DIRECTIONS (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement. INPUT: expect 30 more funny 41 52 sea 61 ring 36 89 joy STEP 1: expect funny 30 more 41 52 sea 61 ring 36 89 joy STEP 2: expect funny 89 61 30 more 41 52 sea ring 36 joy STEP 3: expect funny 89 61 joy more 30 41 52 sea ring 36 STEP 4: expect funny 89 61 joy more 52 41 30 sea ring 36 STEP 5: expect funny 89 61 joy more 52 41 sea ring 30 36 STEP 6: expect funny 89 61 joy more 52 41 ring sea 36 30 And step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output. Input: best 11 all 25 my 47 81 equal 49 strength 16 and Explanation STEP 1: all and best 11 25 my 47 81 equal 49 strength 16 STEP 2: all and 81 49 best 11 25 my 47 equal strength 16 STEP 3: all and 81 49 best equal 11 25 my 47 strength 16 STEP 4: all and 81 49 best equal 47 25 11 my strength 16 STEP 5: all and 81 49 best equal 47 25 my strength 11 16 STEP 6: all and 81 49 best equal 47 25 my strength 16 11 Rule: In step 1 two words picked arranged in alphabetical order and placed it at the left corner and in step 2, two numbers picked and arranged it in descending order next to words and so on.
1. Which of the following term exactly comes between 49 and equal in step 3?

A. my B. 11 C. strength D. best E. None of these

2. How many elements are there between 25 and 16 in step 5?

A. One B. Three C. Two D. Five E. None of these

3. In step 6, equal and my, 11 and 49 are interchanged then which will be placed between 49 and equal?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six E. None of these

4. What is the position of 25 in step 4 from the right end?

A. Third B. Fourth C. Sixth D. Fifth E. None of these

5. Which of the following will be the final step of the given input?

A. all and 16 11 best equal 25 47 my strength 49 81 B. my and 49 81 equal best 47 25 all strength 16 11 C. all and 81 49 best equal 25 47 my strength 11 16 D. all best 81 49 and equal 47 25 my strength 16 11 E. None of these

DIRECTIONS (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in same order. Lowermost floor of building is numbered 1, one above that is numbered 2 and so on till top most floor is numbered 7. Each one of them also likes a different food recipe, namely Egg roll, Pizza, Burger, Noodles, Briyani, Fried Rice and Masala Dosa.(but not necessarily in same order).

• A lives an odd numbered floor but not on floor numbered Three. Only two persons live between D and the one who likes Briyani. The One who likes Burger lives immediately above C.
• The one who likes Pizza lives on odd numbered floors above D. B lives on the floors above E. Only three persons live between C and the one who likes Pizza.
• The one who likes Egg roll lives immediately above the one who likes Masala Dosa. G lives on an odd numbered floor. E does not like Burger.
• Only one person lives between B and E. The one who likes Briyani lives immediately above A. Neither C nor A likes Noodles.

6. Which of the following food recipe does A like?

A. Fried Rice B. Masala Dosa C. Burger D. Pizza E. Egg roll

7. Which of the following combinations is True with respect to the given arrangement?

A. Fried Rice - C B. Pizza - F C. Masala Dosa - G D. Briyani - D E. Noodles - B

8. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, positions of how many persons will remain unchanged?

A. Four B. None C. Two D. One E. Three

9. Which of the following statements is True with respect to the given arrangement?

A. The one who likes Masala Dosa immediately below A. B. F likes Pizza C. None of the given options is true. D. Only four persons live between D and G E. G lives immediately below E.

10. Who among the following lives on the floor numbered 2?

A. B B. The one who likes Egg roll C. The one who likes Masala Dosa D. D E. F

11. In which of these expressions 'S > V' be definitely false?

A. S>P≥Q=G≥R>V B. PT C. V≤A≤L=R<S D. S>C>=F≤H; V<F E. S>T=O≥P; V<J=P

12. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively(in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both 'D>S' as well as 'E£B' definitely holds true? B _ A _ S _ E _ D

A. >, ≥, <, = B. >, >, ≥, < C. ≥, ≥, ≥,≤ D. ≥, =, ≥,< E. Other than those given as options

13. In Which of the following expressions does the expression 'L=T' to definitely hold true?

A. K ≥ L ? R = P < S ≤ T B. U ≥ T ≥ M = F ≤ A ≥ L C. L ≥ C > Q ≥ B = N ≤ T D. G ≥ L = A < B ≤ S ≤ T E. T ≥ E = G ≥ W = Y ≥ L

14. Which of the following expressions is true if the expression P<TS>M>=W is definitely true?

A. W ≤ P B. S < P C. M > P D. W < Q E. T ≤ M

15. Statements: Y≤ K < D = S; D < V < O; G ≥ D < Q Conclusions: I. G > V, II. Y < Q

A. Only I is true B. Only II is true C. Either I or II true D. Neither I nor II is true E. Both I and II are true

DIRECTIONS (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the centre while some are facing outside.(i.e away from the centre)

• M sits third to the left of L. Only three people sit between M and S. P sits to the immediate right of S.
• Immediate neighbors of P face opposite directions(i.e. if one neighbor faces the centre then the other neighbor faces outside and vice-versa.) Only one person sit between P and O.
• R sits second to the right of O. Both R and N face the same direction as S.(i.e if S faces the centre then R and N also faces the centre and vice-versa.)
• Immediate neighbors of Q faces opposite directions(i.e if one neighbor faces the centre then the other neighbor faces outside and Vice-versa.)
• P does not face outside. O faces a direction opposite to that of M.

16. How many people sit between L and Q when counted from the left of Q?

A. Five B. None C. Four D. One E. Two

17. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

A. Q faces the center B. Only three people sit between P and L C. R sits to the immediate right of N D. None of the given options is true E. N is an immediate neighbor of O

18. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of P?

A. Q B. N C. M D. L E. R

19. How many people face the center as per the given arrangement?

A. Four B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than four

20. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the positions as given in the arrangement? PS LR MP SM ?

A. ON B. SO C. NQ D. OL E. LS

DIRECTIONS (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
129 642 921 476 308
21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to the third digit of the highest number after adding four to each number?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. None of the Above

22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change?

A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. Four

23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one does not belong to that group?

A. 647 B. 264 C. 912 D. 192 E. 380

24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers?

A. 14 B. 12 C. 26 D. 9 E. None of the Above

25. If in each number, the first and the last two digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number?

A. 129 B. 642 C. 921 D. 476 E. 308

DIRECTIONS (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a straight line, facing North. Three of them are not males. Two females sit adjacent to each other. Q is fourth to the left of V, who is second to the right of R, who is not the immediate neighbor of P.

• U is fourth to the right of R and is second to the left of X. S is not an immediate neighbor of either X or Q.
• S is not male. One of the persons sitting on the extreme ends is female. T is not an immediate neighbor of either V or U.
• No female is an immediate neighbor of U. W does not sit second to the left of P. The immediate neighbor of S are male

26. Which of the following is a group of females?

A. QTS B. TXP C. SVR D. UWX E. None of these

27. Who is sitting to the immediate left of S?

A. V B. Q C. W D. R E. None of these

28. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second person?

