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Computer Awareness Practice Set 1

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Computer Awareness Practice Set 1

shape Introduction

Computer Awareness Practice Set 1 Article Consist of Questions with Answers, and this paper will helps all aspirants for Competitive Exams. Computers are an integral part of everyday life. Computer aptitude is an important section in many competitive exams primarily related to recruitment. Candidates preparing for banking exams like IBPS PO, SBI PO, and the RBI, must be prepared with Computer Aptitude Syllabus. The Computer Awareness Section will be a very important section in the Upcoming Competitive Exams.

Computer Awareness, also known as Computer Aptitude is one of the prominent sections in various recruitment related competitive exams in India. SBI PO Mains Computer Aptitude Practice Set 2 lists some of the important questions for the preparation of Computer Awareness module. The most significant topics to be learned for Computer Awareness module are as follows:
1. History of Computers 2. Computer Fundamentals 3. Parts of a Computer System 4. Data Processing Cycle of a Computer 5. Computer Languages 6. Input Devices & Output Devices 7. Operating Systems 8. Database Management Systems 9. Microsoft Office 10. Keyboard Shortcuts 11. File Extensions 12. Networking and Internet 13. Computer Viruses 14. Important Abbreviations


shape Quiz

Q1. Overwhelming or saturating resources on a target system to cause a reduction of availability to legitimate users is termed as
    A. Distributed DoS attack B. Denial of Service (DoS) attack C. Data Diddling D. None
Answer: B
Q2. Modifying data for fun and profit is defined as
    A. Distributed DoS attack B. Denial of Service (DoS) attack C. Data Diddling D. None
Answer: C
Q3. Internet-mediated attack accomplished by enlisting the services of many compromised systems to launch a denial of service (DoS) is termed as
    A. Distributed DoS attack B. Denial of Service (DoS) attack C. Data Diddling D. None
Answer: A
Q4. Creating a false identity using someone else’s identifying information
    A. Distributed DoS attack B. Identity Theft C. Data Diddling D. None
Answer: B
Q5. A program or batch file that waits for a specific time before causing damage is......
    A. Logic bomb B. Time bomb C. Mail bombing D. None
Answer: B
Q6. A method for exploiting a vulnerability to take control of a system or otherwise compromise it is termed as.......
    A. Logic bomb B. Exploit C. Mail bombing D. None
Answer: B
Q7. The most widely used type of database management system is the
    A. Flat database. B. Network database. C. Relational database D. Hierarchical database.
Answer: C
Q8. Which of the following will connect you to the Internet?
    A. HTTP B. Internet service provider C. A network connection D. None
Answer: B
Q9. A method in which multiple communication devices are connected to one another efficiently is known as......
    A. Switching B. Redundancy C. Capacity D. None
Answer: A
Q10. What is considered as the 'backbone' of the World Wide Web?
    A. URL B. HTML C. HTTP D. None
Answer: C
Q1. MIME stands for
    A. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension B. Multicasting Internet Mail Extension C. Multiple Internet Mail Extension D. None
Answer: C
Q2. FPI stands for____
    A. Figure per inch B. Frames per inch C. Faults per inch D. None
Answer: A
Q3. The process of analyzing large data sets in search of new, previously undiscovered relationships is known as:
    A. data mining B. data marting C. data maintenance D. date warehousing
Answer: B
Q4. Collection of interrelated data and set of program to access them is called
    A. Database B. Database Management System C. Data Structure D. data warehousing
Answer: A
Q5. A repository of data that is designed to serve a particular community of knowledge workers is called
    A. datamart B. data maintenance C. data warehousing D. None
Answer: A
Q6. Keys that are used in combination with some other key, they have been programmed to perform certain tasks is called
    A. Function keys B. Alphanumeric keys C. Modifier keys( Alt, Ctrl) D. None
Answer: A
Q7. A key that is used to alternate the input mode of a group of keys on a keyboard is known as
    A. Function keys B. Alphanumeric keys C. Toggle Keys (Caps Lock, Nums Lock) D. None
Answer: C
Q8. Networking can be classified into two types. It includes
    A. Server-based networking (A central Server) B. Peer to Peer networking (Group of computers that perform both Server & Client function) C. Both (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q9. Which is used to connect a computer to the cabling used in LAN?
    A. Network Interface Card (or) Network Adapter B. Router C. Modem D. None
Answer: A
Q10. A device which converts data between the analog form used on telephone lines & the digital form used on computers is.........
