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on.
7. Which one does not belong to the group?
    A. 72 B. 96 C. 48 D. 28 E. 82

Answer: Option (E)
8. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 3 is 72. What is the second largest number?
    A. 27 B. 24 C. 21 D. 42

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Let the numbers be 3x, 3x + 3 and 3x + 6. Then, 3x + (3x + 3) + (3x + 6) = 72 9x = 63 x = 7 Largest number = 3x + 6 = 27. => Second largest number = 27 - 3 = 24
9. B and C are siblings. M has two children and he is the son of E, who is the father-in-law of H. H has only one son. C is not the granddaughter of E. How is B related to E?
    A. Granddaughter B. Son C. Daughter D. Can’t be determined E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
10. In a certain office, 1/3 of workers are women, 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, what part of the workers are without children?
    A. 5/18 B. 4/9 C. 11/18 D. 17/36

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Let the total number of workers be x. Then, Number of women = x/3 and number of men = x - x/3 = 2x/3 Number of women having children = x/18 Number of men having children = x/3 Number of workers having children = (x/18) + (x/3) = 7x/18 Therefore, workers having no children = x - 7x/18 = 11/18 of all workers.
1. 24th March 2019 is observed as World Tuberculosis (TB) Day. It's the theme is;
    A. Innovate to accelerate action B. Unite to End TB C. It's time D. I am stopping TB

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Each year, World Tuberculosis (TB) Day is commemorated on March 24 to raise public awareness about the devastating health, social and economic consequences of TB, and to step up efforts to end the global TB epidemic. The theme of World TB Day 2019 - 'It's time'. The date marks the day in 1882 when Dr Robert Koch announced that he had discovered the bacterium that causes TB, which opened the way towards diagnosing and curing this disease.
2. What is the full form of "BIOS"?
    A. Basic Input Output System B. Bureau of Information Science C. Business Investment on Shares D. Broadcasting and Information Organisation

Answer: Option (A)
3. Holker trophy is associated with which sport?
    A. Badminton B. Bridge C. Cricket D. Kabaddi

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation:
Note: Holkar Trophy is associated with Bridge.
4. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?
    A. T.N.Kaul B. J.R.D. Tata C. Khushwant Singh D. Nani Palkhivala

Answer: Option (D)
5. President Donald Trump and his family.
    A. Peabody Award B. Gerald Loeb Award C. Clio Awards D. Pulitzer Prizes

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: The New York Times and The Wall Street Journal were awarded Pulitzer Prizes for their separate investigations of President Donald Trump and his family. The Times won the prestigious journalism award for a probe of the Trump family's finances that debunked his claims of self-made wealth and revealed a business empire riddled with tax dodges. The Journal won for its coverage of Trump's secret hush money payments to two women during his 2016 presidential campaign who claimed to have had affairs with him. The Associated Press won a Pulitzer for international reporting for its coverage of the war in Yemen. Reuters was honoured for international reporting for its coverage of atrocities committed against Rohingya Muslims in Myanmar.
6. Rabindranath Tagore's 'Jana Gana Mana' has been adopted as India's National Anthem. How many stanzas of the said song were adopted?
    A. Only the first stanza B. The whole song C. Third and Fourth stanza D. First and Second stanza

Answer: Option (A)
7. Who among the following personality awarded the Dronacharya award 2017?
    A. P. Gopichand B. Jitu Rai C. G.S.S.V. Prasad D. Ravi Shastri

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Dronacharya Award is sports coaching honour of the Republic of India given for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events. Dr. R. Gandhi (Athletics), Heera Nand Kataria (Kabaddi), G.S.S.V. Prasad (Badminton), Brij Bhushan Mohanty (Boxing), P.A. Raphel (Hockey), Sanjoy Chakravarthy (Shooting) and Roshan Lal (Wrestling) are the recipient of the awards.
8. Which of the following teeth of the child (3-4 Years) is not a part of the milk teeth?
    A. Incisors B. Canines C. Molars D. Premolars