A. PWU B. QTR C. RST D. WUP E. None of these

29. If Q and R, V and U interchange their position then how many persons are sitting between R and V?

A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Two E. None of these

30. Who among the following sits third to the left of P?

A. W B. V C. R D. X E. None of these

DIRECTIONS (30-35): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statement numbered I and II given below it. Read both statement and answer the questions.
31. How far is point A from point D ?
I. Point A is 4m to the north of point B. Point C is 3m to the east of point A. Point D is to the west of point A such that points C, A, and S form a straight line of 7m II. Point F is3m to the south of point D. Point C is 4m to the east of point A. Point A is 3m to the north of point B. Point A lies on the line formed by joining points C and D.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

32. How many people are standing in a straight line? All are facing North directions.
I. M stands third from the left end of the line. Only one person stands between M and O. P stands second to the right of O. P stands at one of the extreme lines II. K stands exactly at the center of the line. Only two people stand between K and L. Only three people stands between L and O. Only one person stands between O and P

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

33. What does 'Zee' represent in a code language?
I. In that code language 'ah koj zee pig' mean 'can you take that' II. In that code language 'et zee lin ter' means ' you may come now'

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

34. Among K, L, M, N, O and P each has different age, who is the youngest among them ?
I. L is younger than only K, and P. N is neither the oldest nor the youngest II. M is older than N but not the oldest

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. Neither I or II

35. Which among P, Q, R, S, and T is the smallest?
I. P is greater than or equal to R which is equal to Q and greater than or equal to S and T. II. S is equal to R and is not greater than Q. P is greater than Q.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Either I or II E. None of these

DIRECTIONS Q(36-40): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer:

A. If only conclusion I follows B. If only conclusion II follows C. If either I or II follows D. If neither I nor II follows and E. If both I and II follow.

36. Statements: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners. Conclusions: I. 80% of the team consists of spinners. II. The opening batsmen were spinners.

A. The only conclusion I follow B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

37. Statements: The old order changed yielding place to new. Conclusions: I. Change is the law of nature. II. Discard old ideas because they are old.

A. The only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

38. Statements: Government has spoiled many top ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these institutions. Conclusions: I. The government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise of the person in the area of finance. II. The Director of the financial institution should have expertise commensurate with the financial work carried out by the institute.

A. The only conclusion I follow B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

39. Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come. Conclusions: I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in the future. II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people with decent quality of life.

A. The only conclusion I follow B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

40. Statements: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a TV. As a result, there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers. Conclusions: I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised. II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of TV. on the readership of newspapers.

A. The only conclusion I follow B. Only conclusion II follows C. Either I or II follows D. Neither I nor II follows E. Both I and II follow

DIRECTIONS Q(41-45): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer:

A. If only assumption I is implicit B. If only assumption II is implicit C. If either I or II is implicit D. If neither I nor II is implicit E. If both I and II are implicit.

41. Statement: "You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation." - A line in an appointment letter. Assumptions: I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer. II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.

A. The only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit C. Either I or II is implicit D. Neither I nor II is implicit E. Both I and II are implicit

42. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumptions: I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn. II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit C. Either I or II is implicit D. Neither I nor II is implicit E. Both I and II are implicit

43. Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees." - In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager. Assumptions: I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality. II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.

A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit C. Either I or II is implicit D. Neither I nor II is implicit E. Both I and II are implicit

44. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18 years of age. Assumptions: I. There is unemployed youth in India who needs monetary support. II. The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.

A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit C. Either I or II is implicit D. Neither I nor II is implicit E. Both I and II are implicit

45. Statement: "If you trouble me, I will slap you." - A mother warns her child. Assumptions: I. With the warning, the child may stop troubling her. II. All children are basically naughty.

A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit C. Either I or II is implicit D. Neither I nor II is implicit E. Both I and II are implicit

Solutions: For Q(1-45)
1.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All and 81 49 best equal 11 25 my 47 strength 16
2.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All and 81 49 best equal 47 25 my strength 11 16
3.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All and 81 11 best my 47 25 equal strength 16 49
4.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All and 81 49 best equal 47 25 11 my strength 16
5.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
All best 81 49 and equal 47 25 my strength 16 11
(9 - 11):

Floor No	Person	Food Recipe
7	G	Noodles
6	B	Biryani
5	A	Pizza
4	E	Egg roll
3	D	Masala Dosa
2	F	Burger
1	C	Fried Rice

6.
Answer: Option D
7.
Answer: Option A
8.
Answer: Option C
9.
Answer: Option C
10.
Answer: Option E
11.
Answer: Option B
12.
Answer: Option D
13.
Answer: Option E
14.
Answer: Option D
15.
Answer: Option B
(16 - 20):

16.
Answer: Option A
17.
Answer: Option A
18.
Answer: Option C
19.
Answer: Option D
20.
Answer: Option A
21.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Lowest Number = 129 + 4 = 133 Highest Number = 921 + 4 = 925 3 + 5 = 8
22.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
642 921
23.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Third digit becomes the first while the first shift two shift rightwards
24.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
2 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 3 = 17
25.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
921 246 129 674 803 246 - second lowest number
(26 - 30)

26.
Answer: Option A
27.
Answer: Option D
28.
Answer: Option A
29.
Answer: Option B
30.
Answer: Option C
31.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Either I or II
32.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Only I
33.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ah koj zee pig ==>can you take that et zee lin ter' means ==>you may come now common Zee ==>you
34.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
K, P>L……..N………. K.P>L>M>N>
35.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
From I: P≥R=Q≥S,T From II: S=R≤Q<P
36.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
According to the statement, 80% of the total runs were made by spinners. So, I does not follow. Nothing about the opening batsmen is mentioned in the statement. So, II also does not follow
37.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Clearly, I directly follows from the given statement. Also, it is mentioned that old ideas are replaced by new ones, as thinking changes with the progressing time. So, II does not follow.
38.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
According to the statement, Government has spoiled financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors. This means that only those persons should be appointed as Directors who are experts in finance and are acquainted with the financial work of the institute. So, both I and II follow
39.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The fact given in I is quite contrary to the given statement. So, I does not follow. II mentions the direct implications of the state discussed in the statement. Thus, II follows.
40.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The statement concentrates on the increasing viewership of TV. and does not stress either on increasing the readership of newspapers or making studies regarding the same. So, neither I nor II follows.
41.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as the statement mentions. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual's worth shall be reviewed (during probation period) before confirmation. So, II is also implicit.
42.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since the statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5, it means that the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age. So, I is implicit. But nothing about admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in the statement. So, II is not implicit
43.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Assumption I goes against the statement. So, it is not implicit. The allowance will serve as a reward to the employees and shall provoke them to come on time. So, II is implicit
44.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
I directly follows from the statement and so is implicit. Also, the statement is a suggestion and does not tell about a government policy or its position of funds. So, II is not implicit.
45.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The mother warns her child with the expectation that he would stop troubling her. So, I is implicit. The general nature of children cannot be derived from the statement. So, II is not implicit.

46. A certain sum of money amounts to rupees 2900 at 4% per annum in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to rupees 5000 at the same rate?

A. 20 B. 22 C. 24 D. 25 E. None of these

47. A trader gives an additional concession of 35% on an article which is already get discounted by 20% on the marked price. If the buyer pays an amount of 1300 for the article, then the marked price is

A. 2200 B. 2500 C. 2600 D. 2700 E. None of these

48. Two cities A and B are at a distance of 60 km from each other. Two persons P and Q start from First city at a speed of 10km/ hr and 5km/hr respectively. P reached the second city B and returns back and meets Q at Y. Find the distance between A and Y.

A. 30 km B. 40 km C. 50 km D. 55 km E. 53 Km

49. 18 years ago the ratio of A's age to B's age was 8:13. The present age of the ratio of their ages is 5:7. What is the present age of B?

A. 90 years B. 70 years C. 60 years D. 50 years E. None of these

50. X alone can do a piece of work in 5 days. Y can do the same piece of work in 4 days. X and Y are assigned to do the work for RS.5000. They complete the work in 2 days with the help of Z. How much is to be paid to Z?

A. RS.750 B. RS.620 C. RS.700 D. RS.500 E. None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-56): You have to solve equation I and II, Give an answer
A. If x > y B. If x < y C. If x ≥ y D. If x ≤ y E. If x = y or cannot be established
51.

I.[latex]\frac{4}{\sqrt {x}}[/latex] + [latex]\frac{3}{\sqrt {x}}[/latex] = [latex]{\sqrt {x}}[/latex] II.[latex]\frac {{(y)}^{\frac {35}{2}} - {(7)}^{\frac {5}{2}}}{\sqrt {y}}[/latex]

52.