    A. Network Interface Card (or) Network Adapter B. Router C. Modem (Modulator Demodulator) D. None
Answer: A
Q1. A relay or interconnecting device that is used to join two or more LANs is called
    A. Network Interface Card (or) Network Adapter B. Router C. Bridge D. NOne
Answer: C
Q2. A device that regenerates the signal transmitted on a cable in a network is called
    A. Repeater B. Router C. Bridge D. None
Answer: C
Q3. A networking device that is used to receive signals from one Computer & transmit them on to other computers in a network is called........
    A. Repeater B. Hub C. Bridge D. None
Answer: A
Q4. Hub can be divided into two types. It includes......
    A. Active Hub (Acts as a Repeater – regenerates & sends out a stronger signal) B. Passive Hub (Acts as a Junction box – Splits incoming signals for transmission) C. Both (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: B
Q5. An intelligent Hub that has the ability to determine the destination of a packet sent across the network is called.........
    A. Repeater B. Switch C. Bridge D. None
Answer: C
Q6. A most Sophisticated relay device used in a network that can be used to interconnect systems with different protocols, formatting languages and architecture is called.........
    A. Gateway B. Switch C. Bridge D. None
Answer: B
Q7. CSMA/CD stands for
    A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Correction Detection B. Code Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection D. None
Answer: A
Q8. A...... is required at each end to absorb the signal so that it does not reflect back across the bus.
    A. gateway B. terminator C. bridge D. None
Answer: C
Q9. Bus Topologies can be classified into two types. It includes
    A. Regular Bus B. Local Bus C. Both (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: B
Q10. A list of rules for transferring data over a network is called?
    A. Protocol B. Program code C. Rules D. None
Answer: C
Q1. Star topologies are normally implemented using a
    A. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable B. Twisted Pair cable C. Fiber Optic Cable D. None
Answer: A
Q2. A set of stations connected serially by cable is known as
    A. Star topology B. Bus topology C. Ring topology D. None
Answer: C
Q3. OSI stands for
    A. Open Systems Interconnection B. Open Source Interconnection C. Open Service Interconnection D. None
Answer: A
Q4. Layer which deals with the transportation of binary data and defines cable & electrical specifications is known as..........
    A. Data Link Layer B. Physical Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: B
Q5. Layer which converts data frames into bits and also convert bits into frames is known as..........
    A. Data Link Layer B. Transport Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: A
Q6. Layer which deals with translation of logical & physical addresses & determines route from source to destination & also control network traffic is known as..........
    A. Network Layer B. Transport Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: A
Q7. Layer which manages flow control & ensures reliable delivery of data packets in sequence with no losses or duplications is known as.........
    A. Presentation Layer B. Transport Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: B
Q8. Layer which establishes, maintains & terminates a connection while communicating with other client is known as.........
    A. Presentation Layer B. Transport Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: C
Q9. Layer which translates data format & deals with compression of data and network security is known as.........
    A. Presentation Layer B. Application Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: A
Q10. Layer which is the user interface to access the network services such as file transfer/ database access is known as.........
    A. Presentation Layer B. Application Layer C. Session Layer D. None
Answer: B
Q1. A long message that needs to be transmitted is broken into smaller packets of fixed size for error free transmission is termed as........
    A. Data Sequencing B. Flow Control C. Error control D. None
Answer: A
Q2. ICMP stands for
    A. Internet Control Message Protocol B. Internet Connection Management Protocol C. Internet Control Management Protocol D. None
Answer: A
Q3. IDRP stands for
    A. ICMP Repeater- Discovery Protocol B. ICMP Router- Discovery Protocol C. IDRP Router- Discovery Protocol D. None
Answer: B
Q4. RSS Stands for
    A. Rich Site Summary B. Really Simple Syndication C. (A) or (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q5. What is the full form of UDP?
    A. Upper Divisional Protocol B. User Datagram Protocol C. Under Divisional Protocol D. None
Answer: B
Q6. An Interface refers to a specification by which programs can communicate with a web server is called
    A. Graphical User Interface (GUI) B. Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) C. Common Gateway Interface (CGI) D. None
Answer: C
Q7. VoIP stands for
    A. Video Over Internet Protocol B. Voice Over Internet Protocol C. Voice On Internet Protocol D. None
Answer: C
Q8. The two application protocols most commonly associated with
    A. Network File System (NFS) B. Common Internet File System (CIFS) C. Both (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q9. An attacker outside your network pretends to be a part of your network or legal terminal is called...