Answer: Option (C)
9. Article 21A of Indian constitution deals with:
    A. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases B. Right to education C. Freedom of speech D. Equality before law

Answer: Option (B)
10. Changi airport gets world's tallest 131-ft indoor waterfall. The airport is located in _________.
    A. China B. Singapore C. Japan D. Malaysia

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: The world's tallest indoor waterfall, 131-foot-tall, opened for the general public at Singapore's Jewel Changi Airport. The waterfall is housed inside a dome-shaped complex which has gardens growing over four storeys, more than 280 retail and food outlets, a hotel and a movie theatre. The structure also has a botanical garden with 120 species of plants.
1. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B, C so that A receives half as much as B and B half as much as C. Then C's share is
    A. Rs 200 B. Rs 300 C. Rs 400 D. Rs 500

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Let C = x. Then B = x/2 and A = x/4 A:B:C = 1:2:4. C's share Rs.[(4/7)*700) = 400.
2. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
    A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 690 C. Rs. 698 D. Rs. 700

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: S.I. for 1 year = Rs. (854 - 815) = Rs. 39. S.I. for 3 years = Rs.(39 x 3) = Rs. 117. Principal = Rs. (815 - 117) = Rs. 698.
3. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:
    A. 17 kg B. 20 kg C. 26 kg D. 31 kg

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Let A, B, C represent their respective weights. Then, we have: A + B + C = (45 x 3) = 135 .... (i) A + B = (40 x 2) = 80 .... (ii) B + C = (43 x 2) = 86 ....(iii) Adding (ii) and (iii), we get: A + 2B + C = 166 .... (iv) Subtracting (i) from (iv), we get : B = 31. B's weight = 31 kg.
4. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
    A. 4 days B. 5 days C. 6 days D. 7 days

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y. Then, 6x + 8y = [latex]\frac {1}{10}[/latex] and 26x + 48y = [latex]\frac {1}{2}[/latex]. Solving these two equations, we get : x =[latex]\frac {1}{100}[/latex]and y =[latex]\frac {1}{200}[/latex]. (15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work =[latex]\frac {15}{100}[/latex]+[latex]\frac {20}{200}[/latex] = [latex]\frac {1}{4}[/latex]. 15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
5. What is the difference between binary coding and binary coded decimal?
    A. Binary coding is pure binary. B. BCD is pure binary. C. Binary coding has a decimal format. D. BCD has no decimal format.

Answer: Option (A)
6. If the cost price is 25% of the selling price. Then what is the profit percent?
    A. 150% B. 200% C. 300% D. 350%

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Let the S.P = 100 then C.P. = 25 Profit = 75 Profit% = (75/25) * 100 = 300%.
7. [(7 * 9) + (2 * 12) + 3]/[(12 * 3) + (81/9)] = ?
    A. 4 B. 60 C. 1.75 D. 4.5 E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: [(7 * 9) + (2 * 12) + 3]/[(12 * 3) + (81/9)] = (63 + 24 + 3)/(36 + 9) = 90/45 = 2
8. Six years ago Anita was P times as old as Ben was. If Anita is now 17 years old, how old is Ben now in terms of P?
    A. 11/P + 6 B. P/11 +6 C. 17 - P/6 D. 17/P

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Let Ben’s age now be B Anita’s age now is A. (A - 6) = P(B - 6) But A is 17 and therefore 11 = P(B - 6) 11/P = B-6 (11/P) + 6 = B
9. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is:
    A. 35.55 km/hr B. 36 km/hr C. 71.11 km/hr D. 71 km/hr

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Total time taken = (160/64 + 160/80 hrs. = 9/2 hrs. Average speed = (320 x 2/9) km/hr = 71.11 km/hr.
10. How much is 80% of 40 is greater than 4/5 of 25?
    A. 4 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: (80/100) * 40 – (4/5) * 25 32 - 20 = 12.
1. Real friends, genuinely wanting the best for the organisation, ___________ different garbs.
    A. come in B. clad in C. dressed in D. clothed in