I. [latex]25x^{2}[/latex]+25x+6=0 II. [latex]5y^{2}[/latex]+20y+20=0

53.

I. [latex]2x^{2}[/latex]+4x+12=0 II. [latex]2y^{2}[/latex]+19y+45=0

54.

I. [latex]4x^{2}[/latex]-19x+12=0 II. [latex]3y^{2}[/latex]+8y+4=0

55.

I. [latex]4x^{2}[/latex]-13x-12=0 II. [latex]y^{2}[/latex]-7y-60=0

56.

I. x=[latex]1024^{\frac{1}{2}}[/latex] II. [latex]y^{2}[/latex] = 1024

DIRECTIONS (57-61): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and give the answer:
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
57. How much time did P take to reach the destination?

I. Q takes 24 minutes to reach the same destination II. The ratio of the speed of P and Q is 3:4

58. In how many days A and B together complete a work?

I. If A works alone for 10 days and B alone for 15 days, the work gets completed. II. A can complete the work in 14 days.

59. What is the difference between the ages of Y and X?

I. The ratio of the age X to the age of Y is 3 : 2 II. One-sixth of X's age is equal to one-fourth of Y's age.

60. What is the perimeter of the rectangular field?

I. Area of the field is 72m2. II. Length and breadth are in the ratio of 2:1.

61. What is the speed of a boat in still water?

I. It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between P and Q downstream II. It takes 6 hours to cover the distance between P and Q upstream.

DIRECTIONS (62-66): Study the following pie-charts and information to answer the given questions
Total no of employee in Company 1 - 20400
62. The number of P level employee in company 2 is approximate what percentage of the number of S level employee in company 1?

A. 55% B. 45% C. 47% D. 57% E. 59%

63. The number of R level employee in Company 1 is approximately equal to the number of which level employee in Company 2

A. U B. S C. T D. R E. Q

64. What is the total number of Q level employee in Company 1 is less than the Company 2 by approximately what percentage?

A. 41.21% B. 41.12% C. 42.21% D. 42.12% E. 44.5%

65. The difference between the number of employees in the 2 companies of which level is maximum?

A. P B. Q C. R D. S E. T

66. What is the total number of P level employee in Company 1 and R level employee in Company 2 together?

A. 14564 B. 13789 C. 12679 D. 12832 E. 12932

DIRECTIONS (67-71) : Study the information carefully to answer the given questions
In a college out of 600 students, boys and girls are in the ratio 8: 7. Each students went to either physics lab or chemical lab or both, 40% of the boys attend only physics lab, total 20% children went to both the labs out of which 25% are boys, 45% of the girls went to only chemistry lab.
67. Total how many boys went to only physics lab ?

A. 175 B. 158 C. 156 D. 134 E. None of these

68. How many girls went to only a physics lab?

A. 62 B. 46 C. 64 D. 60 E. None of these

69. Total number of students went to physics lab is what percentage of the total number of students in the college

A. 22% B. 32% C. 33% D. 36% E. None of these

70. What is the total number of girls went to the chemistry lab?

A. 216 B. 210 C. 267 D. 261 E. None of these

71. What is the total number of students went to only chemistry lab?

A. 244 B. 248 C. 284 D. 288 E. None of these

DIRECTIONS (72-77) : Study the following information to answer the given questions

72. Expenditure of A in 2014 and 2015 are ₹ 12lak and ₹ 14lak. What was the total income of A in 2014 and 2015 together ?

A. ₹ 40.8 L B. ₹ 40.4 L C. ₹ 44 L D. ₹ 46.4 L E. None of these

73. The ratio of Expenditure of Companies A and B in 1993 was 4:5. What was the ratio of their incomes in the same year?

A. 58:75 B. 75:58 C. 78:55 D. 72:55 E. None of these

74. Total Expenditure of company B in all the years together was ₹ 125 L. What was the total income of the company in all the years together?

A. ₹ 185 L B. ₹ 520 L C. ₹ 250 L D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

75. If the incomes of the Bin 2012 and 2013 were in the ratio 3:4, Find the ratio of Expenditures of that company in these 2 years?

A. 48: 55 B. 42: 53 C. 58: 45 D. 45: 58 E. None of these

76. If the expenditure of A and B in 2011 were the equal and total income of A and B was ₹ 116L, what was the total expenditure of A and B in the same years?

A. ₹ 84 L B. ₹ 83 L C. ₹ 80 L D. ₹ 40 L E. None of these

77. From a group of 4 men, 3 women, 2 persons are selected at random, Find the probability at least one man is selected?

A. [latex]\frac{6}{7}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{7}{6}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{5}{6}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{11}{12}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{12}{21}[/latex]

Directions (78-80): An urn contains 6 orange, 4 green,3 pink and 4 black balls. If 3 balls are picked at random,
78. What is the probability that all are pink?

A. [latex]\frac{2}{650}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{1}{680}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{4}{630}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{3}{680}[/latex] E.[latex]\frac{4}{680}[/latex]

79. If 5 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that none are orange?

A. [latex]\frac{33}{442}[/latex] B.[latex]\frac{442}{33}[/latex] C. [latex]\frac{15}{167}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{23}{235}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{35}{235}[/latex]

80. If 3 balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that 1 is green and the other 2 are black?

A.[latex]\frac{3}{85}[/latex] B. [latex]\frac{4}{87}[/latex] C.[latex]\frac{1}{85}[/latex] D. [latex]\frac{3}{85}[/latex] E. [latex]\frac{5}{85}[/latex]