    A. Password Attacks B. IP Spoofing C. Identity Theft D. None
Answer: C
Q10. A reliability & flow control technique where the source sends one packet, starts a timer and waits for an acknowledgement before sending a new packet is called
    A. Positive Acknowledgement Retransmission (PAR) B. Checksum C. Routing D. None
Answer: A
Q1. Booting can be divided into two types. They are
    A. Cold Booting B. Warm Booting C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q2. What is booting?
    A. When a computer is switched on & the OS gets loaded from hard disk to main memory B. When a computer is switched on & the OS gets loaded from CPU to main memory C. (A) or (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q3. What is Warm booting?
    A. When a computer is turned on after it has been completely shut down. B. When a computer is restarted by pressing the restart button or pressing (ctrl + Alt + Del) key. C. (A) or (B) D. None
Answer: B
Q4. which of the following is a function of Operating System (OS)?
    A. Process & Memory Management B. File Management C. Input/Output Management D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q5. which of the following is an example of Single User Operating System?
    A. MS-DOS B. Windows 9X(A) & (B) C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q6. Which of the following is an example of Multi User Operating System?
    A. UNIX B. LINUX C. Windows 2000/2007 D. (A) & (B) &(C)
Answer: D
Q7. What is Multi-Tasking Operating System?
    A. More than one processes can be executed concurrently B. Processing is done with a time constraint C. A type of OS which does not interact with a computer directly. D. An OS which use multiple central processors to serve multiple real time applications.
Answer: A
Q8. What is Real Time Operating System (RTOS)?
    A. More than one processes can be executed concurrently. B. Processing is done with a time constraint C. A type of OS which does not interact with a computer directly. D. An OS which use multiple central processors to serve multiple real time applications.
Answer: B
Q9. What is Batch Processing Operating System (RTOS)?
    A. More than one processes can be executed concurrently. B. Processing is done with a time constraint C. A type of OS which does not interact with a computer directly. D. An OS which use multiple central processors to serve multiple real time applications.
Answer: C
Q10. What is Distributed Operating System (RTOS)?
    A. More than one processes can be executed concurrently. B. Processing is done with a time constraint C. A type of OS which does not interact with a computer directly. D. An OS which uses multiple central processors to serve multiple real time applications.
Answer: D
Q1. Core of the OS which supports the process by dividing a path to peripheral devices?
    A. Kernel B. Shell C. Fork D. None
Answer: A
Q2. The program which interprets commands given by the user?
    A. Kernel B. Shell C. Fork D. None
Answer: B
Q3. A system call of OS which is used to create a new process is known as?
    A. Kernel B. Shell C. Fork D. None
Answer: C
Q4. A process which is not executing due to any waiting event is called?
    A. Kernel B. Kernel C. Deadlock D. None
Answer: C
Q5. Which provides an interface between process & OS?
    A. Kernel B. System Calls C. Deadlock D. None
Answer: B
Q6. User Interface can be divided into two types. They are
    A. Graphical User Interface B. Character User Interface C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q7. CLI stands for
    A. Character Line Interface B. Command Line Interface C. Character Level Interface D. None
Answer: B
Q8. In DOS, the DIR command is used
    A. to display contents of a file B. to delete files C. to display of files & subdirectories D. None
Answer: C
Q9. which one of the following is an MS-DOS external command?
    A. COPY B. FORMAT C. DIR D. None
Answer: B
Q10. Grouping & processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called,
    A. batch processing B. a real time system C. a database management system D. None
Answer: A
Q1. .......... is a feature for scheduling & multi-programming to provide an economical interactive system of two or more users.
    A. time tracing B. time sharing C. multi-tasking D. None
Answer: B
Q2. In Windows ME, what does ME stands for?
    A. Micro-Expert B. Millennium-Edition C. Multi-Expert D. None
Answer: B
Q3. There are a total of..........actions button in PowerPoint.
    A. 12 B. 15 C. 18 D. None
Answer: A
Q4. Attributes can be defined for
    A. pages B. entity C. macro D. None
Answer: B
Q5. What is the default size of the data type in MS Access?
    A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. None
Answer: A
Q6. ....... means that the data contained in a database is accurate & reliable
    A. Data redundancy B. Data integrity C. Data consistency D. None
Answer: B
Q7. The smallest unit of information about a record is called a......
    A. cell B. field C. record D. None
Answer: A
Q8. Which combines efficient implementation techniques that enable them to be used in extremely large database?
    A. Data Mining B. Data Manipulation C. Data reliability D. None
Answer: C
Q9. A program that generally has more user-friendly interface than a DBMS is called a
    A. back end B. front end C. form D. None
Answer: A
Q10. A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationships, semantics & constraints is referred as....