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: The given statement refers that real friends i.e. the ones who really feel for the organization, are witnessed in different forms or appearances. Although, garb refers to clothes, and thereby options (b), (c), and (d) do look probable, but come in refers to approaching someone or appear in front of someone which is what the author means.
2. ALTRUISM
    A. misery B. indifference C. veracity D. generosity E. selfishness

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: Generosity (munificence, large-heartedness) and altruism are synonyms.
3. To have an axe to grind
    A. A private end to serve B. To fail to arouse interest C. To have no result D. To work for both sides E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
4. Philistine
    A. Novice B. Intellectual C. Pious D. Debutante

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Philistine is used disparagingly to describe a person guided by material rather than intellectual values; an Intellectual is a person who engages in the creative use of his or her intellect.
5. A. Environment Education unit of Centre for Science & Environment has always been working towards providing easy to understand reading material. B. Their new publication on this subject is an attempt to lend teachers a helping hand. C. It unfolds in two sections: Climate change: how to make sense of it all D. And natural resources on how to share & care. E. However, they are introduced to students not as a paragraph to memorize but as an activity to do.
    A. ACEBD B. DBCAE C. ABCDE D. BECAD

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: A introduces the topic ‘Environment Education Unit' The pronoun 'they're' in sentence 'B' refers to the same. C and D form a mandatory pair as both of them tell the two topics discussed in the new publication. Also 'And' in D makes it obvious that it will follow C In E, 'however' concludes the paragraph Hence, ABCDE should be the right answer. Option C.
6. A Government run by a dictator is termed as
    A. Autocracy B. Democracy C. Oligracy D. Theocracy

Answer: Option (A)
7. In summer, days are more warmer than nights.
    A. more warm B. warmest C. warmer D. none

Answer: Option (C)
8. Hong Kong, on Saturday, _______ a new high-speed rail link to ______ China that will vastly decrease travel times.
    A. Establishes, reach B. Opened, inland C. Started, invade D. Closed, detour E. All of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanaton: In the given sentence, only ‘opened’ & ‘inland’ make it grammatically as well as contextually correct. While option (a) is grammatically wrong, options (c) & (d) are contextually wrong. Hence, ‘Hong Kong, on Saturday, opened a new high-speed rail link to inland China that will vastly decrease travel times’ is the correct.
9. In summer, days are more warmer than nights.
    A. more warm B. warmest C. warmer D. none

Answer: Option (C)
10. At dagger's drawn
    A. to have bitter enmity B. to be very friendly C. to be unknown D. to be very familiar

Answer: Option (A)
Explanaton: Enmity means The state or feeling of being actively opposed
Example: The quarrel between two friends has grown more bitter now and they are at dagger's drawn.

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shape Tips

To prepare for ESIC UDC Prelims 2019, the four main subjects that you need to be excellent at are Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, General Awareness and English Comprehension.
Candidates can crack the exam only with the right approach and correct strategy and can also clear the ESIC UDC 2019 Prelims examination.
✦ Tip - 1: Identify the weak areas, for some it may be Quantitative aptitude (maths); for others it may be English. If possible take the help of extra coaching.
✦ Tip - 2: Take online mock tests to see where you stand and what your strengths. Look for reputed online coaching websites for free mock tests.
✦ Tip - 3: If you are repeatedly making the same mistakes, find out what is happening and analyze the mistakes. A reliable coach can help you in this matter.
✦ Tip - 4: Space out your learning in comfortable time slots. It is sufficient to start preparing 2 months before the exam. But allot enough time in the day to the preparation so that you have adequate time to focus on each section of the test.
✦ Tip - 5: This is the most important one. Stay Positive! There will be highs and lows in your journey to preparing for the bank exam. Whatever happens stay focused and don’t give up.