Solutions: For Q(46-80)
46.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2900 = p+[latex]\frac{p*4}{100}[/latex] * 4 p= 2500
47.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Marked Price = [latex]\frac{1300*100*100}{80*65}[/latex] = 2500
48.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Time taken by P to reach city B is 6hr. In 6 hr, distance covered by Q is 30km. Now at some x distance, they will meet. So [latex]\frac{x}{5}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{30-x}{10}[/latex] x= 10 So distance between A and Y is 30+10 =40 km
49.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8x+[latex]\frac{18}{13}[/latex]x+18= [latex]\frac{5}{7}[/latex] 56x + 126 = 65x + 90 9x = 36 x = 4 B = 13 × 4 + 18 = 70
50.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Z's one day work = [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] - ([latex]\frac{1}{5}[/latex]+[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]) =10-4-[latex]\frac{5}{20}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{20}[/latex] Ratio = [latex]\frac{1}{5}[/latex]:[latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]:[latex]\frac{1}{20}[/latex] = 4:5:1 Z=5000*[latex]\frac{1}{10}[/latex] = 500
51.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
[latex]\frac{7}{\sqrt {x}}[/latex] =[latex]\sqrt {x}[/latex] x=7 [latex]\frac {{(y)}^{\frac {35}{2}} - {(7)}^{\frac {5}{2}}}{\sqrt {y}}[/latex] y = 7 x = y
52.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(5x + 2)(5x + 3) =0 x = -0.4, -0.6 (5y + 10) (y + 2) = 0 x= -2, -2 -0.4, -0.6, -2, -2 x > y
53.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(2x + 8) (2x + 3) = 0 x = -4,-1.5 (2y + 10)(2y + 9) = 0 y = -5, -4.5 -1.5,-4,-4.5,-5 x > y
54.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(x - 4) (4 x - 3) = 0 x = 4, [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] (y + 2)(3y + 2) = 0 y = -2, -[latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex] 4, [latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex], -[latex]\frac{2}{3}[/latex], -2 x > y
55.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
(x - 4) (4x + 3) = 0 x = 4, -[latex]\frac{3}{4}[/latex] (x + 5) (x-12) = 0 y = 12, -5
56.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: x = 32 y = ±32 x ≥ y
57.
Answer: Option E
Explanation: [latex]\frac{3x}{4x}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{24}{t}[/latex] We get t = 32 minutes
58.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
From I: [latex]\frac{1}{A}[/latex] *10 +[latex]\frac{1}{B}[/latex] *15 = 1 From II: [latex]\frac{1}{A}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{1}{14}[/latex] From both, the answer can be found
59.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
From I: X' age = 3x, Y's age = 2x From II: [latex]\frac{1}{6}[/latex] * 3x = ([latex]\frac{1}{4}[/latex]) * 2x this gives [latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex]=[latex]\frac{1}{2}[/latex] So no conclusion.
60.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
From both equations, we get l = 12 and b = 6 so perimeter = 36
61.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D = 4 × (b+s) and D = 6 × (b – s) So we can't find the value of b.
62.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
[latex]\frac{3472}{6120}[/latex] = 56.7 = 57%
63.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Company 1 P level = 24*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 4896 Q level = 8*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 1632 R level = 14*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 2856 S level = 30*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 6120 T level = 11*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 2244 U level = 13*[latex]\frac{20400}{100}[/latex] = 2652
Company 2 P level = 14*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 3472 Q level = 16*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 3968 R level = 32*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 7936 S level = 8*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 1984 T level = 18*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 4464 U level = 12*[latex]\frac{20800}{100}[/latex] = 2976 Company 1 - R = 2856 Company 2 - U = 2976 This only approximately equal
64.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Company 1 - Q = 1632 Company 2 - Q = 3968 % = [latex]\frac{1632*100}{3968}[/latex] = 41.12%
65.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Company 1 - R = 2856 Company 2 - R = 7936 7936 – 2856 = 5080
66.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Company 1 - P = 4896 Company 2 - R = 7936 7936 + 4896 = 12832
67.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
/wp-content/uploads/2019/05/mains-practice-sets-9-data-analysis-and-interputation-computer-aptitude-1-splessons.png[\image] 8:7 = 320 (boys) : 280 (girls) 20% both = 20*[latex]\frac{600}{100}[/latex] = 120 B - (phy ) = 40*[latex]\frac{320}{100}[/latex] = 128 G - (chem) = 45*[latex]\frac{280}{100}[/latex] = 126 Total no of boys(phy) = 128+30 = 158
68.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No of girls (phy) = (280-126 - 90) = 64
69.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Total no of students went to only phy = 128+64 = 192 % = 192*[latex]\frac{100}{600}[/latex] = 32%
70.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Total no of Girls(chem) = 126+90 = 216
71.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total no of students(chem) = (320-128-30)B + 126G = 162 + 126 = 288
72.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1994 E = 12 L % P = (I – E) × [latex]\frac{100}{E}[/latex] 50 = (I – 12) × [latex]\frac{100}{12}[/latex] I = 6 + 12 = 18 L 1995 E = 14L 60 = (I – 14) ×[latex]\frac{100}{14}[/latex] I = 22.4L Total = 18+22.4 = 40.4L
73.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A:B= 40: 50 45 = (I - 40) ×[latex]\frac{100}{14}[/latex] … (A) I = 58L 50 = (I - 50) × [latex]\frac{100}{50}[/latex] I = 75L … (B) A:B = 58:75
74.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Over all % is not known
75.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Income => 1992:1993 = 3:4 = 30:40 45 = (30 – E) × [latex]\frac{100}{E}[/latex] [latex]\frac{45E}{100}[/latex] = 30 - E [latex]\frac{9E}{20}[/latex] = 30 - E 9E = 600 - 20E 29E = 600 E=[latex]\frac{600}{29}[/latex] 50 = (40 – E) × [latex]\frac{100}{E}[/latex] [latex]\frac{50E}{100}[/latex] = 40 - E E = 2(40 - E) E = 80 - 2E 3E = 80 E=[latex]\frac{80}{3}[/latex] Ratio = [latex]\frac{45}{58}[/latex]
76.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
For A 40 = (I - E) ×[latex]\frac{100}{E}[/latex] 40E = (I - E)100 2E = 5I - 5E 5I = 7E I = [latex]\frac{7E}{5}[/latex] For B 50 = (116-I - E) × [latex]\frac{100}{E}[/latex] E = 2(116 - I - E) E = 232 -2I - 2E 2I = 232 - 3E I = [latex]\frac{232-3E}{2}[/latex] [latex]\frac{7}{5}[/latex]E= [latex]\frac{-232-3E}{2}[/latex] 14E = 1160 - 15E 29E = 1160 E =[latex]\frac{1160}{29}[/latex] = 40 2E = 80
77.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
[latex]7_{{C}_{2}}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{7*6}{2}[/latex] = 21 [latex]4_{{C}_{1}}[/latex] *[latex]3_{{C}_{1}}[/latex] +[latex]4_{{C}_{2}}[/latex] = 4 × 3 +[latex]\frac{4*3}{2}[/latex] = 12+6 = 18 P=[latex]\frac{6}{7}[/latex]
78.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
[latex]17_{{C}_{3}}[/latex] = 17 × 16 × [latex]\frac{15}{3}[/latex] × 2 × 1 = [latex]\frac{4080}{6}[/latex] = 680 [latex]3_{{C}_{3}}[/latex] = 1 P =[latex]\frac{1}{680}[/latex]
79.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
[latex]17_{{C}_{5}}[/latex] = 17 × 16 × 15 ×14 ×[latex]\frac{13}{5}[/latex] × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = [latex]\frac{742560}{120}[/latex] = 6188 [latex]11_{{C}_{5}}[/latex] = 11×10 × 9 × 8 × [latex]\frac{7}{5}[/latex] × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = [latex]\frac{55440}{120}[/latex] = 462 P =[latex]\frac{462}{6188}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{33}{442}[/latex]
80.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
[latex]17_{{C}_{3}}[/latex] = 17 × 16 ×[latex]\frac{15}{3}[/latex] × 2 × 1 = [latex]\frac{4080}{6}[/latex] = 680 [latex]4_{{C}_{1}}[/latex] ×[latex]4_{{C}_{2}}[/latex] = 4 × 4 × [latex]\frac{3}{2}[/latex] × 1 = 24 P = [latex]\frac{24}{680}[/latex]= [latex]\frac{3}{85}[/latex]