    A. data model B. ER model C. DBMS D. NOne
Answer: C
Q1. Which of the following contains information about a single ‘entity’ in the database like a person, place, event or thing?
    A. query B. form C. record D. None
Answer: C
Q2. Dr.EF Codd represented....... rules that a database must obey if it has to b considered truly relational.
    A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. None
Answer: C
Q3. ........ is one reason for problems of data integrity
    A. Data availability constraints B. Data redundancy C. Data reliability D. None.
Answer: A
Q4. ......... provides total solutions to reduce data redundancy, inconsistency, dependence & nauthorized access of data.
    A. Table B. Protection password C. Data reliability D. None.
Answer: B
Q5. The particular field of a record that uniquely identifies each record is called the
    A. primary field B. key field C. master field D. None.
Answer: B
Q6. ........ are distinct items that don’t have much meaning to you in a given answer
    A. Fields B. Data C. Queries D. None.
Answer: A
Q7. A collection of related files is called...........
    A. field B. record C. database D. None
Answer: B
Q8. A logical schema
    A. is the entire database B. is a standard way of organizing information into accessible part C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q9. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as
    A. number of tuples B. number of tables C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q10. To locate a data item for storage is
    A. field B. fetch C. feed D. None
Answer: B
Q1. An E-R diagram is a graphic method of presenting
    A. entity classes & their relationships B. primary keys & their relationships C. primary keys & their relationships to instances D. None
Answer: A
Q2. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, is a.....
    A. primary entity set B. weak entity set C. simple entity set D. None
Answer: B
Q3. A computer checks ........ of username & password for a match before granting access.
    A. website B. network C. database D. None
Answer: C
Q4. ..... is a primary key of one file that also appears in another file?
    A. Physical key B. Foreign key C. Logical key D. None
Answer: B
Q5. ....... is an invalid type of database key?
    A. Structured Primary key B. Atomic Primary key C. Logical key D. None
Answer: A
Q6. Key to represent relationship between tables is called
    A. Physical key B. Foreign key C. Logical key D. None
Answer: B
Q7. In ER diagram; relationship type is represented by
    A. rectangle B. diamond C. ellipse D. None
Answer: A
Q8. In a relational database, a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic into rows & columns, is....
    A. block B. record C. tuple D. table
Answer: D
Q9. Hub is associated with........ network
    A. bus B. ring C. star D. mesh
Answer: C
Q10. Multiplexing involves.......path and........ channel
    A. single path & multiple channel B. Single path & single channel C. multiple path & multiple channel D. mesh
Answer: A
Q1. P2P is a...... application architecture
    A. distributed B. client/server C. 1-tier D. None
Answer: B
Q2. In OSI architecture, the routing is performed by
    A. network layer B. data link layer C. transport layer D. None
Answer: A
Q3. Which of the following is considered a broad band communication channel?
    A. Coaxial Cable B. Fiber Optics Cable C. Microwave Circuits D. All of these
Answer: D
Q4. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
    A. 48 bits B. 64 bits C. 16 bits D. None
Answer: A
Q5. Ethernet, token ring and token bus are types of
    A. LAN B. WAN C. MAN D. None
Answer: A
Q6. Which of the following items is not used in LANs?
    A. Interface card B. cable C. computer D. Modem
Answer: D
Q7. Which is the name of the network topology in which there are bidirectional links between each possible nodes?
    A. Mesh B. Ring C. Bus D. None
Answer: A
Q8. An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is
    A. Mesh B. Ring C. Bus D. None
Answer: A
Q9. Telnet is.........based computer protocol
    A. sound B. image C. text D. None
Answer: C
Q10. Through.........an administrator or another user can access someone else’s computer remotely.
    A. Web server B. Web application C. telnet D. None
Answer: C
Q1. How many ways you can save a document?
    A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. None
Answer: C
Q2. The maximum zoom % in MS Power Point is.......
    A. 400 B. 100 C. 200 D. None
Answer: A
Q3. In Excel, charts are created using which option?
    A. Pie Chart B. Chart Wizard C. Bar Chart D. None
Answer: B
Q4. In order to include picture data type must be?
    A. OLE B. hyperlink C. (A) or (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q5. A........ is the term used when a search engine returns a web page that matches search criteria
    A. blog B. hit C. link D. None
Answer: B
Q6. Which is required to create an html document?
    A. Internet B. text editor C. Browser D. None
Answer: B
Q7. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, italics etc, the text message?