DIRECTIONS (81-85): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow based on the information given in the passage.
Right through history, imperial powers have clung to their possessions to death. Why, then, did Britain in 1947 give up the jewel in its crown, India? For many reasons. The independence struggle exposed the hollowness of the white man's burden. Provincial self-rule since 1935 paved the way for full self-rule. Churchill resisted independence, but the Labour Government of Atlee was anti-imperialist by ideology. Finally, the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny in 1946 raised fears of a second Sepoy Mutiny and convinced British waverers that it was safer to withdraw gracefully. But politico-military explanations are not enough. The basis of the empire was always money. The end of the empire had much to do with the fact that British imperialism had ceased to be profitable. World War II left Britain victorious but deeply indebted, needing Marshall Aid and loans from the World Bank. This constituted a strong financial case for ending the no longer profitable empire.
Empire building is expensive. The US is spending one billion dollars a day in operations in Iraq that fall well short of full scale imperialism. Through the centuries, empire building was costly, yet constantly undertaken because it promised high returns. The investment was in armies and conquest. The returns came through plunder and taxes from the conquered. No immorality was attached to imperial loot and plunder. The biggest conquerors were typically revered (hence titles like Alexander the Great, Akbar the Great, and Peter the Great). The bigger and richer the empire, the more the plunderer was admired. This mindset gradually changed with the rise of new ideas about equality and governing for the public good, ideas that culminated in the French and the American Revolutions. Robert Clive was impeached for making a little money on the side, and so was Warren Hastings. The white man's burden came up as a new moral rationale for conquest. It was supposedly for The Princeton Review CAT sample paper 12 good of the conquered. This led to much-muddled hypocrisy. On the one hand, the empire needed to be profitable. On the other hand, the white man's burden made brazen loot impossible.
An additional factor deterring loot was the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny. Though crushed, it reminded the British vividly that they were a tiny ethnic group who could not rule a gigantic subcontinent without the support of important locals. After 1857, the British stopped annexing one princely state after another, and instead treated the princes as allies. Land revenue was fixed in absolute terms, partly to prevent local unrest and partly to promote the notion of the white man's burden. The empire proclaimed itself to be a protector of the Indian peasant against exploitation by Indian elites. This was denounced as hypocrisy by nationalists like Dadabhai Naoroji in the 19th century, who complained that land taxes led to an enormous drain from India to Britain. Objective calculations by historians like Angus Maddison suggest a drain of perhaps 1.6 percent of Indian Gross National Product in the 19th century.
But land revenue was more or less fixed by the Raj in absolute terms, and so its real value diminished rapidly with inflation in the 20th century. By World War II, India had ceased to be a profit center for the British Empire. Historically, conquered nations paid taxes to finance fresh wars of the conqueror. India itself was asked to pay a large sum at the end of World War I to help repair Britain's finances.
But, as shown by historian Indivar Kamtekar, the independence movement led by Gandhiji changed the political landscape, and made mass-taxation of India increasingly difficult. By World War II, this had become politically impossible. Far from taxing India to pay for World War II, Britain actually began paying India for its contribution of men and goods. Troops from white dominions like Australia, Canada, and New Zealand were paid for entirely by these countries, but Indian costs were shared by the British government. Britain paid in the form of non-convertible sterling balances, which mounted swiftly. The conqueror was paying the conquered, undercutting the profitability on which all empire is founded. Churchill opposed this and wanted to tax India rather than owe it money.
But he was overruled by Indian hands, who said India would resist payment, and paralyze the war effort. Leo Amery, Secretary of State for India, said that when you are driving in a taxi to the station to catch a life-or-death train, you do not loudly announce that you have doubts whether to pay the fare. Thus, World War II converted India from a debtor to a creditor with over one billion pounds in sterling balances. Britain, meanwhile, became the biggest debtor in the world. It's not worth ruling over people who are afraid to tax.
81. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the emergence of the 'white man's burden' as a new rationale for empire building in India?

A. The emergence of the idea of the public good as an element of governance. B. The decreasing returns from imperial loot and increasing costs of conquest. C. The weakening of the immorality attached to an emperor's looting behavior. D. A growing awareness of the idea of equality among peoples. E. None of these

82. Which of the following best expresses the main purpose of the author?

A. To present the various reasons that can lead to the collapse of an empire and the granting of independence to the subjects of an empire. B. To point out the critical role played by the 'white man's burden' in making a colonizing power give up its claims to native possessions. C. To highlight the contradictory impulse underpinning empire building which is a costly business but very attractive at the same time. D. To illustrate how the erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence to an empire's constituents. E. None of these

83. What was the main lesson the British learned from the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857?

A. That the local princes were allies, not foes. B. That the land revenue from India would decline dramatically. C. That the British were a small ethnic group. D. India would be increasingly difficult to rule. The Princeton Review CAT sample paper 13 E. None of these

84. Which of the following best captures the meaning of the 'white man's burden', as it is used by the author?

A. The British claim to a civilizing mission directed at ensuring the good of the natives. B. The inspiration for the French and the American Revolutions. C. The resource drain that had to be borne by the home country's white population. D. An imperative that made open looting of resources impossible. E. None of these

85. Why didn't Britain tax India to finance its World War II efforts?

A. Australia, Canada, and New Zealand had offered to pay for the Indian troops. B. India had already paid a sufficiently large sum during World War I. C. It was afraid that if India refused to pay, Britain's war efforts would be jeopardized. D. The British empire was built on the premise that the conqueror pays the conquered. E. None of these

DIRECTIONS (86-93): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
Today emerging markets account for more than half of world GDP on the basis of purchasing power according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF). In the 1990's it was about a third and in the late 1990s 30% of countries in the developing world managed to increase their output per person faster than America did, thus achieving what is called 'catch-up growth'. That catching up was somewhat lackadaisical. The gap closed at just 1.5% a year. Some of this was due to a slower grower in America, most were not. The most impressive growth was in four of the biggest emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China (BRICS). These economies have grown in different ways and for different reasons. The remarkable growth of emerging markets in general and the BRICS, in particular, transformed the global economy in many ways. Some wrenching commodity prices soared and the cost of manufacturers and labor sank. A growing and vastly more accessible pool of labor in emerging economies played a part in both wage stagnation and rising income inequality in rich ones. Global poverty rates tumbled. Gaping economic imbalances fueled an era of financial vulnerability and laid the groundwork for a global crisis. The shift towards the emerging economies will continue. But its most tumultuous phase seems to have more or less reached its end. Growth rates have dropped, the nature of their growth is in the process of changing too and its new mode will have lesser direct effects on the rest of the world. The likelihood of growth in other emerging economies having an effect in the near future comparable to that of the BRICS in the recent past is low. The emerging giants will grow larger and their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it once did.
After the 1990s there followed 'convergence with a vengeance'. China's pivot towards liberalization and global markets came at a propitious time in terms of politics, business, and technology. Rich economies were feeling relatively relaxed about globalization and current account deficits. America's booming and confident was little troubled by the growth of Chinese industry or by off-shoring jobs to India. And the technology etc., necessary to assemble and maintain complex supply chains were coming into their own, allowing firms to spread their operations between countries and across oceans. The tumbling costs of shipping and communication sparked 'globalization's second bundling' (the fiat was the simple ability to provide consumers in one place with goods from another). As longer supply chains infiltrated and connected places with large and fast-growing working-age populations, enormous quantities of cheap new labor became accessible. In 2007 China's economy expanded by an eye-popping 14.2%. India managed 10.1% growth, Russia 8.5%, and Brazil 6.1%. The IMF now reckons there will be a slowdown in growth. China will grow by just 7.6% in 2013 India by 5.6% and Russia and Brazil by 2.5%. Other countries have impressive growth potential. 'Next 11' (N 11) which includes Bangladesh, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria, and Turkey. But there are various reasons to think that this N11 cannot have an impact on the same scale as that of the BRICS. The first is that these economies are smaller. The N11 has a population of just over 1.3 billion, less than half that of the BRICS. The second is that the N11 is richer now than the BRICS were back in the day. The third reason that the performance of the BRICS cannot be repeated is the very success of that performance. The world economy is much larger than it used to be twice as in real terms as it was in 1992 according to IMF figures. But whether or not the world can build a remarkable era of growth will depend in large part on whether new giants tread a path towards greater global co-operation or stumble in times of tumult and in the worst case fight.
86. According to the passage which of the following is a reason for the author's prediction regarding N11 countries?

A. N11 countries are poorer, have fewer resources than BRICS countries and do not have much scope to grow B. The size of these countries is too great to fuel a high rate of growth as expected by BRICS countries C. The world economy is so large that the magnitude of growth from these countries will have to be huge to equal the growth of BRICS D. These economies are agricultural and have not opened up their economies yet so their scope of growth is greater than that of BRICS E. Other than those given as options

87. What is the author's view of globalization's second unbounding?

A. It proved beneficial since it created a large number of jobs and tremendous growth in cross-border trade B. It disturbed the fragile balance of power among BRICS nations and caused internal strife C. It caused untold damage to America's economy since it restricted the spread of American firms off-shore D. It proved most beneficial for the agricultural sector creating huge employment opportunities E. Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies

88. What do the comparative statistics of 2007 and 2013 for BRICS countries published by the IMF as cited in the passage indicate?

A. BRICS economies are contributing less to global growth B. As the population of these countries grows its growth rate is falling C. The financial practices followed by these countries will continue to pay rich dividends D. These countries are creating global financial imbalances to the detriment of smaller developing economies like Africa E. IMF forecasts of growth rate for these countries have not been fulfilled

89. What effect did rise in economies of BRICS have on the global economy?

A. It helped stabilize the global economy and insulate it from the fall out of the global financial crisis B. Labour became more highly skilled and wages rose alarmingly reducing the off-shoring of jobs to developing countries C. Though worldwide poverty rates tumbled, the gap between the rich and the poor in rich economies increased D. The cost of living and level of inflation in these countries were maintained at low levels E. All the given options are effects of the rise in BRICS economies

90. What does the phrase "their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it once did" convey in the context of the passage?

A. While many countries will try and achieve the same rate of growth as BRICS they will not succeed B. The growth of BRICS countries has changed the world's economy in ways that any further growth will not have such a disruptive effect on the world economy C. Developing countries have strengthened their fiscal systems in such a way that they will not be shaken to such an extent again D. Poverty may increase as the gap between the rich the poor increase but it will never reach the same levels as prior to the crisis E. Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies

91. Which of the following best describes 'catch up growth'?

A. Emerging economies tried but failed to catch up with America which always grew at a higher growth rate B. The size of emerging economies and their purchasing power has caught up with and now exceeds as rich countries together C. The growth of the American economy determines the growth of emerging economies D. In the latter half of the 1990s, some emerging economies out did America in terms of output per person E. None of the given statements describes catch up growth

92. Which of the following can be said about 'convergence with a vengeance'? A. After the 1990s advanced economies like America were open to the idea of free trade and globalization. B. There were huge technological advances which were conducive to allowing the business to spread their area of operations. C. Rich economies felt threatened by the competition from China.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. A and B E. B and C

93. What is the author's main objective in writing this passage? A. To urge emerging economies to deal with growth which can be disruptive maturely and without conflict. B. To point out that while the period of growth of BRICS was disruptive this disruption has almost come to a close. C. To criticize advanced economies for their handling of growth and promoting competition and conflict in certain regions.

A. A and B B. Only A C. Only C D. All A, B, and C E. B and C

DIRECTIONS (94-100): In each of the following questions five options are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning.
94. Snitch

A. Bode B. Stitch C. Suffix D. Sneak E. Parity

95. Porch

A. Peek B. Demur C. Verandah D. Capitulate E. Bigotry

96. Vituperate

A. Examine B. Variegate C. Belittle D. Compliment E. Baleful

97. Conundrum

A. Abjure B. Quash C. Riddle D. Thrill E. Vendetta

98. Praise

A. Portend B. Lash C. Fidget D. Creak E. Visage

99. Notional

A. Quixotic B. Unworldly C. Ethereal D. Impalpable E. Cosmic

100. Vacillate

A. Dally B. Hem C. Dither D. Sway E. Waffle

DIRECTIONS (101-105) : In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
101. ______________Business is instead moving to digital-native insurers, many of which are offering low premiums to those willing to collect and share their data. Yet the biggest winners could be tech companies rather than the firms that now dominate the industry. Insurance is increasingly reliant on the use of technology to change behavior; firms act as helicopter parents to policyholders, warning of impending harm-slow down; reduce your sugar intake; call the plumber-the better to reduce unnecessary payouts. Yet this sort of relationship relies on trust, and the Googles and Apples of the world, on which consumers rely day-by-day and hour-by-hour, may be best placed to win this business.

A. The growing mountain of personal data available to individuals and, crucially, to firms is giving those with the necessary processing power the ability to distinguish between low-risk and high-risk individuals. B. Cheap sensors and the tsunami of data they generate can improve our lives; black boxes in cars can tell us how to drive more carefully and wearable devices will nudge us toward healthier lifestyles. C. The better behavior resulting from smart devices is just one threat to the insurance industry. Conventional risk pools (for home or car insurance, for example) are shrinking as preventable accidents decline, leaving the slow-footed giants of the industry at risk. D. The uncertainty that underpins the need for insurance is now shrinking thanks to better insights into individual risks. E. The data has enabled insurance companies to gauge the situation and plan accordingly.

102. By calling for exempting unionized businesses from the minimum wage, unions are creating more incentives for employers to favor unionized workers over the non unionized sort. Such exemptions strengthen their power. ____ ___________.Once employers are obliged to pay the same minimum wage to both unionized and non-unionized labor, workers often see less reason to pay the dues to join a union.

A. High rates of unionization make minimum-wage rules unnecessary as collaborative wage setting achieves the flexibility goals of a low minimum wage and the fairness goals of a high one. B. Workers who have no real alternative to employment in the unregulated shadows of the labor market are even more vulnerable to exploitation and abuse than workers with the legal right to take low wages. C. The labor ethos of worker solidarity seems hollow if non-union workers are underpriced by union workers and left unemployed or scrambling for unauthorized work. D. This is useful because for all the effort unions throw at raising the minimum wage, laws for better pay have an awkward habit of undermining union clout. E. Unions have been demanding democratic values in the work culture but on the contrary, they have been practicing dictatorial ways.

103. The premise that the choice of major amounts to choosing a career path rests on the faulty notion that the major is important for its content and that the acquisition of that content is valuable to employers. But information is fairly easy to acquire and what is acquired in 2015 will be obsolete by 2020. What employers want is basic but difficult-to acquire skills. _______________________. They care about a potential employee's abilities: writing, researching, quantitative, and analytical skills. A vocational approach to education eviscerates precisely the qualities that are most valuable about it: intellectual curiosity, creativity, and critical thinking.

A. As students flock to the two or three majors they see as good investments, professors who teach in those majors are overburdened, and the majors themselves become more formulaic and less individualized. B. Often it is the art historians and anthropology majors, for example, who, having marshaled the abilities of perspective, breadth, creativity, and analysis, have moved a company or project or vision forward. C. Furthermore, the link between education and earnings is notoriously fraught, with cause and effect often difficult to disentangle. D. Ideas such as education are necessary to be successful in corporate life are unacceptable because education isn't that much relevant into day's society. E. When they ask students about their majors, it is usually not because they want to assess the applicants' mastery of the content, but rather because they want to know if the students can talk about what they learned.

104. What happens to our brains as we age is of crucial importance not just to science but to public policy. _______________________ However, this demographic time-bomb would be much less threatening if the elderly were looked upon as intelligent contributors to society rather than as dependants in long-term decline. It is time we rethink what we mean by the aging mind before our false assumptions result in decisions and policies that marginalize the old or waste precious public resources to remediate problems that do not exist.

A. The idea that we get dumber as we grow older is just a myth, according to brain research that will encourage anyone old enough to know better. B. By 2030, for example, 72 million people in the US will be over 65, double the figure in 2000 and their average life expectancy will likely have edged above 20 years C. Many of the assumptions scientists currently make about 'cognitive decline' are seriously flawed and, for the most part, formally invalid. D. Using computer models to simulate young and old brains, Ramscar and his colleagues found they could account for the decline in test scores simply by factoring in experience E. The reason it becomes harder to recall an acquaintance's name as you grow older is that there are so many more of them.

105. The expenditure of time, money and sparse judicial and prosecutorial resources is often justified by claims of a powerful deterrent message embodied in the ultimate punishment- the death penalty.__________ In 2010, the average time between sentencing and execution in the United States averaged nearly 15 years. A much more effective deterrent would be a sentence of life imprisonment imposed close in time to the crime.

A. A single federal death penalty case in Philadelphia was found to cost upwards of $10 million - eight times higher than the cost of trying a death-eligible case where prosecutors seek only life imprisonment. B. The ethics of the issue aside, it is questionable whether seeking the death penalty is ever worth the time and resources that it takes to sentence someone to death. C. Apart from delaying justice, the death penalty diverts resources that could be used to help the victims' families heal. D. But studies repeatedly suggest that there is no meaningful deterrent effect associated with the death penalty and further, any deterrent impact is no doubt greatly diluted by the amount of time that inevitably passes between the time of the conduct and the punishment. E. While some victims and their families supported and some opposed the decision, any expectation that Tsarnaev will be put to death might be misplaced.