    A. Rich text B. Rich signature C. Reach format D. None
Answer: A
Q8. Which stores information about the user’s web activity?
    A. Spam B. Cookie C. Cache D. None
Answer: B
Q9. Each IP packet must contain
    A. Source address B. destination address C. (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: C
Q10. Vendor-created program modifications are called———
    A. patches B. antiviruses C. holes D. None
Answer: A
Q1. If your computer rebooting itself then it is likely that
    A. It has a virus B. It does not have enough memory C. There has been a power surge D. None
Answer: A
Q2. The ........ of a Threat measures its potential impact on a System
    A. vulnerabilities B. degree of harm C. susceptibility D. None
Answer: B
Q3. scanned signature
    A. scanned signature B. encrypting information C. signature in binary form D. None
Answer: B
Q4. A firewall operated by
    A. the pre-purchase phase B. isolating intranet from the extranet C. screening packets to/from the network & provide controllable filtering of network traffic. D. None
Answer: C
Q5. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure http concession?
    A. Transport Layer Security B. Explicit Congestion Notification C. Resource Reservation Notification (RRN) D. None
Answer: A
Q6. Which of the following inputs a computer’s memory, but unlike a virus, it does not replicate itself?
    A. Trojan Horse B. Logic bomb C. Firewall D. None
Answer: B
Q7. Which one of the following is a key function of firewall?
    A. Monitoring B. deleting C. moving D. None
Answer: A
Q8. The load instruction is mostly used to designate a transfer from memory to a processor register known as
    A. Program counter B. instruction register C. accumulator D. None
Answer: C
Q9. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from
    A. cache B. cookie C. main memory D. None
Answer: A
Q10. Arithmetic Logic Unit(ALU) and control sections have special purpose locations called
    A. secondary memory B. registers C. accumulator D. None
Answer: B
Q1. speed of line printer is limited by the speed of
    A. cartridge used B. paper movements C. length of paper D. None
Answer: A
Q2. What are the units used to count the speed of a printer?
    A. DPI B. CPM C. PPM D. None
Answer: A
Q3. A parallel port is most often used by a
    A. monitor B. printer C. mouse D. None
Answer: B
Q4. External devices such as printers, keyboards & modems are known as.......
    A. add on devices B. extra hardware devices C. peripherals D. None
Answer: C
Q5. You can use the ‘Tab’ key......
    A. indent a paragraph B. move a cursor across the screen C. Both (A) & (B) D. None
Answer: A
Q6. In laser printers, printing is achieved by defecting laser beam on to........ surface of a drum.
    A. magnetic B. magnetized C. photo sensitive D. None
Answer: C
Q7. The rate at which scanning is repeated in a CRT is called.....
    A. refresh rate B. resolution C. pitch D. None
Answer: A
Q8. Which is the best position for operating the mouse?
    A. Tail towards the user B. Tail facing the right C. Tail facing the left D. None
Answer: A
Q9. First computer mouse was built by
    A. Robert Zawacki B. William English C. Douglas Engelbart D. None
Answer: C
Q10. ........... printer cannot print more than one character at a time
    A. Line B. Laser C. Dot Matrix D. None
Answer: C
Q1. The technique that extends storage capacities of main memory beyond the actual size of the main memory is called
    A. switching B. virtual storage C. multitasking D. None
Answer: B
Q2. Which of the following memory chip is faster?
    A. DRAM B. RAM C. SRAM D. None
Answer: C
Q3. The term .........refers to data storage systems that make it possible for a computer or electronic device to store and retrieve data
    A. storage technology B. input technology C. output technology D. None
Answer: A
Q4. Information stored in RAM need to be
    A. check B. modify C. refresh periodically D. None
Answer: C
Q5. The storage device used to compensate for the difference in rates of flow o data from one device to another is termed as.....
    A. floppy B. chip C. buffer D. None
Answer: C
Q6. Floppy disks are organized as
    A. file B. tracks & sector C. header & footer D. None
Answer: B
Q7. ....... is the ability of ‘jump’ directly to the requested data
    A. sequential access B. random access C. quick access D. None
Answer: B
Q8. The ..... is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage to the computer per second
    A. data transfer rate B. data access rate C. data migration rate D. None
Answer: A
Q9. Virtual memory is
    A. an extremely large main memory B. an illusion of extremely large main memory C. a type of memory D. None
Answer: B
Q10. ......... acts as a temporary high speed holding area between the memory and the CPU thereby improving processing capabilities
    A. Cache B. RAM C. ROM D. None
Answer: A


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