106. Five statements are given below, labeled a, b, c, d, and e. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Dinets first observed the behavior in 2007 when he spotted crocodiles lying in shallow water along the edge of a pond in India with small sticks or twigs positioned across their snouts. B. The behavior potentially fooled nest-building birds wading in the water for sticks into thinking the sticks were floating on the water. C. The crocodiles remained still for hours and if a bird neared the stick, they would lunge. D. Crocodiles are way clever than thought about generally. E. To see if the stick-displaying was a form of clever predation, Dinets and his colleagues performed systematic observations of the reptiles for one year at four sites in Louisiana, including two rookeries and two non-rookery sites.

107. Five statements are given below, labeled a, b, c, d, and e. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. The competitive pressures in the environment have radically altered the context in which human Resource services are delivered in Indian organizations. B. The HR competencies, in other words, differentiate outstanding performers from average performers in the HR function. C. The traditional role of HR, based on the image of a transaction and administratively oriented HR practitioner providing services to a set of customers, is undergoing change. D. With the focus moving towards integrating HR into the strategic planning of the organization, another dimension is added to the picture of HR service delivery. E. This change in focus calls for HR professionals taking up the emerging roles of advocate, business partner, and change agent in new organizational structures that are radically different from the past.

108. Five statements are given below, labeled a, b, c, d, and e. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Every campaign leader knew how to pick up and kiss a child in the crowds, how to hug an old widow, how to chant with the pundits and show abeyance to the Mullahs. B. Did anyone hit at "quality" for infrastructure amenities, education, health and finally governance? C. Politics is still a game of money, mind, and manipulations. D. False promise is not entirely a sin, but let these be redeemed by true, professional, and quality governance, that shows at the end of the tenure. E. Many Asian countries have transformed their work culture and up-scaled their economies.

109. Five statements are given below, labeled a, b, c, d, and e. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. The emerging web services paradigm offers the promise of new efficiencies and improves integration designed to enhance collaboration between internal and external applications. B. For example, web services can serve as a bridge between an e-procurement application and an internal inventory system. C. Although web services are relatively nascent and adoption rates currently low, it is critical for ERP vendors to begin taking steps to prepare for their rapidly maturing initiative. D. As items are purchased through e-procurement application, a web service specific to inventory reduction can be invoked to adjust inventory levels. E. As soon as re-order points are hit, Web services, the cycle time between buying and replenishment can be greatly reduced and the potential for errors virtually eliminated.

110. Five statements are given below, labeled a, b, c, d, and e. Among these, four statements are in a logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

A. Much of the modern use of metals happens behind closed doors of corporations, under the veil of trade secrets. B. He chooses to restrict his analysis to metals and metalloids, which could face more critical constraints because many of them are relatively rare. C. Even if we can find out how certain metals are used, it may not always be possible to determine the proportions they are used in. D. The author's compromise was to account for the use of 80% of the material that is made available each year through extraction and recycling. E. Their compromise was to account for the use of 80% of the material that is made available each year through extraction and recycling.

DIRECTION (111-115): Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
111. If the issuer issues masala bond in rupees, then he gets rid of the risk in the form of currency fluctuation which he passes on to the investor. This bond brings a new and diversified set of investors for Indian companies and more liquidity in foreign exchange. A. The risk gets passed on the investor B. More liquidity in foreign exchange C. Masala bonds bring a new set of investors Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and B E. None of the above

112. Captain Michael allowed his men to make important decisions in a democratic manner. This democratic attitude fostered a spirit of togetherness and commitment on the part of Michael's fellow explorers. A. As soon as B. In accordance with C. Allowing Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and B E. None of the above

113. High-interest rates on the loan the business procured consumed so much of their revenue that they were forced to liquidate some of their holdings. All this happened when its refinancing attempts failed. A. The high-interest rates of the loan B. The business was forced to liquidate C. The high-interest rate of the loan Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and C E. None of the above

114. Reporting a 90 percent drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restructuring charges and weak sales, the earnings guidance for the year was withdrawn by Best Buy Co. A. Report of a 90 percent drop in net income B. Best Buy Co. is reporting a 90 percent drop in net income C. Best Buy Co. has reported a 90 percent drop in net income Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and B E. None of the above

115. Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy due to his belief in canals on Mars. However, modern astronomers dismiss this belief as material for pop science fiction. A. Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy B. Percival Lowell's interest in astronomy was due to C. Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and C E. None of the above

Solutions: For Q(81-115)
81.
Answer: Option B
82.
Answer: Option D
83.
Answer: Option C
84.
Answer: Option A
85.
Answer: Option C
86.
Answer: Option E
87.
Answer: Option A
88.
Answer: Option A
89.
Answer: Option C
90.
Answer: Option B
91.
Answer: Option D
92.
Answer: Option B
93.
Answer: Option B
94.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Snitch and Sneak both have same meaning. Snitch and Sneak both mean to inform on someone
95.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A porch or verandah means a covered shelter projecting in front of the entrance of a building. Both have same meaning.
96.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Vituperate and compliment both are antonyms. Vituperate means to insult someone in violent language while, compliment means to praise someone politely.
97.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Conundrum or Riddle means a confusing and difficult problem.
98.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Praise means to express warm approval while lash means to beat with a stick.
99.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Notional or Quixotic means not existing in reality
100.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Vacillate or Dither means to wave between different opinions or actions.
101.
Answer: Option C
102.
Answer: Option D
103.
Answer: Option E
104.
Answer: Option B
105.
Answer: Option D
106.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Option D does not fit into the theme of the passage as the given passage delineates the systematic observations of reptiles. It does focus the nature of crocodiles particularly.
107.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Option B is odd one out into the theme of the passage. The passage tells about the changing role of HR in the context of radically altered environment not about HR competencies
108.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The passage depicts about the strategies followed by politicians during the election campaign. It does not pay attention upon economies.
109.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Option C does not fit into the theme of the passage.
110.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Option B is odd one out, all other options describes the modern uses of metals while option (b) is related to analysis of metals.
111.
Answer: Option E
112.
Answer: Option C
113.
Answer: Option B
114.
Answer: Option C
115.
Answer: Option C

116. Indravati National Park is a national park located in which among the following states?

A. Odisha B. West Bengal C. Chhatisgarh D. Assam E. Tamil Nadu

117. EFTPOS is an electronic payment system involving electronic funds transfers based on the use of payment cards, such as debit or credit cards, at payment terminals located at points of sale. What is E in EFTPOS?

A. Electronic B. Essential C. Every D. Effective E. None of the above

118. The Book "One Indian Girl" is the 7th fictional novel and the 9th overall novel written by the Indian author?

A. Vikram Seth B. Arundhati Roy C. Kiran Desai D. Aravind Adiga E. Chetan Bhagat

119. Bhavanisagar Dam or Lower Bhavani Dam, is located in which state?

A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu C. Maharashtra D. West Bengal E. Madhya Pradesh

120. Does RBI believe this boost to consumption will lead to gross value added (GVA) growth of _____ for 2016-17?

A. 7.1 percent B. 7.0 percent C. 7.9 percent D. 7.6 percent E. 7.3 percent

121. The Sheikh Zayed Stadium is a cricket ground located in which among the following cities?

A. Abu Dhabi, UAE B. Dubai, UAE C. Karachi, Pakistan D. Lahore, Pakistan E. Hyderabad, India

122. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10-14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Where is the headquartered of OPEC?

A. Geneva, Switzerland B. Belgium, Brussels C. New York, USA D. Paris, France E. Vienna, Austria

123. Indian and Chinese armies have held the second joint tactical exercise "Sino India Cooperation 2016 in which city?

A. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh B. Ladakh, Jammu, and Kashmir C. Ajmer, Rajasthan D. Dehradun, Uttarakhand E. None of these

124. Dalai Lama has been given the honorary citizenship of which among the following cities?

A. Moscow, Russia B. Rome, Italy C. Milan, Italy D. Paris, France E. Sydney, Australia

125. The Election Commission of India has held the first-ever International Conference on Voter Education in which city?

A. Patna B. Chennai C. Lucknow D. New Delhi E. Kolkata

126. The 11-member committee, headed by former Finance Secretary Ratan P Watal is related with which among the following committee?

A. Incentivize transactions through cards and digital B. One Rank One Pension C. Indo-Pakistani war and Simla Agreement D. Financial inclusion or inclusive financing E. None of these

127. Corporation Bank is a public sector banking company headquartered in?

A. Kolkata B. Mangalore C. Chennai D. Bengaluru E. Mumbai

128. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers, which commercial banks have to hold as reserves either in cash or as deposits with the central bank. CRR is set according to the guidelines of the central bank of a country. CRR controls

A. It cheaper for banks to borrow money B. Is a tool, which central bank uses for short-term purposes C. Greater control to the central bank over the money supply D. Marking a shift from an earlier method of calibrating various policy rates separately E. None of these

129. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) is a Zero Balance Savings Account that takes care of your simple banking needs with Free ATM card, monthly statement, and checkbook. How much amount has withdrawal and transfer limit under BSBDA?

A. ₹ 1,00,000 per month B. ₹ 20,000 per month C. ₹ 50,000 per year D. ₹ 10,000 per month E. No Limit

130. Grama Vidiyal Microfinance, a Trichy-based microfinance company has acquired by which among the following Banks?

A. Punjab National Bank B. Bandhan Bank C. ICICI Bank D. State Bank of India E. IDFC Bank

131. Nassau is the capital, largest city, and commercial centre of the Commonwealth of the?

A. Kenya B. Argentina C. Uganda D. Iceland E. Bahamas

132. Which is a hybrid security, combining features of preferred stock and corporate bonds?

A. UPI B. NPCI C. NEFT D. MIPS E. RTGS

133. Which among the following countries North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) leaders will hold their next summit in 2017?

A. Beijing, China B. New York, USA C. Paris, France D. Brussels, Belgium E. London, UK

134. Kalikho Paul who has found hanging from a ceiling fan was the Chief Minister of which state?

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Himachal Pradesh E. Uttar Pradesh

135. The highest currency note ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was a Rs 10,000 note during the British Raj. It was printed first in

A. 1919 B. 1946 C. 1938 D. 1912 E. 1978

136. The Bermuda Triangle, also known as the Devil's Triangle, is a loosely-defined region in the western part of which Ocean?

A. Australia Ocean B. Atlantic Ocean C. Southern, Ocean D. Indian, Ocean E. None of the above

137. The Antwerp Diamond Bank is a small, 75-year-old bank that specializes exclusively in serving the diamond and the diamond jewelry sector. Where is the headquarter of the Antwerp Diamond Bank?

A. Vienna, Austria B. Antwerp, Belgium C. Frankfurt, Germany D. Beijing, China E. Washington DC, USA

138. Typhoon Haima made a second landfall in which country?

A. China B. India C. Japan D. Malaysia E. Singapore

139. In a bid to boost credit growth in the economy, the Centre announced a sum of how much crore for recapitalisation of 13 public sector banks?

A. ₹ 22,915 crore B. ₹ 27,110 crore C. ₹ 10,000 crore D. ₹ 50,207 crore E. ₹ 38,500 crore

140. Payments banks are a new model of banks conceptualized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These banks can accept a restricted deposit which is currently limited to INR 1 lakh per customer account. How much amount minimum capital has requirement for Payments banks?

A. ₹ 1 crore B. ₹ 50 crore C. ₹ 1000 crore D. ₹ 500 crore E. ₹ 100 crore

141. Bharat Bill Payment System is a major component of the retail payment transactions in India, and is characterized by the presence of large number of billers, who provide a variety of payment options to their customers. According to information available on the RBI website, the top 20 cities are generating INR how much amount in bill payments every year ?

A. INR 16,810 billion B. INR 4,703 billion C. INR 10,172 billion D. INR 6,223 billion E. None of the above

142. Currency risk is the potential risk of loss from fluctuating foreign exchange rates when an investor has exposure to foreign currency or in foreign-currency-traded investments. Currency risk is sometimes referred to as

A. Monetary Rate B. Export Rate C. Trade Rate D. Exchange-rate risk E. None of the above

143. The government has named _________ outside experts as members of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), moving to a model followed in the developed world.

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. Five

144. MasterCard is rolling out its Identity Check service, popularly known as ________ to customers in Europe through a new mobile app.

A. Selfie pay B. Voice Record C. Fingerprint D. Video play E. None of these

145. Who has launched the party name as People's Resurgence Justice Alliance (PRJA)?

A. Niranjan Jyoti B. Irom Sharmila C. Aung San Suu Kyi D. Yogi Adityanath E. None of these

146. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the Report of the Internal Working Group (IWG) on Rationalisation of Branch Authorisation Policy. The Group is chaired by?

A. Bibek Debroy B. Madhukar Gupta C. NR Nagendra D. Ratan P Watal E. Lily Vadera

147. Mobile Money Identification Number (MMID) is a ________ digit number of which the first four digits are the unique identification number of the bank offering Immediate Payment Service (IMPS).

A. Seven B. Thirteen C. Eleven D. Nine E. None of these

148. All bank loans, including home loans, taken are now linked to the bank's marginal cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR). MCLR has effective from?

A. January 1, 2016 B. September 1, 2015 C. April 1, 2015 D. April 1, 2016 E. None of these

149. Two professors from Harvard and MIT have been awarded the Nobel Prize in economics for contributions to

A. Financial and real estate markets B. Private Prisons C. Contract theory D. Essential to the functioning E. Research sheds light

150. _________ is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.

A. Real-time gross settlement systems (RTGS) B. Electronic Funds Transfer at Point of Sale (EFTPOS) C. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) D. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) E. None of these

151. Name the department that was set up by the Union Finance Ministry to streamline government borrowings and better cash management with the overall objective of deepening bond markets.

A. Debt Management Cell B. Department of Debt Management C. Cell for management of debt D. All of the above E. None of these

152. The lock-in period in case of a term deposit means

A. Locker service is not available B. Premature withdrawal is not possible C. Another account cannot be opened D. No further investment is possible E. None of these

153. Who of the following won India's first gold medal at the Rio Paralympic Games.

A. Varun Singh Bhati B. Mariyappan Thangavelu C. Ankur Dhama D. Virender Dhanka E. None of these

154. India in September 2016 signed Air Services Agreement under Open Sky Policy with which country?

A. Russia B. Thailand C. Greece D. Switzerland E. None of these

155. Which of the following financial institutions is based in the Basel city of Switzerland?

A. IMF B. World Bank C. ADB D. BIS E. WTO

Solutions: For Q(81-115)
116.
Answer:Option C
117.
Answer:Option A
118.
Answer:Option E
119.
Answer:Option B
120.
Answer:Option D
121.
Answer:Option A
122.
Answer:Option E
123.
Answer:Option B
124.
Answer:Option C
125.
Answer:Option D
126.
Answer:Option A
127.
Answer:Option B
128.
Answer:Option C
129.
Answer:Option D
130.
Answer:Option E
131.
Answer:Option E
132.
Answer:Option D
133.
Answer:Option D
134.
Answer:Option C
135.
Answer:Option C
136.
Answer:Option B
137.
Answer:Option B
138.
Answer:Option A
139.
Answer:Option A
140.
Answer:Option E
141.
Answer:Option D
142.
Answer:Option D
143.
Answer:Option C
144.
Answer:Option A
145.
Answer:Option E
146.
Answer:Option E
147.
Answer:Option A
148.
Answer:Option D
149.
Answer:Option C
150.
Answer:Option D
151.
Answer:Option A
152.
Answer:Option B
153.
Answer:Option A
154.
Answer:Option C
155.
Answer:Option D